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DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts > Exam 1 10/2 Kingsley Immuno > Flashcards

Exam 1 10/2 Kingsley Immuno Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomic physical barrier that keeps pathogens out of tissues and bloodstream

A

Tight junctions (zona occludens)

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2
Q

Mucosal epithelium examples

A

Saliva, mucins, ciliary escalator

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3
Q

Major proteins of zona occludens

A

claudins, occludins

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4
Q

What is the mucociliary escalator?

A

self clearing mechanism of bronchi; removes debris (pathogens) in a sweeping motion for you to swallow them so they die in gastric juices

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5
Q

How fast does mucociliary escalator beat?

A

700-1000 beats per minute

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6
Q

What does lysozyme do?

A

Cleaves Beta-1,4 bond between NAG and NAM in peptidoglycan

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7
Q

Where is lysozyme found?

A

saliva, PMN granules (red)

tears, breast milk, urine (black)

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8
Q

What do defensins do?

A

Permeabilize cell membranes of bacteria by creating pores or openings

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9
Q

What are defensins made of?

A

small cysteine rich proteins

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10
Q

What cells are defensins found in?

A
  1. neutrophil (in cytoplasmic granules)
  2. epithelial cells (skin, mucus secretions)
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11
Q

Lactoferrin is a globular _____

A

glycoprotein

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12
Q

Where is lactoferrin found?

A

saliva, tears, nasal secretions, breast milk

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13
Q

What does lactoferrin do?

A

Chelates iron - takes iron away from bacteria, considered antibacterial

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14
Q

What cells is lactoferrin found in?

A

Glandular epithelial cells; neutrophils

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15
Q

2 types of inflammation

A
  1. acute
  2. chronic
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16
Q

Acute inflammation is characterized as:

A
  1. short duration
  2. fluid and plasma exudate (edema)
  3. neutrophilic infiltrate
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17
Q

What cell is associated with acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

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18
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterized as:

A
  1. longer duration (months, years)
  2. influx of lymphocytes and macrophages (more cell recruitment)
  3. fibrosis (scarring)
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19
Q

TLR4 binds to

A

LPS

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20
Q

LPS is an:

A

exogenous pyrogen

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21
Q

Normal body temp range

A

99.5-100.9 (above that is fever)

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22
Q

Pyrexia

A

febrile response

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23
Q

Pyrogen

A

biochemical substance that induce fever

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24
Q

Endogenous pyrogens (localized)

A

IL-1, IL-6

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25
Q

Endogenous pyrogens (hypothalamus)

A

Prostaglandin E2

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26
Q

What endogenous pyrogen is transcriptionally mediated?

A

Interleukins (IL-1)

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27
Q

True or false: interleukins participate in paracrine signalling

A

False - Both paracrine and autocrine; prostaglandin E2 as well does both

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28
Q

Eicosanoids

A

Arachidonic acid metabolites

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29
Q

Which endogenous pyrogen is an eicosanoid?

A

Prostaglandin E2

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30
Q

Prostaglandin E2 influences:

A

hypothalamic set-point inducing generalized fever as an endocrine

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31
Q

True or false: eicosanoids are stored in PMN granules

A

False - they are synthesized as needed

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32
Q

Three major eicosanoids participate in innate immune responses, which are:

A
  1. leukotrienes
  2. prostaglandins
  3. lipoxins
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33
Q

Classical eicosanoinds

A

leukotrienes, prostaglandins

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34
Q

Non-classical eicosanoids

A

lipoxins

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35
Q

_____ is inhibited by aspirin/Advil

A

Cyclooxygenase

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36
Q

PLA2

A

enzyme that converts phospholipid into arachidonic acid

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37
Q

What cells are leukotrienes found in?

A

neutrophils, mast cells/basophils, monocytes, eosinophils

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38
Q

_____ recruits neutrophils and is a chemoattractant

A

Leukotriene B4

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39
Q

What enzyme allows the formation of leukotrienes?

A

5-lipoxygenase

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40
Q

Prostaglandins are derived from what kinds of signals?

A

ENDOCRINE (red)
autocrine, paracrine

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41
Q

What cells are prostaglandins associated with?

A

neutrophils, mast cells/basophils, monocytes, eosinophils

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42
Q

Function of Prostaglandin E2

A

increases vasodilation, fever; hypothalamus

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43
Q

What enzyme allows formation of prostaglandin from arachidonic acid?

A

Cyclooxygenase

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44
Q

What cells are lipoxins associated with?

A

neutrophils, mast cells/basophils, monocytes, eosinophils

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45
Q

______ inhibits chemotaxis/inflammation

A

Lipoxin A4 LXA4

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46
Q

What enzyme allows formation of lipoxins from arachidonic acid?

A

1,2-lipoxygenase

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47
Q

Interferon I is produced by:

A

leukocytes (WBC, PMN)

48
Q

IFN-alpha and IFN-beta are:

A

Interferon type I

49
Q

Interferon I is a ____ factor to ____ neurons

A

pyrogenic; thermosensitive hypothalamic neurons

50
Q

Interferon Type I functions to:

A

down-regulate RNA production (anti-viral)

51
Q

Interferon gamma is associated with

A

Interferon Type II

52
Q

Interferon type II is produced by _____ and inhibits ____

A

Th1 cells; Th2 cytokines

53
Q

____ is a potent activator of Class II MHC

A

Interferon Type II

54
Q

Complement system promotes ______

A

Inflammation and phagocytosis

55
Q

C3a and C5a

A

chemoattractants

56
Q

C3b is a:

A

opsonin

57
Q

Complement mediated lysis occurs through formation of the:

A

MAC attack (membrane attack complex)

58
Q

Complement is a part of (adaptive/innate) immunity

A

Innate

59
Q

Classical complement pathway is activated by:

A

antibody-antigen complex (IgM or IgG bound to antigen)

60
Q

C1q activation occurs in:

A

classical complement pathway; binds to antigen/antibody complex

61
Q

Alternate complement pathway is activated by:

A

bacteria products (LPS, teichoic acid)

62
Q

What happens during alternate complement pathway?

A
  1. direct activation of complement on bacterial cell surface
63
Q

What does Factor H do?

A

deactivates alternate pathway on host cells so complement doesn’t poke holes through our own cells

64
Q

Lectin pathway is activated by:

A

mannose binding protein (can be an opsonin)

65
Q

What bacteria/fungi are associated with lectin pathway?

A
  1. salmonella
  2. listeria
  3. neisseria
  4. fungal candida
  5. cryptococcus
66
Q

C1q binds what part of the antibody?

A

CH2 Fc

67
Q

Order of C proteins in classical pathway

A

1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9

68
Q

C5 to C9

A

MAC

69
Q

C3a and C5a characteristics

A
  1. chemoattractants
  2. pro-inflammatory
  3. anaphylatoxins
70
Q

Alternate complement pathway is activated by

A

spontaneous hydrolysis of C3

71
Q

Most abundant complement protein in blood plasma

A

C3

72
Q

Lectin pathway occurs in presence/absence of antigen-antibody complex

A

Absence

73
Q

Mannose binding lectin binds to:

A

mannose on microbe surface

74
Q

Ficolin binds to:

A

NAG on bacterial cell wall

75
Q

True or false: all complement pathways converge with C3

A

True - thus can proceed to MAC

76
Q

What does MAC do?

A

forms transmembrane channels –> cell lysis; death

77
Q

Complement “a” fragment function

A

biologically active, remains in liquid phase

78
Q

Complement “b” fragment function

A

“binds” to a surface (opsonin)

79
Q

Opsonins are molecules that enhance _____

A

phagocytosis

80
Q

What do acute phase proteins (APP) do?

A

increase or decrease in response to inflammation; include many cytokines and interleukins (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8)

81
Q

C-reactive protein (CRP) function

A

opsonin, proinflammatory

82
Q

In acute inflammation, we see ____ and ____ which leads to capillary dilation, fluid exudate, and ______

A

vasodilation; vascular leakage; transmigration of PMN

83
Q

Selectins are used for

A

rolling adhesion

84
Q

Tight binding uses what proteins

A

integrins

85
Q

Another name for leukocyte extravasation

A

Diapedesis

86
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

movement through intact capillary wall due to inflammation

87
Q

Chemotaxis

A

moving along a concentration gradient

88
Q

Diapedesis is ______ mediated

A

Receptor (C3a, C5a, leukotriene B4, IL-1 and 6)

89
Q

Another name for chemokine

A

cytokine

90
Q

Which cytokine binds GPCR on PMN?

A

IL-8

91
Q

Acute inflammation is primarily which cell

A

neutrophil

92
Q

Neutropenia is associated with:

A

periodontitis

93
Q

Agranulocytosis

A

less than 200/uL means 100% of infection - 100% risk of death

94
Q

For neutropenia, under _____, there is an increased risk of infection

A

1000/uL

95
Q

Phagolysosome

A

Fusion of phagosome and lysosome

96
Q

Primary PMN granule

A

Released during phagocytosis; stored in active form

97
Q

What proteins are stored in primary PMN granule

A

cathepsin B, defensins; also lysosome

98
Q

Secondary PMN granule

A

stored in inactive form, released after phagocytosis

99
Q

What happens during respiratory burst?

A

reactive oxygen species:
1. superoxide (O2-)
2. hydrogen peroxide
3. hydroxyl radical

100
Q

What are neutrophil NETs?

A

release web like structure as last resort; all granules and respiratory burst vesicles released

101
Q

Types of acute inflammation

A
  1. serous
  2. fibrinous
  3. suppurative (purulent)
102
Q

Serous inflammation - describe

A

watery, protein poor fluid (ex blister)

103
Q

Fibrinous inflammation describe

A

more serious injury/infection, fibrinogen gets into the area due to greater vascular permeability

104
Q

Suppurative/purulent inflammation describe

A

Lot of pus, exudate containing PMN, fluid, necrotic cells
Dental abscess example

105
Q

Causes of chronic inflammation

A
  1. mycobacteria in macrophages (don’t get broken down due to cell wall)
  2. hypersensitivity, autoimmune responses
106
Q

Why do mycobacteria continue to live in macrophages?

A

waxy lipid coat can’t be broken down, inhibits phagolysosome, thus can replicate in macrophages

107
Q

Why does a granuloma form?

A

failure of acute inflammation resolution; protective immune response to infection

108
Q

What cells form granuloma?

A

epithelioid cells (end stage macrophages)

109
Q

What bacteria causes the formation of granulomas?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

110
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome

A

dry mouth, dry eyes

111
Q

Xerostomia

A

dry mouth

112
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)

A

dry eyes

113
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome increases risk of:

A

caries

114
Q

In Sjogren’s syndrome ____ forms in salivary glands

A

secondary follicles

115
Q

Type II autoimmune diseases are associated with:

A

lymphocytic infiltrates

DEN 7102 Micro & Immuno Concepts (26 decks)

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