EJET SYSTEMS (ORAL/TEST) Flashcards
1
Q
What comes on when you establish battery power to the aircraft?
A
- Back up light on the compass
- DU 2 & DU 3
- IESS
- Clock
- FO Radio Page
- CA CCD (Cursor Control Device..)
- ACP 1 & 2
- Horizontal Stabilizer Trim
2
Q
How and when is the Electrical PBIT (Power Built In Test) is performed? What can stop the test?
A
Electrical PBIT is a test that takes 3 minutes to perform after AC power is established onto the aircraft
Test while running can be interrupted by:
- Any Hydraulic pump running
- FLIGHT CONTROLS MODE panel switches being cycled
- AC power is interrupted to the aircraft
3
Q
How can the pilot tell if an ELECTRICAL PBIT test is in progress?
A
a FLT CNTRL TEST IN PROG status message is displayed
4
Q
When you hit the FIRE EXTINGUISHER panel TEST button, what are you observing?
A
- Aural Warning
- ENG FIRE 1 & 2 HANDLES illuminated
- Cargo smoke AFT button illuminated
- Cargo smoke FWD button illuminated
- Fire Extinguisher APU button illuminated
- Upper half of APU EMER STOP button illuminated
- Warning lights flashing
- “CARGO AFT SMOKE” EICAS message
- “CARGO FWD SMOKE” EICAS message
- “APU FIRE” EICAS message
- “ENG 1 FIRE” EICAS message
- “ENG 2 FIRE” EICAS message
- “FIRE” warning annunciator displayed inside ITT indicators
5
Q
What are the batteries rated at?
A
22.8 Volts, 27 amps
24 volts, 28 volt system
6
Q
What is the minimum battery temp for APU starting?
A
-20 degrees C
7
Q
Explain what triggers a BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP EICAS warning message?
A
Battery temperatures reach 70 degrees C for at least 2 seconds
8
Q
What powers the APU START BUS for APU starting?
A
Normally BATT 2 will power the APU START BUS, but will be powered if DC GPU is connected to the aircraft, DC GPU is automatic logic and will take over BATT 2 for APU start
9
Q
When does the IDG light come on? What does it mean?
A
Comes on for High Oil Temperature or Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP)
The light signifies which IDG needs to be disconnected, once disconnected it cannot be connected in flight (only on ground by MX personnel)
10
Q
Why is there an AUTO position on battery 2?
A
The battery 2 will AUTOmatically come off the electrical grid to go and start the APU
ONLY reason for BATT 2 is to start the APU
11
Q
What does the AVAIL light mean on the GPU lightswitch?
A
Proper voltage, frequency and Phase
400 HZ, 40 KVA, 110 volts
12
Q
What are the 4 ICC’s and what is their purpose?
A
The 4 ICC’s are:
- Left Integrated Control Center (LICC)
- Right Integrated Control Center (RICC)
- Emergency Integrated Control Center (EICC)
- Auxiliary Integrated Control Center (AICC)
The ICC’s provides power distribution and protection for the airplane electrical loads
Each ICC has incorporated :
- AC/DC buses
- Thermal Circuit Breakers (CB’s)
- Line replaceable modules
13
Q
How does the IDG disconnect in flight?
A
Either Manually thru the IDG DISC switch on overhead panel or,
Automatically, the IDG has a shaft shear section and a thermal disconnect operation
14
Q
Explain the TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit)?
A
A TRU converts 115 Volts of AC to 28 Volts of DC, which is rated at 300 amps. It is located in the ICC.
Main source of DC power, whenever AC power is powering the aircraft
15
Q
Explain the static inverter?
A
The static inverter rated at 250 Volts, is used as backup AC power when the electrical system is only running on battery.
The inverter is located in the FWD Electronics bay (E-bay)
The inverter converts 28 Volts of DC power to 115 Volts of AC power , 400 HZ
The inverter then will power the AC STBY bus, until the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) or another AC power source comes online
16
Q
Explain the SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly)?
A
The SPDA is an electrical loads management and power distribution device
It distributes power from the ICCs as dictated by logic calculations and specific airplane configurations to several aircraft systems
Two SPDAs are installed, one in the FWD E-Bay, and the Second in the MID E-bay
Each SPDA has different slots where different electronic modules are connected - Each module provides 1. Data processing, 2. Communication, 3. Power distribution
Electronic remote circuit breakers are located in the SPDAs, which can be monitored by the MCDU in the cockpit, EICAS advisory message “REMOTE CB TRIP” illuminates, in the MCDU they can be remotely reset
17
Q
What is the IDG priority for powering the airplane?
A
“Onside, inside, outside, offside”
- Onside Generator
- APU generator
- GPU generator
- Opposite generator
18
Q
How do we know the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) is working?
A
The EICAS message BATT DISCHARGE goes out
19
Q
Can the RAT recharge the batteries?
A
Yes, RAT can recharge the batteries
20
Q
How much flaps can you put out during RAT operation, and why?
A
Flaps 3, cannot go beyond that because the RAT may quit working earlier because the plane doesn’t have enough speed to spin the RAT
21
Q
How many hydraulic pumps are working when RAT is deployed?
A
One, hydraulic pump 3A
Hydraulic pump 3A is powered on the AC ESS bus which is powered by the RAT
22
Q
Scenario: 8 seconds the RAT is finding themselves after deployment, and the engines flamed out and we lose all hydraulics, so can we still fly?
A
Yes, by accumulators on the flight controls
23
Q
What is on the AC STBY BUS?
A
AC STBY bus
- Igniters 1 and 2
24
Q
What is on the HOT BUS 1?
A
Fire Handle 1
- Pneumatics
- Hydraulics
- Fuel Shutoff
- Arms fire engine bottles 1A and 2A
Engine oil servicing/indicating
Cabin service ceiling lights
25
What is on the HOT BUS 2?
CMC
- On the FO side
- Powered by the HOT battery bus 2
Fire Handle 2
- Arms 1B and 2B
- Pneumatics
- Hydraulics
- Fuel Shutoff
Fuel Panel
Engine oil servicing/indicating
Potable water servicing
26
What does the GND PROX TERR INHIB do?
Inhibits the EPGWS and thus avoids the unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered in the database
27
What does the GND PROX G/S INHIBIT do?
Manually cancels glide slope alerts
- illuminates anytime below 2,000 feet radar altitude (Cancels and resets anytime climbing above 2,000 feet radar altitude, or descending below 30 feet)
28
What does the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch do?
Inhibits triggering flap alerts in case of landings where flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration
29
How much thrust does the for CF34-8E5 engine produce?
13,000 - 14,200 lbs
13,000 lbs normal thrust (without reserve)
30
What item would make the “TAKEOFF OK” NOT come on?
- Flaps are not in takeoff condition “NO TAKEOFF FLAPS”
- Flaps could also be not in agreement with flaps position selected in the FMS
- Any spoiler panel is deployed “NO TAKEOFF SPOILER”
- Parking brake is set “NO TAKEOFF BRAKES”
- Pitch trim out of green range “NO TAKEOFF TRIM”
- speed brake lever is not in the stowed position
31
Can there be more than one takeoff configuration warning?
Yes, more than one warning may be generated if more than one condition is met
32
When will windshear detection occur?
Between 10 feet to 1,500 feet AGL on a takeoff, go-around or final approach segment of flight
33
When does FADEC not protect the airplane in flight?
During start in flight
34
When does the FADEC not protect the airplane?
During starts in flight
35
Can you power back the airplane?
No, because you can damage the engine
36
Is ATTCS reserve thrust or flex thrust?
Reserve Thrust
37
What does the AMS use bleed air for?
- ECS (heating and cooling)
- Engine Start
- Pressurization
- Engine and wing anti-ice
- Water Pressure
- Hot air leak detection
38
How many AMS controllers are installed?
One controller with 2 channels, which control the respective onside system
39
What happens if a AMS channel fails?
The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS
40
What provides air for the AMS?
- Engine Bleeds
- APU
- External Pneumatic source (air cart)
41
What is bleed air used for?
- ECS (Heating and cooling)
- Engine start
- Engine and wing anti-icing
- Water pressurization
42
What is external pneumatic air used for?
- ECS on the ground
| - Engine start on the ground
43
Where is the external ground source panel located?
- Lower fairing between the wings
44
What is the primary use for the APU bleed air?
- ECS on the ground
- Engine starting on the ground
- Electrical source (no more than FL 330)
- Assist with engine start (no more than FL 210)
- Bleed source for pressurization, heating and cooling (no more than 15,000’ MSL)
45
Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?
No. A check valve prevents flow back
46
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
| - System alternates between valves to regulate and adequate and safe pressure
47
What is normal pressure (AMS) for any engine operation?
45 PSI
48
What is the purpose of the Pre-Cooler? (AMS)
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
49
What cools the Pre-Cooler? (AMS)
- Ground N1 fan
| - Flight N1 fan or ram air
50
What does the Overheat detection system (ODS) observe? (AMS)
- Engine bleeds and packs
- APU bleed
- Plumbing for wing and engine anti-icing system
51
Do both loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition? (AMS)
Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat
52
How many ECS packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?
- 2 independent packs (PACK 1 and PACK 2)
| - Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack
53
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL 310
54
Can a single bleed source power both packs?
Yes, thought the cross bleed valve
55
What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?
52% fresh air, 48% recirculated air
56
When are the recirculating fans commanded off? (AMS)
- Cockpit switch
- Smoke detected in the recirc bay
- DUMP button is pressed
- Respective pack is commanded off
57
What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYS cool? (AMS)
- FWD and CTR E-bay = 3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay
| - AFT E-bay = Natural air flow from cabin to bay
58
When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?
- Both packs commanded or failed OFF, below 25,000 feet MSL (via left side electronically controlled)
- Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)
59
How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?
- 2 channels, one active and one in standby mode
60
Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation? (AMS)
- FMS or can be manually selected
61
What happens when the DUMP switch button is pressed? (AMS)
- Commands both ECS packs off
| - Opens the OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 feet at a rate of 2,000 fpm
62
Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400’ ? (AMS)
Yes, by using manual mode
| Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leak
63
In manual mode (pressure controller) will the cabin depressurize on landing? (AMS)
No
64
What is the bleed system priority in flight? (AMS)
- Onside engine
- Offside engine (opposite side)
- APU (if available)
65
If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority?
APU has priority if:
- Aircraft is on the ground
- Wheel speed of less than 50 knots
- Opposite engine bleed pressure is not enough for engine start
ALSO:
* Altitude is lower than 15,000 feet MSL
* APU bleed available, anti-ice is not requested
* Crossbleed valve operating normally
66
When will cross bleed valve automatically open? (AMS)
- Only one side bleed source is available
- Engine 2 start in the air
- Engine 1 start in the air (if APU is not available)
67
What are some things that will close the ECS packs? (AMS)
- Any engine start if APU is the bleed source
- Engine start on the ground
- Respective bleed system duct leak
- Bleed air source not available for the PACK
- TL set to MAX on takeoff
- REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff
- REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
Also:
* Pack Switch OFF
* Flight Deck pack BIT shutdown failures are present
* Respective Engine is starting, WOW is false, and opposite engine not starting
68
When are ECS packs recovered? (AMS)
- TL not at MAX, and
- Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
- Airplane is less than 9,700 MSL with one engine operating
Also:
* Airplane above 15,000’ for takeoff fields above 8,000’ single engine
* TL Reduction below TOGA
* Airplane above 9,700’ during go-around in case one engine inoperative
69
What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay? (AMS)
- Both recirculation fans deactivate
- Cargo recirculation fan deactivates
- Cargo outflow valve closes
70
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level and landing elevation from? (AMS)
- FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure
- LFE may be manually inputted
71
What color is the LFE on the EICAS? (AMS)
- Green FMS input
| - Cyan Manual input (an ‘M’ will be in front of LFE)
72
What is the ABORT mode? (AMS)
Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if
- Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
- Airplane has not climbed ABOVE 5,000’ AFE or ABOVE 10,000’ MSL
73
When will a CABIN ALT HI warning be generated?
Cabin altitude of 9,700’ or
Takeoff from fields above 9,700’ CABIN ALT HI warning will remain on until 500’ AFE
@ 14,500’ Outflow valve will close preventing aircraft from climbing further
74
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
General Electric CF34-8E5
| Hi-bypass, 2-spool, axial flow, turbo-fan
75
How much thrust do the CF34-8E5 engines produce?
13,000 lbs - 14,200 lbs (ISA)
76
Describe N1 Spool? (Engine)
Single stage fan
| 4-stage LP (low pressure) turbine
77
Describe N2 Spool? (Engine)
10-stage compressor (gas generator)
| 2-stage HP (high pressure) turbine
78
How many igniters per engine? (Engine)
2 per engine
79
How many igniters activate for engine start? (Engine)
```
Ground = 1 igniter (switch in AUTO)
Flight = 2 igniters (switch in AUTO)
```
80
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD? (Engine)
Activates both igniters ON THE GROUND AND IN FLIGHT
81
Can the igniters be turned off during flight? (Engine)
- The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC - disregards the command
- The OFF position is used for DRY MOTORING on the ground only
82
What controls the engine? (Engine)
- A two channel FADEC
| - One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup
83
Is only one FADEC channel used every flight? (Engine)
No, They automatically alternate with each engine start
84
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear? (Engine)
- The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions
| - Configured for landing below 1,200 feet RA (when anti-ice is ON)
85
What sources are available for engine starting? (Engine)
- APU
- Ground Source (buffer cart or air bottle)
- Opposite Engine (crossbleed start)
- Windmill start
86
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection? (Engine)
Only on the GROUND for a hot start, hung start or no light off
87
What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a start on the ground? (Engine)
- FADEC will not allow Fuel Flow if ITT is below 120 degrees C
- FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT is below 120 degrees C
88
Describe the engine start sequence? (Engine)
Start switch momentarily to start:
- 7% N2 - Ignition
- 20% N2 - Fuel Flow
- 20% N2 + 5 seconds - Light Off
- 50% N2 - Ignition OFF
- 50% N2 - Starter Cutout
Also:
* The starter switch will send a signal to the MAU which will send a signal to the FADEC, which will command the starter valve to open, turning the Air Turbine Starter. As the starter rotates and N2 increases @ 7% the igniters will be energized (if AUTO switch position), at 20% N2 FADEC will introduce fuel into the engines, at 20% N2 plus 5 seconds light off should occur. At 50% N2 FADEC will signal for the ignition to be turned off, and starter to be cutout
89
Describe Engine Stabilization (what are you looking for?) - Engine
“2,4,6,5”
```
N1 - 27%
ITT - 460 degrees C
N2 - 62%
FF - 550 lbs
Oil Pressure - more than 25 PSI
```
90
What does WML mean on the engine indications? (Engine)
- Windmilling Engine
- The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
- An assisted start has been commanded
91
What provides under speed and over speed protection? (Engine)
- the FADEC via the FMU
| - Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively
92
What happens after 3 over speed detection events? (Engine)
FADEC will not re-light the engine
93
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil? (Engine)
Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
94
What is ATTCS? What controls it? (Engine)
- Automatic Take-off thrust control system
- Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU
- FADEC controlled
95
What will trigger an ATTCS event? (Engine)
- N1 difference > 15% between engines
- Engine failure during TOGA
- Windshear detected
96
When is thrust reversers available? (Engine)
- Weight on wheels (ground only)
97
What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys? (Engine)
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE
98
What engine thrust Rating(s) may only be used for 10 minutes? (Engine)
TO- 1
TO - 1 RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two engine go-around)
GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear
99
What is flex? (Engine)
Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that it is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
100
Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust? (Engine)
NO
101
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
- Engines
- APU
- Cargo compartments
- Lavatories
102
Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?
Yes,
- 1 Fire extinguisher in the cockpit
- 1 fire extinguisher in first class
- 2 fire extinguishers in the AFT cabin
- 1 water fire extinguisher
103
How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
Engines - 2 halon fire bottles
| APU - 1 halon fire bottle (dedicated to the APU only)
104
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
105
What is the power source for the APU and Engine fire detection system?
Engine detection - DC ESS bus
Engine Protection - HOT BATT bus
APU Detection - DC ESS bus
APU Protection - DC ESS bus
106
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
Closes the
- Fuel SOV
- Hydraulic SOV
- Bleed SOV
107
What is an indication of an APU fire?
- Fire bell
- Red stripe in the EMER stop button
- APU FIRE is displayed in EICAS
108
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
- Only on the ground
109
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
- APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cool-down
- APU fuel SOV closes
- APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
110
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?
After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
111
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
No
112
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 detectors in the FWD compartment
| 2 detectors in the AFT compartment
113
What happens in the FWD compartment in the event smoke is detected?what is the purpose of this?
Recirculation fans shut off
Ventilation outflow valve closes
Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment
Prevents halon agent from escaping into the aircraft’s cabin
114
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment?
2 bottles used for both compartments
| 1 high rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle
115
How long will the low rate bottle remain active in the compartment?
60 minutes
116
Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?
No. Only one compartment may be selected (FWD or AFT)
117
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed and if smoke has been detected?
- high-rate bottle discharges immediately
- low rate bottle discharges after one minute if the airplane is in flight
- if airplane is on the ground (WOW) the low-rate bottle will NOT automatically discharge
118
During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?
Yes, by pushing the fire extinguishing button again
119
How can the low-rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground (WOW)?
The extinguishing button must be pushed again
120
Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is present?
Yes, the high-rate bottle extinguishing button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle
The low-rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight
121
Describe the engine and APU fire detection system?
Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine - dual loop
APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops - dual loop
122
How many hydraulic systems are on the airplane? (Hydraulic)
3 independent systems
- Hydraulic 1
- Hydraulic 2
- Hydraulic 3
123
What systems use hydraulic power? (Hydraulic)
- Flight controls
- spoilers
- landing gear
- nose wheel steering
- wheel brakes
- thrust reversers
124
Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system? (Hydraulic)
No
125
How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane? (Hydraulic)
6 total (7 including the PTU)
- 2 EDPs (Engine driven pumps)
- 4 ACMPs (AC motor pumps
PTU with logic acts as a pump to hydraulic system 2 for landing gear only
126
What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems? (Hydraulic)
- Reservoir
- Pumps
- Accumulator
127
What is the purpose of the accumulator? (Hydraulic)
- Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
- Helps to avoid pump cavitation (?)
- Stores highest amount of pressure for brakes
128
When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate? (Hydraulic)
Ground
- Flaps out of zero
- TL set to T/O or
- ground speed > 50 knots
Flight
- Engine Failure or EDP failure
- Flaps out of zero
129
What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system? (Hydraulic)
- Landing Gear
- Nose wheel steering
- inboard brakes
130
What is the PTU? (Hydraulic)
Power transfer unit
- Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure
(Motor for hydraulic 1 and hydraulic 2 pump for landing gear)
131
What is the primary purpose of the PTU? (Hydraulic)
To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure
132
When will the PTU automatically activate? (Hydraulic)
During takeoff and landing with
- flaps out of zero
EDP 2 fails/engine failure
Also, needs 12% of minimum qty in the reservoir of the failed # 2 system
133
How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2? (Hydraulic)
Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2
134
what is the primary purpose HYD 3 system? (Hydraulic)
Back up for the flight controls
135
Why does HYD ACMP 3A pump switch have an ON position and HYD ACMP 3B have an AUTO position? (Hydraulic)
- HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation
| - HYD ACMP 3B pump is back up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails
136
What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source? (Hydraulic)
HYD ACMP 3A
137
In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online? (Hydraulic)
- HYD 3 accumulator
| - After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A
138
In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT? (Hydraulic)
No, a flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall
139
How many networks make up the electrical system on the airplane? Why? (Electrical)
- 2 independent networks
| - Redundancy and fault isolation
140
What happens if a power generating source fails? (Electrical)
Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation
141
What components power the AC system? (Electrical)
```
2 integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary power unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU receptacle
```
142
What components power the DC system (Electrical)
2 Nicad Batteries
3 transformer rectifier units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle
143
How does the IDG maintain a stable power output? (Electrical)
A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the AGB (Accessory Gear Box)
144
What monitors and controls the IDGs? (Electrical)
Each has a generator control unit
145
Can one IDG supply the entire electrical system? (Electrical)
Yes
146
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate? (Electric)
High Oil Temperature
| Low Oil Pressure
147
If an IDG is manually disconnected can it be reconnected by the flight crew? (Electrical)
No. This is a maintenance function
148
What is the primary purpose of the AC generators? (Electrical)
To power the AC buses and AC ESS Bus which…
| Power the 3 transformer rectifier units (TRUs) 1, 2, and ESS
149
What is the purpose of the transformer rectifier units? (Electrical)
To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
150
Can the APU replace a failed IDG? (Electrical)
Yes
151
What is the AC electrical system’s priority? (Electrical)
Onside (IDG)
Inside (APU)
Outside (GPU)
Cross-side (other IDG)
152
How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide electricity? (Electrical)
- GPU button displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the electrical synoptic page
- Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC power source is not available
153
What does it mean if the AC GPU is plugged in and the outside GPU panel button displays IN USE? (Electrical)
Ground Service bus is in use
| Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use
154
If the airplane is using the AC GPU and the APU is started what should the pilot be sure to do? (Electrical)
Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection
155
What will charge the batteries? (Electrical)
Any AC power source
156
How long will the aircraft batteries last with no recharging? (Electrical)
10 minutes
157
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle? (Electrical)
For APU start when batteries are < 22 volts or
| Battery temp is < -20 degrees C
158
What is the minimum battery temp for APU start? (Electrical)
-20 degrees C
159
What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery bus-ties? (Electrical)
18 Volts
160
Which battery is used for the APU start? (Electrical)
BATT 2 powers the APU start bus
Batt 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
161
What is the purpose of the inverter? (Electrical)
Converts 28 Volts DC from the batteries to 115 Volts AC to power the AC standby bus when an AC source is not available
162
What is on the AC standby bus? (Electrical)
Engine exciters/igniters 1A and 2A
163
What powers the ram air turbine? (Electrical)
Airflow turns the RAT propeller which spins the turbine inside
164
When will the RAT deploy? (Electrical)
Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered
Manually by pilot
165
How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power? (Electrical)
8 seconds
166
Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment? (Electrical)
No. Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSES and AC STANDBY BUS
167
What does the RAT power? (Electrical)
ESS buses
168
What is minimum airspeed for the RAT? (Electrical)
130 Knots
| Load shedding occurs below this speed
169
Where is the RAT icon displayed on the electrical synoptic page? (Electrical)
When the RAT is deployed
170
What manages the electrical system? (Electrical)
4 integrated control centers (ICC’s)
2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)
171
What is an ICC (Integrated Control Center) - Electrical?
An electrical control device, which provides power distribution and protection for electrical loads
172
What is an SPDA? (Electrical)
An electrical load management unit powered by the ICC’s that distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic and performs BITs on many components
173
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA’s remote circuit breakers? (Electrical)
ICC CB’s can only be reset by maintenance
SPDA CB’s can be reset via the MCDU
174
How are the lavs protected from fire? (Fire Protection)
Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached
175
What does the TIMER selection on the windshield wiper switch do? (ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION)
Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals, 2 sweeps per interval
176
What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield? (ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION)
- The wiper will stop
| - To reset the wiper move switch to OFF
177
What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing? (ICE)
- Bleed Air Heat
| - Electric Heat
178
What uses bleed air for ice protection? (ICE)
- Engine Lips
| - 3 outboard slats (slats 2, 3, and 4 on each wing)
179
What uses electric heat for ice protection? (ICE)
- Smart Probes
- Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes
- Windshields
- Water lines
- Pressurization static port
180
If an engine fails does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection? (ICE)
- yes, the cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
- the failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip
181
How many ice detectors must be working to have ice detection? (ICE)
One, there are two for redundancy
182
How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected? (ICE)
5 minutes
183
If “ICING” on the MCDU is set to OFF and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on? (ICE)
No, not until 1,700 feet or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
184
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for anti-icing? (ICE)
No
185
What is protected from ice and rain? (ICE)
- Engine inlets
- Wing leading edge
- Smart Probes and total air temperature probe
- Windshields
- Water and waste drain systems
186
Is the ice protection system automatic? (ICE)
Yes, in normal conditions
187
Can the pilot override the automatic system? (ICE)
Yes
188
How is ice detected in flight? (ICE)
- 2 ice detectors
- vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it
- Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes
189
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped from for anti-icing operations? (ICE)
10th - High stage valve (HPRV)
190
How is bleed air detected for pneumatic anti-ice? (ICE)
Engines - Independent
| Wings - onside bleed
191
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure? (ICE)
The cross bleed automatically opens
192
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground? (ICE)
ALL
193
What does selecting “ALL” on the MCDU provide? (ICE)
- Engine Anti-Ice, ON when engines are running
| - Wing Anti-Ice, ON at 40 knots wheel speed
194
If “ALL” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic? (ICE)
1.700’ AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
195
If “OFF” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become available? (ICE)
1,700’ AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
196
How does the failure of one or the two power sources affect the windshield heating system? (ICE)
- On ground = inhibited
| - In flight = left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)
197
When do the smart probes heat? (ICE)
When an engine is running
198
Is there a test for the anti-ice system? (ICE)
Yes, but maintenance performs the test
199
How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing? (ICE)
```
Bleeds - OFF
Packs - OFF
Stab trim - FULL NOSE DOWN
Flaps - UP
Engines and APU - ON or OFF
```
200
Where can O2 pressure be read? (Oxygen)
- MFD “status” page (corrected for temperature)
| - At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)
201
Do the cockpit crew and the passengers share the same emergency oxygen? (Oxygen)
No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators
202
Once the 02 generators are started can they be shut off? (Oxygen)
No
203
What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew? (Oxygen)
2 Crew - “Blue of 2”
3 Crew - “Green for 3”
204
What activates when the flight deck 02 masks are removed from their storage unit? (Oxygen)
- Flow of 02
- Mask microphone
- Flight Deck Speakers
205
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are not stowed? (Oxygen)
- Stops flow of O2
- Deactivates mask microphone
- Deactivates flight deck speakers
206
What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide? (Oxygen)
- Emergency = pure oxygen with positive pressure
- 100% = Pure oxygen at all altitudes
- Normal = Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
207
During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized? (Oxygen)
The green blow out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage
208
What is the O2 duration for the following? (Oxygen)
Passenger O2 = 12 minutes
Flight attendant Cylinder = 30 minutes
PBE = 15 minutes
209
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy? (Oxygen)
Cabin altitude of 14,000’ MSL
210
Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy? (Oxygen)
Yes, via a manual release tool (MRT) located at FA station
211
What does the PBE provide? (Oxygen)
Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 41,000 feet for at least 15 minutes
- Blue indication = GOOD
- Pink indication = BAD
- Vacuum loss = BAD (even with a blue indication)
212
How many portable O2 cylinders are installed in the cabin? (Oxygen)
2 - one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section
| 2 - masks per cylinder
213
How are the emergency lights powered? (Aircraft general)
4 ELPU’s (Emergency Light Power Units) charged off the DC BUS 1
214
How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated? (Aircraft General)
10 minutes
215
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate? (Aircraft General)
Provided the switch is in AUTO, if the DC BUSES lose power or the airplanes electrical power is turned off, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate
216
Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste tank service? (Aircraft general)
Aft flight attendant station
217
What does a waste service tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full light? (Aircraft general)
Tank is 75% full
| Tank is full
218
What does the ‘fault’ light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? (Aircraft general)
A fault in the forward or aft drain valve
| Water level indication is not available
219
Where is door information presented? (Aircraft general)
MFD ‘status’ Page
220
What is the purpose of the vent flap on the main cabin or service doors? (Aircraft general)
- A load is applied to the vent flap/locking mechanism making a door difficult to open as cabin pressure increases
- to relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service door
221
What happens if a pilot selects “EMER” on the audio panel? (Aircraft general)
- A red light in the cabin light rainbow illuminates
| - 3 hi-Lo chimes sound in the cabin
222
When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed? (Aircraft general)
If the main cabin or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft
223
What indications are present to confirm whether or not the escape slide are armed or disarmed? (Aircraft general)
```
Armed = Red ‘armed’ appears above the respective door handle
Disarmed = Green ‘disarmed’ appears above the respective door handle
```
224
When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open? (Aircraft General)
30 seconds after the flight attendant “EMER CALL” button has been pushed if the “INHIBIT” button has not been pushed by the flight crew
225
What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIBIT button? (Aircraft general)
The automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds
226
What are the cockpit door blowout panels? (Aircraft General)
- Unfolding panels in the cockpit door that help e
