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Mesa Airlines Training > UPGRADE - Oral > Flashcards

UPGRADE - Oral Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the DC service switch get power from?

A

Normally powered by the TRU 2 through the DC BUS 2

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2
Q

Why do we not leave the airplane in the service configuration using the DC service switch?

A

It will drain the battery

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3
Q

With the battery master switch on (No AC power established) which screens come online? What is the limitation?

A

EICAS Display 1 and 2, 5 minutes (due to the display fans not being on)

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4
Q

What does the AVAIL Illumination on the AC switchlight indicate?

A

Proper PHASE, VOLTAGE, FREQUENCY

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5
Q

What does the FAULT illumination on the IDG switchlight indicate?

A

High oil temperature or Low oil pressure in the IDG

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6
Q

What does the DISC illumination of the IDG switchlight indicate?

A

IDG has been disconnected

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7
Q

How can the IDG be disconnected?

A

Either manually or automatically

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8
Q

Explain the auto disconnect of the IDG?

A

when electrical disconnect fails, mechanical disconnect occurs when an over temperature or by shearing the IDG drive shaft with an over torque condition

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9
Q

What does the illumination of the AC ESS XFER switchlight indicate?

A

AC ESS bus is not powered by AC Bus 1

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10
Q

How many generators are installed on the airplane?

A

4

  1. GEN 1
  2. GEN 2
  3. APU (Generator)
  4. ADG (Generator)
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11
Q

What are the main generators rated at?

A

2- Engine driven Integrated Drive Generators
40 KVA, 115 V (AC), 400 HZ

1- APU generator
40 KVA, 115 V (AC), 400 HZ

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12
Q

What is the ADG rated at?

A

15 KVA, 115 V (AC), 400 HZ

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13
Q

What would cause the ADG to auto deploy in flight?

A

With complete loss the AC system (AC Bus 1 and 2)

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14
Q

If the ADG is deployed in flight, what does it power?

A

AC ESS bus
Hydraulic 3B pump
Slats/Flaps
STAB TRIM CH 2

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15
Q

Taxiing on the left engine (right engine off) flaps up, APU running (first flight of the day) switches AUTO/ON, which hydraulic pumps are running? How much braking is available?

A

Only system 1 and 3 are running, we don’t have the engine running to run 2A, and flaps are up which doesn’t allow the running of of pump 2B.

Pumps running, 1A, 3A

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16
Q

During normal takeoffs and landings which hydraulic pumps are operating (AUTO/ON)?

A

1A, 1B, 2A, 2B, 3A, 3B

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17
Q

If there is a failure of an A pump in flight, will a B pump automatically come online? AUTO/ON?

A

No, 1B and 2B do NOT automatically start after an engine failure or EDP failure.

Manual mode must be used selected, ON

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18
Q

How many hydraulic accumulators do we have? Purpose? The biggest accumulator?

A

5 accumulators

  • one for each hydraulic system (3)
  • one for each brake system (2)

Purpose: Accumulators are charged with dry nitrogen. They are used to store hydraulic pressure and dampen out pressure surges within the system

Biggest System: Is hydraulic system 3, they have the most demand required

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19
Q

How is Hydraulic system 1 and 2 cooled? Explain

A

Some hydraulic fluid is used to cool the EDP components. So, this fluid is cooled by the air/heat exchanger.

Ram air scoop directs cool air across the air/heat exchanger to cool the hydraulic fluid.
On ground, an electric fan located inside the air/heat exchanger draws cool air from the ram air scoop for cooling

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20
Q

How does Hydraulic system 3 get cooling?

A

Through natural convection and radiation dissipation of heat

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21
Q

How many ways can we transfer fuel?

A

3 ways

  • Auto XFLOW
  • Manual XFLOW
  • Gravity XFLOW
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22
Q

When do the fuel boost pumps operate?

A
  • When selected in (armed)
  • Used during engine start, when armed
  • They are activated when the FSC senses a low pressure in the engine fuel feed line and the pump will turn on, with one pump on the other pump ALWAYS turns on
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23
Q

When will the fuel system auto transfer fuel?

A

The FSC will sense an imbalance between tanks of 200 lbs and will activate the bi-directional pump to flow fuel from the higher quantity tank.
- The computer will continue to pump fuel until the tanks are balanced plus 50 lbs on the low side

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24
Q

What does the illumination of the FAIL XFLOW switchlights indicate?

A

Auto cross flow has failed, (The failure of the bi-directional pump)

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25
Q

What happens if we move the WING A/I CROSS BLEED switch from normal position FROM LEFT or FROM RIGHT?

A

Cross bleed switch closes the opposite anti-ice valve and opens the cross bleed valve, allowing single source anti-icing

26
Q

If you select the BLEED VALVES rotary knob from AUTO to CLSD which valves will close?

A

Bleed Valves, so it allows APU to be used as a bleed source

27
Q

If you want to use the APU as your primary bleed source, how would you do that?

A
  • From right to left?
28
Q

First Flight of the day. Before you start the APU what must be done?

A

Must do the FIRE SYSTEM TEST!

- Needs to make sure the loops are tested off the battery

29
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU? Where would you verify that?

A

22 Volts, on both batteries, Verify that on the ELECTRICAL SYNOPTICS page

30
Q

What is the APU start limitation?

A

No more than 3 starts allowed in 1 hour, must have 2 minutes in between starts

31
Q

What are the APU priorities?

A

Engine Starting, Air Conditioning, Pressurization

32
Q

What is the top altitude we can use the APU for electrical loading?

A

41,000 feet

33
Q

What is the top altitude we can start the APU?

A

37,000 feet

34
Q

What is the top altitude for bleed air extraction?

A

25,000 feet

35
Q

Where is the APU fuel supplied from?

A

Left collector tank

36
Q

During a normal engine start, the starter should cutout at? If it does not?

A

50%, if it does not follow memory item for “ENGINE STARTER CUTOUT”

37
Q

For a Normal engine start, what is the starter limitations for attempts 1-2, 3-5?

A

1-2: 90 seconds ON, 10 Seconds OFF

3-5: 90 Seconds ON, 5 Minutes OFF

38
Q

When are we required to select CONT IGNITION? When does it automatically come on?

A

Required when:

  • Takeoff and Landing on Contaminated runways
  • Flight through moderate or heavy precipitation
  • Flight through moderate or greater turbulence
  • Flight in vicinity of thunderstorms

Comes on automatically:

  • When approaching a stall (stick shaker sends a signal to the stall protection computer and signals FADEC to energize continuous ignition)
  • FLAMEOUT PROTECTION
39
Q

What is the top altitude we can start an engine?

A

Windmilling/Starter assisted

21,000 feet

40
Q

What is the EPC for a HOT START?

A

Affected Thrust Lever - shutoff
Dry motor - Until ITT reduces below 120 degrees C or starter time limit, whichever occurs first
Affected ENG Stop Switch - Stop

41
Q

How is pressurization normally set?

A

Landing field elevation

42
Q

What does the EMER DEPRESS switchlight do?

A

Outflow valve fully opens to depressurize the aircraft.

- At cruise the cabin depressurizes to 14,500 feet (+/-500 feet)

43
Q

What does the illumination of the FAULT on the PRESS CONT switchlight indicate?

A

That both pressure controllers have failed

44
Q

In the auto mode, what does the illumination of the FAULT on a PACK switchlight indicated?

A

Over pressure or Over temp

45
Q

In manual mode what will usually trigger the FAULT on a PACK switchlight?

A

Over temp

46
Q

What is a PACK?

A

Pressurization Air Conditioning Kit, Left pack supplies cockpit, Right pack supplies Cabin through the mixing manifold

Single Pack can supply both, but at a reduced flow via the mixing manifold

47
Q

Steps (sequence) for a normal engine start

A
  • ISOL valve opens
  • Start Valve opens (associated engine) to allow pressure from bleed air manifold to engage Air Turbine Starter (ATS)
  • White light illuminates the associated START switchlight
  • L or R ENGINE START display message is on EICAS >50% N2
  • Start Valve closes and ATS disengages
  • white switchlight extinguishes
  • status message is removed
  • if the starter fails to cutout at 50% N2, a NO STRTR CUTOUT caution message is displayed
48
Q

What is the limitation for the Single Pack Operation?

A

FL 250

49
Q

What is the limitation on the RAM AIR switchlight? When would we use it?

A

RAM AIR valve will be selected open for unpressurized flight, limited to 15,000 feet

50
Q

What are the 3 different positions of the CARGO toggle, and what do the different positions do?

A

Off- Closes intake and exhaust SOV’s to seal aft cargo bay enclosure
AIR - SOVs open to allow recirculated air to ventilate aft cargo bay
COND AIR - will provide automatic temperature control of aft cargo bay utilizing electric heater

51
Q

What does the illumination of the ICE switchlight indicate?

A

When either one or both of the ice detector units detect icing conditions exist and both cowl and wing anti-ice selectors are off

52
Q

What does the illumination of the ICE switchlight indicate?

A

When either one or both of the ice detector units detect icing conditions exist and both cowl and wing anti-ice selectors are off

53
Q

What is the difference between ICE caution message and ICE advisory message?

A

Both wing and cowl anti-ice must be selected on and wing leading edge is greater than 39 degrees c for ICE caution to cancel and ICE advisory to be on

54
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions on the ground? In the air?

A

On ground: when OAT is at or below +10 degrees C with visible moisture present

In Flight: When OAT is at or below +10 degrees C with visible moisture present, except when SAT is at or below -40 degrees C

55
Q

During taxi operations when are you required to turn on cowl anti-ice? The Wing Anti-ice?

A

Taxi operations, when on ground is icing cowls must come on during contaminated runways, taxiways, wing anti-ice right before takeoff, if type II, III, IV fluid was applied, or if OAT is at or below 5 degrees C with visible moisture present on contaminated taxiways, ramps

In flight, wing anti-ice will come on with cowls, otherwise below 230 knots as a precaution wings will come on (without the ICE caution message)

56
Q

When the WINDSHIELD HEAT switches are in low, what temp are the windshields heated?

A

All 4 panels heated to 24 degrees C

57
Q

When the WINDSHIELD HEAT switches are on high, what temp the windshields heated? Side windows?

A

Windshields heated to 41 degrees C, side windows heated to 24 degrees C

58
Q

When must we leave the windshield heat off?

A

ISA + 35 degrees C

59
Q

On the ground, with the probe switches off, what is heated and what is not?

A

Probe and standby pitot probe - heated half power
Static Ports and AOA - Not heated

If we have AC power and probe switch ON
TAT, Pitot Base - OFF
AOA, Pitot static - ON
Pitot Head - half heat

60
Q

What would happen if we forget to turn the probe switches on and we takeoff?

A

Static Ports and AOA - not powered

Pitot head and base and standby pitot probe - heated half power

Mesa Airlines Training (26 decks)

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