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DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts > Exam 2 Cell Mediated Immunity > Flashcards

Exam 2 Cell Mediated Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Specific/adaptive immunity involves:

A

B cells (humoral, antibody mediated)
T-cells (CD4) that help humoral or CMI pathways
T cell (CD8) CMI

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2
Q

After activation, some B and T cells become:

A

Memory cells (Anamnestic)

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3
Q

Adaptive (specific) immunity allows for ______ immune response

A

More rapid and robust

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4
Q

All T cells have which CD?

A

CD3

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5
Q

Which type of T cells have CD8

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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6
Q

Which type of T cells have CD4

A

Helper T cells (Th1 and 2)

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7
Q

Which CD is used for T cell signaling?

A

CD3

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8
Q

CD4 T helper cells recognize:

A

MHC II
Exogenous or “found” antigens

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9
Q

Th2 cells are associated with:

A

B lymphocytes

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10
Q

Th1 cells are associated with:

A

Macrophages

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11
Q

True or false: HLA and MHC are different things

A

False - they are interchangeable terms

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12
Q

What is presented to T cells?

A

Antigen-antibody complex

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13
Q

An antigen is internalized into B cell via:

A

Receptor mediated BCR endocytosis via Signal 1 and 2

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14
Q

Foreign antigen is presented to T cell as:

A

Non self

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15
Q

What are antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophages
B cells
Dendritic cells

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16
Q

B cell activation by CD4 T helper cell is achieved by:

A

Signal 1 and Signal 2

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17
Q

Signal 1 consists of:

A

BCR and TCR

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18
Q

Signal 2 consists of:

A

B7 and CD28

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19
Q

Biomarker of native T cells

A

CD45RA

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20
Q

Biomarker of memory T cells

A

CD45RO

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21
Q

What is anergy?

A

Partial activation without a co-receptor; unresponsive; sign for apoptosis to occur

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22
Q

Anergy prevents:

A

Most types of autoimmunity and unregulated responses

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23
Q

In a primary humoral response, the primary antibody response produces __ which takes ____

A

IgM; 7-10 days

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24
Q

In a secondary humoral response, the antibody made is ___ which takes ____

A

IgG; 1-4 days

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25
Q

IgG class switching requires:

A

IL-4 and IFN-gamma

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26
Q

IgA class switching requires:

A

IL-4 and TGF-beta

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27
Q

IgE class switching requires:

A

IL-4 only

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28
Q

Memory IgA cells and plasma cells are formed near:

A

Mucosae

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29
Q

What are some common features of lymphoid tissues?

A
  • outer cortex, inner medulla
  • B cells cluster at the cortex (follicle)
  • T cells in paracortex
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30
Q

When does germinal center develop in lymphoid tissues?

A

When antigen enters; at this point B and T cells found in secondary follicle

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31
Q

Which cells are part of innate immunity?

A
  • Macrophages
  • NK cells
  • Neutrophils
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32
Q

True or false: T cells are involved in both innate and specific immunity

A

True

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33
Q

Phagocytosis is done by:

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis

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34
Q

Th1 antigen processing and presentation involves what cellular response?

A

Inflammation (associated with macrophages)

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35
Q

Microglia

A

Macrophages in CNS

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36
Q

Kupffer cells

A

Macrophages in the liver

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37
Q

Alveolar cells

A

Macrophages in the lungs

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38
Q

Difference between monocytes and macrophages

A
  • Monocytes found in blood
  • Macrophages found in tissue
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39
Q

Microglia are activated by:

A
  • IL-1
  • IL-6
  • IFN-gamma
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40
Q

Kupffer cells are activated by:

A
  • IL-1
  • IL-6
  • IFN-gamma
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41
Q

Alveolar cells are activated by:

A
  • IL-1
  • IL-6
  • IFN-gamma
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42
Q

Macrophages can perform what forms of phagocytosis?

A
  • opsonin mediated
  • complement mediated (C3b, C5b)
  • antibody-mediated phagocytosis
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43
Q

True or false: macrophages are antigen presenting cells

A

True

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44
Q

T-helper subsets (Th1, Th2) are defined by:

A

The profile of cytokines released upon activation

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45
Q

Which Th response occurs first?

A

Th1 - locally

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46
Q

IL-2 is for:

A

Proliferation

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47
Q

IL-6 is for:

A

Inflammatory

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48
Q

IL-4 is for:

A

Class switching

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49
Q

What does Th1 typically secrete?

A

IFN-gamma, IL-2

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50
Q

Where is the clonal expansion and class switching happening?

A
  • germinal centers in lymph nodes
  • mucosal associated lymph tissues (MALT) like Peyers Patches and the tonsils
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51
Q

Cytokines

A

a number of substances, such as interferon, interleukin, and growth factors, which are secreted by T-Cells and have an effect on other cells.

They aid in the maturation of B-cells, signal T-cells to replicate, and recruit other cells to the area

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52
Q

TH1 (in specific tissues) secretes _____ to promote the proliferation of T-cells, it also uses _____ to reduce mRNA activity and also the production of TH2 cells

A

IL-2, IFN-γ

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53
Q

TH2 (found in lymph nodes and mucosal associated lymph tissues) uses _____ to facilitate clonal expansion and class switching, it also uses ____ to aid in the production of IL-4 and keep the production of TH1 at bay

A

IL-4, IL-10

54
Q

Th2 (CD4) cells are activated by ____ and secrete cytokines ___ upon activation

A

B cells; IL-10 and IL-4

55
Q

Th1 (CD4) cells are activated by ____ and secrete cytokines ____ upon activation

A

Macrophages or monocytes; IL-2, IFN-gamma

56
Q

____ suppresses the formation of mRNA to reduce expression of proteins/viral proteins

A

IFN-gamma

57
Q

Which cytokine inhibits Th2 cytokines (IL-10)?

A

IFN-gamma

58
Q

Both IFN-gamma and IL-10 are involved with ____ responses and ____ signaling

A

Localized; autocrine and paracrine

59
Q

IL-10 inhibits:

A

Th1 cytokines (IFN)

60
Q

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) recognize MHC ___ and ____

A

MHC I; endogenous antigens like viruses and cancer

61
Q

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) provide a mechanism to:

A

Check “inside” another cell

62
Q

Complete activation of CTL (CD8) requires:

A

Both signal 1 and signal 2

63
Q

When CTL (CD8) cells become activated, what happens?

What do they release, and where?

A

They release polarized secretion of lytic granules that contain cytotoxins, only towards the target cell to reduce any damage to neighboring cells

64
Q

What are perforins?

A

Form transmembrane pores in target cells - similar to MAC attack from complement cascade proteins (C6-C9)

65
Q

What are granzymes and what do they do?

A
  • they are serine proteases (trypsin-like) that enter the target cell through perforin pores
  • activate nucleases to initiate apoptosis
66
Q

Granzymes do not cause ____ of target cells so as to not ____

A

lysis; release infective particles that are inside the target cell

67
Q

What is a stimulus or “signal” to undergo apoptosis?

(CTL)

A

CTL granzymes secreted into perforins

68
Q

In apoptotic cells, _____ is lost so that ___ becomes externalized. This induces a “ ___ “ signal

A

PS asymmetry; PS; eat me signal

69
Q

IL-2 induces:

A

Lymphocyte proliferation

70
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) promotes:

A

Apoptosis

71
Q

Interferon-gamma function

A

Limits mRNA production and translation

72
Q

Natural killer cells lack CD_

A

CD3 (they have CD16 and 56)

73
Q

Natural killer cells are important in:

A

Cell mediated immunity (viral-infected cells, anti-cancer activity)

74
Q

Many tumors demonstrate ____ activity. ____ is downregulated

A

DNMT3; DNMT1

methylation occurs on MHC I genes on chromosome 6p

75
Q

Cancers are associated with lower ____ expression

A

MHC I (HLA I)

76
Q

Many viruses produce pro-viral transcription factors, which lower ________ expression

A

MHC I/HLA I

77
Q

Natural killer cells comprise ___ of WBC

A

10%

78
Q

NK cells are ____ cells

A

Antigen non-specific lymphoid

79
Q

NK cells are closely related to ____ cells and secrete ____

A

CTL (CD8); perforin and granzymes

80
Q

What immune cells secrete perforin and granzymes?

A

CTL and NK cells

81
Q

____ are the first responders and mainly PMN phagocytic cells

A

Neutrophils

82
Q

____ are associated with acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

83
Q

Neutropenia is associated with:

A

Periodontitis

84
Q

If a patient is taking immunosuppressants or is immune compromised, the 1st cells suppressed is:

A

Neutrophils

85
Q

Agranulocytosis

A

100% probability of infection, risk of death is 100%

<200 uL of neutrophils

86
Q

During phagocytosis, the fusion of phagosome and lysosome forms:

A

Phagolysosome

87
Q

PMN granules contain ____ and are released during ____

A

Antimicrobial proteins/proteases; degranulation

88
Q

Primary (azurophilic) granules released during ____. The contents are stored in _____ form, which include ___, ___, ____

A

Phagocytosis; ACTIVE; lysosome, defensins, cathepsin B

89
Q

Cathepsin B

A

Inhibits peptidoglycan

90
Q

Secondary degranulation is regulated release following phagocytosis and are stored in ____ form

A

Inactive

91
Q

What occurs during respiratory burst?

A

release of reactive oxygen species, such as superoxide (O2-), hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radical

92
Q

True or false: respiratory burst may damage host

A

True - liquifies anything around it

93
Q

IL-2 is required for:

A

Proliferation and clonal expansion of activated T cells

94
Q

IL-2 acts in ___ and ___ manner

A
  • Autocrine (binds to receptors on same cell
  • Paracrine (binds to other nearby cells including Th, CTL, B cells, NK)
95
Q

Diapedesis

A

Leukocyte extravasation; movement through intact capillary wall (inflammation)

96
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Movement along concentration gradient

97
Q

Chemotaxis is ___ mediated

A

Receptor
(IL-1, IL-6)

98
Q

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha are:

A

Bone resorptive

99
Q

IL-1 and TNF-a are produced by:

A

CTL, macrophages, Th1 cells

100
Q

IL-1 and TNF-a are found in increased levels in patients with:

A

periodontitis GCF and gingival tissues
(Bone loss and resorption)

101
Q

IL-8 serves as a chemoattractant for:

A

PMN (neutrophils)

102
Q

IL-8 binds to

A

GPCR to initiate cellular response

103
Q

Cytokine related diseases

A

Over or underexpression of cytokines

104
Q

Bacterial septic shock involves ____ due to tissue pooling of fluids. Symptoms include:

A

Hypotension; disseminated intravascular coagulation, fever, multiple organ failure

105
Q

What is responsible for many of the disease processes of septic shock?

A

Endotoxins (LPS) from gram-negative bacteria - stimulate release of cytokines (IL-1 and TNF-alpha)

106
Q

Which bacteria produce superantigens that can bypass anergy?

A

S. aureus TSST-1 and S. pyogenes exotoxin A

107
Q

True or false: No antigen recognition is involved for superantigens to bind

A

True - many T cells are activated to produce excessive amounts of cytokines (IL-1, TNF-alpha, IL-6)

108
Q

What diseases are related to T-cell deficiency?

A

XL-SCID
DiGeorge syndrome
MHC deficiency
Omenn syndrome

109
Q

True or false - XL-SCID can be inherited

A

True

110
Q

Genetic deficiency of XL SCID

A

IL-2 receptor on X chromosome (required for IL-7R so IL-7 becomes non-functional)

111
Q

Is XL-SCID common or rare?

A

Rare (but males more commonly affected)

112
Q

XL SCID treatment

A

Pooled gamma globulins (passive immunization) to treat primary immunodeficiency (PID)

113
Q

Which T-cell related disease is likely not inherited?

A

DiGeorge syndrome (90% is de novo deletion of 22q11.2)

114
Q

____ is associated with thymic aplasia, cleft palate, and craniofacial disorders

A

DiGeorge syndrome

115
Q

BLS1

A

MHC 1 deficiency

116
Q

BLS1 is a mutation of

A

TAP1

117
Q

BLS II

A

MHC II deficiency

118
Q

Both Bare lymphocyte syndrome I and II are ____

A

Rare

119
Q

BLS I is associated with what types of infections

A

Intracellular parasites, viral infections

120
Q

Does BLS affect CMI?

A

Yes (both)

121
Q

BLS II and Quie syndrome are a form of ____

A

SCID

122
Q

______ are non functional in BLS II

A

Th1 and Th2

123
Q

Chronic Granulomatous disease is also known as

A

Bridges-Good syndrome or Quie syndrome

124
Q

Quie syndrome is associated with _____

A

Neutrophil dysfunction (can’t do respiratory burst but can do primary degranulation, inflammation, phagocytosis)

125
Q

Kostmann syndrome inheritence pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

126
Q

_____ is common with Kostmann syndrome

A

Periodontitis
Also neurological problems, seizures, learning disabilities, developmental delays

127
Q

If you see a kid with periodontitis, it is likely that they have:

A

Kostmann syndrome
(kids don’t usually have periodontitis)

128
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome inheritence pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

129
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome - _____ is common

A

Periodontitis

130
Q

If a patient has red eyes, light skin, hypopigmentation, and silvery hair with atypical recurrent gingivitis or periodontitis, they likely have what syndrome?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

131
Q

Severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) inheritence pattern

A

Autosomal dominant

132
Q

Severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) is associated with ____ and is often fatal. and often requires ____ transplant

A
  • common abscesses (cutaneous, internal organs)
  • bacterial sepsis
  • often requires bone marrow transplant

DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts (26 decks)

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