Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mesa Airlines Training > EJET SYSTEMS (ORAL/TEST) > Flashcards

EJET SYSTEMS (ORAL/TEST) Flashcards

1
Q

What comes on when you establish battery power to the aircraft?

A
  • Back up light on the compass
  • DU 2 & DU 3
  • IESS
  • Clock
  • FO Radio Page
  • CA CCD (Cursor Control Device..)
  • ACP 1 & 2
  • Horizontal Stabilizer Trim
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How and when is the Electrical PBIT (Power Built In Test) is performed? What can stop the test?

A

Electrical PBIT is a test that takes 3 minutes to perform after AC power is established onto the aircraft

Test while running can be interrupted by:

  • Any Hydraulic pump running
  • FLIGHT CONTROLS MODE panel switches being cycled
  • AC power is interrupted to the aircraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can the pilot tell if an ELECTRICAL PBIT test is in progress?

A

a FLT CNTRL TEST IN PROG status message is displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When you hit the FIRE EXTINGUISHER panel TEST button, what are you observing?

A
  • Aural Warning
  • ENG FIRE 1 & 2 HANDLES illuminated
  • Cargo smoke AFT button illuminated
  • Cargo smoke FWD button illuminated
  • Fire Extinguisher APU button illuminated
  • Upper half of APU EMER STOP button illuminated
  • Warning lights flashing
  • “CARGO AFT SMOKE” EICAS message
  • “CARGO FWD SMOKE” EICAS message
  • “APU FIRE” EICAS message
  • “ENG 1 FIRE” EICAS message
  • “ENG 2 FIRE” EICAS message
  • “FIRE” warning annunciator displayed inside ITT indicators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the batteries rated at?

A

22.8 Volts, 27 amps

24 volts, 28 volt system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum battery temp for APU starting?

A

-20 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain what triggers a BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP EICAS warning message?

A

Battery temperatures reach 70 degrees C for at least 2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What powers the APU START BUS for APU starting?

A

Normally BATT 2 will power the APU START BUS, but will be powered if DC GPU is connected to the aircraft, DC GPU is automatic logic and will take over BATT 2 for APU start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does the IDG light come on? What does it mean?

A

Comes on for High Oil Temperature or Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP)

The light signifies which IDG needs to be disconnected, once disconnected it cannot be connected in flight (only on ground by MX personnel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is there an AUTO position on battery 2?

A

The battery 2 will AUTOmatically come off the electrical grid to go and start the APU

ONLY reason for BATT 2 is to start the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the AVAIL light mean on the GPU lightswitch?

A

Proper voltage, frequency and Phase

400 HZ, 40 KVA, 110 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 ICC’s and what is their purpose?

A

The 4 ICC’s are:

  • Left Integrated Control Center (LICC)
  • Right Integrated Control Center (RICC)
  • Emergency Integrated Control Center (EICC)
  • Auxiliary Integrated Control Center (AICC)

The ICC’s provides power distribution and protection for the airplane electrical loads

Each ICC has incorporated :

  • AC/DC buses
  • Thermal Circuit Breakers (CB’s)
  • Line replaceable modules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the IDG disconnect in flight?

A

Either Manually thru the IDG DISC switch on overhead panel or,

Automatically, the IDG has a shaft shear section and a thermal disconnect operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit)?

A

A TRU converts 115 Volts of AC to 28 Volts of DC, which is rated at 300 amps. It is located in the ICC.

Main source of DC power, whenever AC power is powering the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain the static inverter?

A

The static inverter rated at 250 Volts, is used as backup AC power when the electrical system is only running on battery.

The inverter is located in the FWD Electronics bay (E-bay)

The inverter converts 28 Volts of DC power to 115 Volts of AC power , 400 HZ

The inverter then will power the AC STBY bus, until the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) or another AC power source comes online

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly)?

A

The SPDA is an electrical loads management and power distribution device

It distributes power from the ICCs as dictated by logic calculations and specific airplane configurations to several aircraft systems

Two SPDAs are installed, one in the FWD E-Bay, and the Second in the MID E-bay

Each SPDA has different slots where different electronic modules are connected
- Each module provides 1. Data processing, 2. Communication, 3. Power distribution

Electronic remote circuit breakers are located in the SPDAs, which can be monitored by the MCDU in the cockpit, EICAS advisory message “REMOTE CB TRIP” illuminates, in the MCDU they can be remotely reset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the IDG priority for powering the airplane?

A

“Onside, inside, outside, offside”

  • Onside Generator
  • APU generator
  • GPU generator
  • Opposite generator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do we know the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) is working?

A

The EICAS message BATT DISCHARGE goes out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can the RAT recharge the batteries?

A

Yes, RAT can recharge the batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How much flaps can you put out during RAT operation, and why?

A

Flaps 3, cannot go beyond that because the RAT may quit working earlier because the plane doesn’t have enough speed to spin the RAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are working when RAT is deployed?

A

One, hydraulic pump 3A

Hydraulic pump 3A is powered on the AC ESS bus which is powered by the RAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Scenario: 8 seconds the RAT is finding themselves after deployment, and the engines flamed out and we lose all hydraulics, so can we still fly?

A

Yes, by accumulators on the flight controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is on the AC STBY BUS?

A

AC STBY bus

- Igniters 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is on the HOT BUS 1?

A

Fire Handle 1

  • Pneumatics
  • Hydraulics
  • Fuel Shutoff
  • Arms fire engine bottles 1A and 2A

Engine oil servicing/indicating
Cabin service ceiling lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is on the HOT BUS 2?

A

CMC

  • On the FO side
  • Powered by the HOT battery bus 2

Fire Handle 2

  • Arms 1B and 2B
  • Pneumatics
  • Hydraulics
  • Fuel Shutoff

Fuel Panel
Engine oil servicing/indicating
Potable water servicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the GND PROX TERR INHIB do?

A

Inhibits the EPGWS and thus avoids the unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered in the database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the GND PROX G/S INHIBIT do?

A

Manually cancels glide slope alerts

  • illuminates anytime below 2,000 feet radar altitude (Cancels and resets anytime climbing above 2,000 feet radar altitude, or descending below 30 feet)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch do?

A

Inhibits triggering flap alerts in case of landings where flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How much thrust does the for CF34-8E5 engine produce?

A

13,000 - 14,200 lbs

13,000 lbs normal thrust (without reserve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What item would make the “TAKEOFF OK” NOT come on?

A
  • Flaps are not in takeoff condition “NO TAKEOFF FLAPS”
    - Flaps could also be not in agreement with flaps position selected in the FMS
  • Any spoiler panel is deployed “NO TAKEOFF SPOILER”
  • Parking brake is set “NO TAKEOFF BRAKES”
  • Pitch trim out of green range “NO TAKEOFF TRIM”
  • speed brake lever is not in the stowed position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can there be more than one takeoff configuration warning?

A

Yes, more than one warning may be generated if more than one condition is met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When will windshear detection occur?

A

Between 10 feet to 1,500 feet AGL on a takeoff, go-around or final approach segment of flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When does FADEC not protect the airplane in flight?

A

During start in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does the FADEC not protect the airplane?

A

During starts in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Can you power back the airplane?

A

No, because you can damage the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is ATTCS reserve thrust or flex thrust?

A

Reserve Thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the AMS use bleed air for?

A
  • ECS (heating and cooling)
  • Engine Start
  • Pressurization
  • Engine and wing anti-ice
  • Water Pressure
  • Hot air leak detection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many AMS controllers are installed?

A

One controller with 2 channels, which control the respective onside system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens if a AMS channel fails?

A

The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A
  • Engine Bleeds
  • APU
  • External Pneumatic source (air cart)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A
  • ECS (Heating and cooling)
  • Engine start
  • Engine and wing anti-icing
  • Water pressurization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is external pneumatic air used for?

A
  • ECS on the ground

- Engine start on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is the external ground source panel located?

A
  • Lower fairing between the wings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the primary use for the APU bleed air?

A
  • ECS on the ground
  • Engine starting on the ground
  • Electrical source (no more than FL 330)
  • Assist with engine start (no more than FL 210)
  • Bleed source for pressurization, heating and cooling (no more than 15,000’ MSL)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?

A

No. A check valve prevents flow back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?

A

6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)

- System alternates between valves to regulate and adequate and safe pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is normal pressure (AMS) for any engine operation?

A

45 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the purpose of the Pre-Cooler? (AMS)

A

Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What cools the Pre-Cooler? (AMS)

A
  • Ground N1 fan

- Flight N1 fan or ram air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the Overheat detection system (ODS) observe? (AMS)

A
  • Engine bleeds and packs
  • APU bleed
  • Plumbing for wing and engine anti-icing system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Do both loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition? (AMS)

A

Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many ECS packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?

A
  • 2 independent packs (PACK 1 and PACK 2)

- Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL 310

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Can a single bleed source power both packs?

A

Yes, thought the cross bleed valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?

A

52% fresh air, 48% recirculated air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When are the recirculating fans commanded off? (AMS)

A
  • Cockpit switch
  • Smoke detected in the recirc bay
  • DUMP button is pressed
  • Respective pack is commanded off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYS cool? (AMS)

A
  • FWD and CTR E-bay = 3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay

- AFT E-bay = Natural air flow from cabin to bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?

A
  • Both packs commanded or failed OFF, below 25,000 feet MSL (via left side electronically controlled)
  • Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?

A
  • 2 channels, one active and one in standby mode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation? (AMS)

A
  • FMS or can be manually selected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens when the DUMP switch button is pressed? (AMS)

A
  • Commands both ECS packs off

- Opens the OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 feet at a rate of 2,000 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400’ ? (AMS)

A

Yes, by using manual mode

Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In manual mode (pressure controller) will the cabin depressurize on landing? (AMS)

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the bleed system priority in flight? (AMS)

A
  • Onside engine
  • Offside engine (opposite side)
  • APU (if available)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority?

A

APU has priority if:

  • Aircraft is on the ground
  • Wheel speed of less than 50 knots
  • Opposite engine bleed pressure is not enough for engine start

ALSO:

  • Altitude is lower than 15,000 feet MSL
  • APU bleed available, anti-ice is not requested
  • Crossbleed valve operating normally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When will cross bleed valve automatically open? (AMS)

A
  • Only one side bleed source is available
  • Engine 2 start in the air
  • Engine 1 start in the air (if APU is not available)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are some things that will close the ECS packs? (AMS)

A
  • Any engine start if APU is the bleed source
  • Engine start on the ground
  • Respective bleed system duct leak
  • Bleed air source not available for the PACK
  • TL set to MAX on takeoff
  • REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff
  • REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)

Also:

  • Pack Switch OFF
  • Flight Deck pack BIT shutdown failures are present
  • Respective Engine is starting, WOW is false, and opposite engine not starting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When are ECS packs recovered? (AMS)

A
  • TL not at MAX, and
    • Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
    • Airplane is less than 9,700 MSL with one engine operating

Also:

  • Airplane above 15,000’ for takeoff fields above 8,000’ single engine
  • TL Reduction below TOGA
  • Airplane above 9,700’ during go-around in case one engine inoperative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay? (AMS)

A
  • Both recirculation fans deactivate
  • Cargo recirculation fan deactivates
  • Cargo outflow valve closes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level and landing elevation from? (AMS)

A
  • FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure
  • LFE may be manually inputted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What color is the LFE on the EICAS? (AMS)

A
  • Green FMS input

- Cyan Manual input (an ‘M’ will be in front of LFE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the ABORT mode? (AMS)

A

Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if

  • Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
  • Airplane has not climbed ABOVE 5,000’ AFE or ABOVE 10,000’ MSL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When will a CABIN ALT HI warning be generated?

A

Cabin altitude of 9,700’ or
Takeoff from fields above 9,700’ CABIN ALT HI warning will remain on until 500’ AFE

@ 14,500’ Outflow valve will close preventing aircraft from climbing further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What types of engines are on the aircraft?

A

General Electric CF34-8E5

Hi-bypass, 2-spool, axial flow, turbo-fan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How much thrust do the CF34-8E5 engines produce?

A

13,000 lbs - 14,200 lbs (ISA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe N1 Spool? (Engine)

A

Single stage fan

4-stage LP (low pressure) turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe N2 Spool? (Engine)

A

10-stage compressor (gas generator)

2-stage HP (high pressure) turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How many igniters per engine? (Engine)

A

2 per engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How many igniters activate for engine start? (Engine)

A 
Ground = 1 igniter (switch in AUTO)
Flight = 2 igniters (switch in AUTO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD? (Engine)

A

Activates both igniters ON THE GROUND AND IN FLIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Can the igniters be turned off during flight? (Engine)

A
  • The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC - disregards the command
  • The OFF position is used for DRY MOTORING on the ground only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What controls the engine? (Engine)

A
  • A two channel FADEC

- One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Is only one FADEC channel used every flight? (Engine)

A

No, They automatically alternate with each engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear? (Engine)

A
  • The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions

- Configured for landing below 1,200 feet RA (when anti-ice is ON)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What sources are available for engine starting? (Engine)

A
  • APU
  • Ground Source (buffer cart or air bottle)
  • Opposite Engine (crossbleed start)
  • Windmill start
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection? (Engine)

A

Only on the GROUND for a hot start, hung start or no light off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a start on the ground? (Engine)

A
  • FADEC will not allow Fuel Flow if ITT is below 120 degrees C
  • FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT is below 120 degrees C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Describe the engine start sequence? (Engine)

A

Start switch momentarily to start:

  • 7% N2 - Ignition
  • 20% N2 - Fuel Flow
  • 20% N2 + 5 seconds - Light Off
  • 50% N2 - Ignition OFF
  • 50% N2 - Starter Cutout

Also:
* The starter switch will send a signal to the MAU which will send a signal to the FADEC, which will command the starter valve to open, turning the Air Turbine Starter. As the starter rotates and N2 increases @ 7% the igniters will be energized (if AUTO switch position), at 20% N2 FADEC will introduce fuel into the engines, at 20% N2 plus 5 seconds light off should occur. At 50% N2 FADEC will signal for the ignition to be turned off, and starter to be cutout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe Engine Stabilization (what are you looking for?) - Engine

A

“2,4,6,5”

N1 - 27% 
ITT - 460 degrees C
N2 - 62%
FF - 550 lbs
Oil Pressure - more than 25 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does WML mean on the engine indications? (Engine)

A
  • Windmilling Engine
  • The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
  • An assisted start has been commanded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What provides under speed and over speed protection? (Engine)

A
  • the FADEC via the FMU

- Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively

92
Q

What happens after 3 over speed detection events? (Engine)

A

FADEC will not re-light the engine

93
Q

What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil? (Engine)

A

Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger

94
Q

What is ATTCS? What controls it? (Engine)

A
  • Automatic Take-off thrust control system
  • Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU
  • FADEC controlled
95
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event? (Engine)

A
  • N1 difference > 15% between engines
  • Engine failure during TOGA
  • Windshear detected
96
Q

When is thrust reversers available? (Engine)

A
  • Weight on wheels (ground only)
97
Q

What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys? (Engine)

A

FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE

98
Q

What engine thrust Rating(s) may only be used for 10 minutes? (Engine)

A

TO- 1
TO - 1 RSV (TL beyond TOGA)
GA (two engine go-around)
GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear

99
Q

What is flex? (Engine)

A

Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that it is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)

100
Q

Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust? (Engine)

A

NO

101
Q

What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?

A
  • Engines
  • APU
  • Cargo compartments
  • Lavatories
102
Q

Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?

A

Yes,

  • 1 Fire extinguisher in the cockpit
  • 1 fire extinguisher in first class
  • 2 fire extinguishers in the AFT cabin
  • 1 water fire extinguisher
103
Q

How are the engines and APU protected from fire?

A

Engines - 2 halon fire bottles

APU - 1 halon fire bottle (dedicated to the APU only)

104
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?

A

Yes

105
Q

What is the power source for the APU and Engine fire detection system?

A

Engine detection - DC ESS bus
Engine Protection - HOT BATT bus
APU Detection - DC ESS bus
APU Protection - DC ESS bus

106
Q

What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

A

Closes the

  • Fuel SOV
  • Hydraulic SOV
  • Bleed SOV
107
Q

What is an indication of an APU fire?

A
  • Fire bell
  • Red stripe in the EMER stop button
  • APU FIRE is displayed in EICAS
108
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

A
  • Only on the ground
109
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

A
  • APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cool-down
  • APU fuel SOV closes
  • APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
110
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

111
Q

Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?

A

No

112
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?

A

3 detectors in the FWD compartment

2 detectors in the AFT compartment

113
Q

What happens in the FWD compartment in the event smoke is detected?what is the purpose of this?

A

Recirculation fans shut off
Ventilation outflow valve closes

Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment
Prevents halon agent from escaping into the aircraft’s cabin

114
Q

How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment?

A

2 bottles used for both compartments

1 high rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle

115
Q

How long will the low rate bottle remain active in the compartment?

A

60 minutes

116
Q

Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?

A

No. Only one compartment may be selected (FWD or AFT)

117
Q

What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed and if smoke has been detected?

A
  • high-rate bottle discharges immediately
  • low rate bottle discharges after one minute if the airplane is in flight
  • if airplane is on the ground (WOW) the low-rate bottle will NOT automatically discharge
118
Q

During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?

A

Yes, by pushing the fire extinguishing button again

119
Q

How can the low-rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground (WOW)?

A

The extinguishing button must be pushed again

120
Q

Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is present?

A

Yes, the high-rate bottle extinguishing button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle

The low-rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight

121
Q

Describe the engine and APU fire detection system?

A

Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine - dual loop
APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops - dual loop

122
Q

How many hydraulic systems are on the airplane? (Hydraulic)

A

3 independent systems

  • Hydraulic 1
  • Hydraulic 2
  • Hydraulic 3
123
Q

What systems use hydraulic power? (Hydraulic)

A
  • Flight controls
  • spoilers
  • landing gear
  • nose wheel steering
  • wheel brakes
  • thrust reversers
124
Q

Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system? (Hydraulic)

A

No

125
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane? (Hydraulic)

A

6 total (7 including the PTU)

  • 2 EDPs (Engine driven pumps)
  • 4 ACMPs (AC motor pumps

PTU with logic acts as a pump to hydraulic system 2 for landing gear only

126
Q

What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems? (Hydraulic)

A
  • Reservoir
  • Pumps
  • Accumulator
127
Q

What is the purpose of the accumulator? (Hydraulic)

A
  • Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
  • Helps to avoid pump cavitation (?)
  • Stores highest amount of pressure for brakes
128
Q

When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate? (Hydraulic)

A

Ground

  • Flaps out of zero
  • TL set to T/O or
  • ground speed > 50 knots

Flight

  • Engine Failure or EDP failure
  • Flaps out of zero
129
Q

What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system? (Hydraulic)

A
  • Landing Gear
  • Nose wheel steering
  • inboard brakes
130
Q

What is the PTU? (Hydraulic)

A

Power transfer unit
- Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure

(Motor for hydraulic 1 and hydraulic 2 pump for landing gear)

131
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU? (Hydraulic)

A

To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure

132
Q

When will the PTU automatically activate? (Hydraulic)

A

During takeoff and landing with
- flaps out of zero
EDP 2 fails/engine failure

Also, needs 12% of minimum qty in the reservoir of the failed # 2 system

133
Q

How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2? (Hydraulic)

A

Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2

134
Q

what is the primary purpose HYD 3 system? (Hydraulic)

A

Back up for the flight controls

135
Q

Why does HYD ACMP 3A pump switch have an ON position and HYD ACMP 3B have an AUTO position? (Hydraulic)

A
  • HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation

- HYD ACMP 3B pump is back up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails

136
Q

What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source? (Hydraulic)

A

HYD ACMP 3A

137
Q

In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online? (Hydraulic)

A
  • HYD 3 accumulator

- After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A

138
Q

In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT? (Hydraulic)

A

No, a flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall

139
Q

How many networks make up the electrical system on the airplane? Why? (Electrical)

A
  • 2 independent networks

- Redundancy and fault isolation

140
Q

What happens if a power generating source fails? (Electrical)

A

Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation

141
Q

What components power the AC system? (Electrical)

A 
2 integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary power unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU receptacle
142
Q

What components power the DC system (Electrical)

A

2 Nicad Batteries
3 transformer rectifier units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle

143
Q

How does the IDG maintain a stable power output? (Electrical)

A

A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the AGB (Accessory Gear Box)

144
Q

What monitors and controls the IDGs? (Electrical)

A

Each has a generator control unit

145
Q

Can one IDG supply the entire electrical system? (Electrical)

A

Yes

146
Q

What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate? (Electric)

A

High Oil Temperature

Low Oil Pressure

147
Q

If an IDG is manually disconnected can it be reconnected by the flight crew? (Electrical)

A

No. This is a maintenance function

148
Q

What is the primary purpose of the AC generators? (Electrical)

A

To power the AC buses and AC ESS Bus which…

Power the 3 transformer rectifier units (TRUs) 1, 2, and ESS

149
Q

What is the purpose of the transformer rectifier units? (Electrical)

A

To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC

150
Q

Can the APU replace a failed IDG? (Electrical)

A

Yes

151
Q

What is the AC electrical system’s priority? (Electrical)

A

Onside (IDG)
Inside (APU)
Outside (GPU)
Cross-side (other IDG)

152
Q

How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide electricity? (Electrical)

A
  • GPU button displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the electrical synoptic page
  • Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC power source is not available
153
Q

What does it mean if the AC GPU is plugged in and the outside GPU panel button displays IN USE? (Electrical)

A

Ground Service bus is in use

Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use

154
Q

If the airplane is using the AC GPU and the APU is started what should the pilot be sure to do? (Electrical)

A

Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection

155
Q

What will charge the batteries? (Electrical)

A

Any AC power source

156
Q

How long will the aircraft batteries last with no recharging? (Electrical)

A

10 minutes

157
Q

What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle? (Electrical)

A

For APU start when batteries are < 22 volts or

Battery temp is < -20 degrees C

158
Q

What is the minimum battery temp for APU start? (Electrical)

A

-20 degrees C

159
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery bus-ties? (Electrical)

A

18 Volts

160
Q

Which battery is used for the APU start? (Electrical)

A

BATT 2 powers the APU start bus

Batt 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring

161
Q

What is the purpose of the inverter? (Electrical)

A

Converts 28 Volts DC from the batteries to 115 Volts AC to power the AC standby bus when an AC source is not available

162
Q

What is on the AC standby bus? (Electrical)

A

Engine exciters/igniters 1A and 2A

163
Q

What powers the ram air turbine? (Electrical)

A

Airflow turns the RAT propeller which spins the turbine inside

164
Q

When will the RAT deploy? (Electrical)

A

Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered

Manually by pilot

165
Q

How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power? (Electrical)

A

8 seconds

166
Q

Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment? (Electrical)

A

No. Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSES and AC STANDBY BUS

167
Q

What does the RAT power? (Electrical)

A

ESS buses

168
Q

What is minimum airspeed for the RAT? (Electrical)

A

130 Knots

Load shedding occurs below this speed

169
Q

Where is the RAT icon displayed on the electrical synoptic page? (Electrical)

A

When the RAT is deployed

170
Q

What manages the electrical system? (Electrical)

A

4 integrated control centers (ICC’s)

2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)

171
Q

What is an ICC (Integrated Control Center) - Electrical?

A

An electrical control device, which provides power distribution and protection for electrical loads

172
Q

What is an SPDA? (Electrical)

A

An electrical load management unit powered by the ICC’s that distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic and performs BITs on many components

173
Q

Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA’s remote circuit breakers? (Electrical)

A

ICC CB’s can only be reset by maintenance

SPDA CB’s can be reset via the MCDU

174
Q

How are the lavs protected from fire? (Fire Protection)

A

Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached

175
Q

What does the TIMER selection on the windshield wiper switch do? (ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION)

A

Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals, 2 sweeps per interval

176
Q

What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield? (ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION)

A
  • The wiper will stop

- To reset the wiper move switch to OFF

177
Q

What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing? (ICE)

A
  • Bleed Air Heat

- Electric Heat

178
Q

What uses bleed air for ice protection? (ICE)

A
  • Engine Lips

- 3 outboard slats (slats 2, 3, and 4 on each wing)

179
Q

What uses electric heat for ice protection? (ICE)

A
  • Smart Probes
  • Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes
  • Windshields
  • Water lines
  • Pressurization static port
180
Q

If an engine fails does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection? (ICE)

A
  • yes, the cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
  • the failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip
181
Q

How many ice detectors must be working to have ice detection? (ICE)

A

One, there are two for redundancy

182
Q

How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected? (ICE)

A

5 minutes

183
Q

If “ICING” on the MCDU is set to OFF and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on? (ICE)

A

No, not until 1,700 feet or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

184
Q

Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for anti-icing? (ICE)

A

No

185
Q

What is protected from ice and rain? (ICE)

A
  • Engine inlets
  • Wing leading edge
  • Smart Probes and total air temperature probe
  • Windshields
  • Water and waste drain systems
186
Q

Is the ice protection system automatic? (ICE)

A

Yes, in normal conditions

187
Q

Can the pilot override the automatic system? (ICE)

A

Yes

188
Q

How is ice detected in flight? (ICE)

A
  • 2 ice detectors
  • vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it
  • Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes
189
Q

What compressor stage is bleed air tapped from for anti-icing operations? (ICE)

A

10th - High stage valve (HPRV)

190
Q

How is bleed air detected for pneumatic anti-ice? (ICE)

A

Engines - Independent

Wings - onside bleed

191
Q

What happens if there is a single bleed source failure? (ICE)

A

The cross bleed automatically opens

192
Q

How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground? (ICE)

A

ALL

193
Q

What does selecting “ALL” on the MCDU provide? (ICE)

A
  • Engine Anti-Ice, ON when engines are running

- Wing Anti-Ice, ON at 40 knots wheel speed

194
Q

If “ALL” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic? (ICE)

A

1.700’ AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

195
Q

If “OFF” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become available? (ICE)

A

1,700’ AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

196
Q

How does the failure of one or the two power sources affect the windshield heating system? (ICE)

A
  • On ground = inhibited

- In flight = left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)

197
Q

When do the smart probes heat? (ICE)

A

When an engine is running

198
Q

Is there a test for the anti-ice system? (ICE)

A

Yes, but maintenance performs the test

199
Q

How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing? (ICE)

A 
Bleeds - OFF
Packs - OFF
Stab trim - FULL NOSE DOWN
Flaps - UP
Engines and APU - ON or OFF
200
Q

Where can O2 pressure be read? (Oxygen)

A
  • MFD “status” page (corrected for temperature)

- At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)

201
Q

Do the cockpit crew and the passengers share the same emergency oxygen? (Oxygen)

A

No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators

202
Q

Once the 02 generators are started can they be shut off? (Oxygen)

A

No

203
Q

What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew? (Oxygen)

A

2 Crew - “Blue of 2”

3 Crew - “Green for 3”

204
Q

What activates when the flight deck 02 masks are removed from their storage unit? (Oxygen)

A
  • Flow of 02
  • Mask microphone
  • Flight Deck Speakers
205
Q

What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are not stowed? (Oxygen)

A
  • Stops flow of O2
  • Deactivates mask microphone
  • Deactivates flight deck speakers
206
Q

What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide? (Oxygen)

A
  • Emergency = pure oxygen with positive pressure
  • 100% = Pure oxygen at all altitudes
  • Normal = Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
207
Q

During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized? (Oxygen)

A

The green blow out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage

208
Q

What is the O2 duration for the following? (Oxygen)

A

Passenger O2 = 12 minutes
Flight attendant Cylinder = 30 minutes
PBE = 15 minutes

209
Q

When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy? (Oxygen)

A

Cabin altitude of 14,000’ MSL

210
Q

Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy? (Oxygen)

A

Yes, via a manual release tool (MRT) located at FA station

211
Q

What does the PBE provide? (Oxygen)

A

Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 41,000 feet for at least 15 minutes

  • Blue indication = GOOD
  • Pink indication = BAD
  • Vacuum loss = BAD (even with a blue indication)
212
Q

How many portable O2 cylinders are installed in the cabin? (Oxygen)

A

2 - one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section

2 - masks per cylinder

213
Q

How are the emergency lights powered? (Aircraft general)

A

4 ELPU’s (Emergency Light Power Units) charged off the DC BUS 1

214
Q

How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated? (Aircraft General)

A

10 minutes

215
Q

When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate? (Aircraft General)

A

Provided the switch is in AUTO, if the DC BUSES lose power or the airplanes electrical power is turned off, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate

216
Q

Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste tank service? (Aircraft general)

A

Aft flight attendant station

217
Q

What does a waste service tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full light? (Aircraft general)

A

Tank is 75% full

Tank is full

218
Q

What does the ‘fault’ light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? (Aircraft general)

A

A fault in the forward or aft drain valve

Water level indication is not available

219
Q

Where is door information presented? (Aircraft general)

A

MFD ‘status’ Page

220
Q

What is the purpose of the vent flap on the main cabin or service doors? (Aircraft general)

A
  • A load is applied to the vent flap/locking mechanism making a door difficult to open as cabin pressure increases
  • to relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service door
221
Q

What happens if a pilot selects “EMER” on the audio panel? (Aircraft general)

A
  • A red light in the cabin light rainbow illuminates

- 3 hi-Lo chimes sound in the cabin

222
Q

When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed? (Aircraft general)

A

If the main cabin or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft

223
Q

What indications are present to confirm whether or not the escape slide are armed or disarmed? (Aircraft general)

A 
Armed = Red ‘armed’ appears above the respective door handle
Disarmed = Green ‘disarmed’ appears above the respective door handle
224
Q

When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open? (Aircraft General)

A

30 seconds after the flight attendant “EMER CALL” button has been pushed if the “INHIBIT” button has not been pushed by the flight crew

225
Q

What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIBIT button? (Aircraft general)

A

The automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds

226
Q

What are the cockpit door blowout panels? (Aircraft General)

A
  • Unfolding panels in the cockpit door that help e

Mesa Airlines Training (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions