UPGRADE - Limitations Flashcards
1
Q
Max Taxi/Ramp Weight?
A
82,750 lbs
2
Q
Max Takeoff Weight?
A
82,500 lbs
3
Q
Max Landing Weight?
A
73,500 lbs
4
Q
Max Zero Fuel Weight?
A
70,000 lbs
5
Q
Min Flight Weight?
A
45,000 lbs
6
Q
Max Total Aft Cargo Compartment Capacity?
A
4,375 lbs
7
Q
Max Total Fwd Cargo Compartment Capacity?
A
850 lbs
8
Q
Max Total Center Cargo Compartment Capacity?
A
850 lbs
9
Q
Max Pressure Refueling Fuel Capacities?
A
Total - 19,594 lbs
Mains - 7,492 lbs
Center - 4,610 lbs
10
Q
Max Gravity Refueling Fuel Capacities?
A
Total - 14,810 lbs
Mains - 7,405 lbs
Center - N/A
11
Q
What is the wingspan?
A
76’3”
12
Q
What is the height of the Tail?
A
24’1”
13
Q
What is the minimum taxiway or runway surface width for a 180 degree turn?
A
126’5”
14
Q
What is the Length?
A
118’11”
15
Q
What is the Width of the Horizontal Stabilizer?
A
28’4”
16
Q
What is the distance from Main to Main?
A
13’6”
17
Q
What is Vmo?
A
335 Knots
18
Q
What is Mmo?
A
0.85 Mach
19
Q
What is Mmo in RVSM airspace?
A
0.82 Mach
20
Q
What are the Flap Extension Speeds?
A
1 - 230 knots 8 - 230 Knots 20 - 220 Knots 30 - 185 Knots 45 - 170 Knots
21
Q
What is Max Landing Gear operation speed for Extension (Vlo)?
A
220 Knots
22
Q
What is Max Landing Gear operation speed for retraction? (Vlo)
A
200 Knots
23
Q
What is Max Landing Gear Extended Speed (Vle)?
A
220 Knots
24
Q
What is Max Turbulence Penetration speed?
A
280 knots or 0.75 Mach whichever is slower
25
What is max windshield operation speed?
250 Knots
26
What is Max Operating Altitude?
41,000 feet
27
What is Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
10,000 feet
28
Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?
22 knots for takeoff and landing, 15 knots on a slippery runway
29
Max tailwind approved for takeoff and landing?
10 knots
30
Max Tire Speed?
195 KGS
31
Max altitude for extending flaps?
15,000 feet
32
Max runway slopes for takeoff and landing?
+2% uphill
| -2% downhill
33
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the passengers?
Seat Cushions
34
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the flight attendants?
Life vests located near the FA jumpseat
35
How many life vests are in the flight deck?
3 total, (one under captains and FO seat) and one next to the jump seat
36
What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch?
1180 PSI for 2 crewmembers
| 1630 PSI for 2 crewmembers plus jumpseater
37
Where are the crew smoke goggles located?
Either part of oxygen mask, or under oxygen mask
38
How many sealed first aid kits and EEMK (Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit) must be on board?
One of each
39
In what rows are the extra passenger oxygen masks located?
All rows on right side
40
Where are the two flight deck flashlights located?
One behind each seat
41
What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?
5 battery packs
42
Can the flight attendant select the emergency lights on, if the flight deck switch is off?
Yes
43
How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged?
10 minutes
44
Where are the smoke detectors located?
1 - FWD lavatory
1 - AFT lavatory
2 - AFT Cargo Compartment
3 - FWD Cargo Compartment
45
What conditions would cause a Takeoff Configuration Warning?
```
PASSFAR
Parking Brake ON
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended
Stab Trim out of Green Range
Flaps not 8 degrees or 20 degrees
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range
```
46
The 115V AC external power receptacle is located?
Forward right nose area
47
Where is the main battery located?
Nose Compartment
48
Where is the APU battery located?
Aft Equipment Bay
49
Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
Forward of the passenger door
50
What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is blown?
Excessive pressure has occurred (2800 PSI)
51
Will the Flight Deck P.A. Override the FA P.A.?
Yes
52
How should we contact the FAs in an Emergency?
- Turn the audio selector knob to PA
| - Push the EMER Call switchlight to generate 3 high/low chimes and a flashing red light on the FAs overhead panel
53
What indication do we get if the FA is calling the flight deck because of an emergency?
We hear one high/low chime and the EMER call switchlight will be flashing
54
How do we know if the company is trying to contact us?
An ACARS message
Or
SELCAL, SELCAL voice aural and a SELCAL advisory EICAS message
55
How many air data computers are installed?
Two
56
How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed?
Two
57
In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?
30-70 Seconds
58
In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?
10-11 minutes
59
From which source do the captains flight instruments receive AHRS information?
AHRS 1 or IRS 1
60
From which source do the FOs flight instruments receive AHRS information?
AHRS 2 or IRS 2
61
From which source do the CAs flight instruments receive pitot/static information?
System # 1, pitot/static system on left side of plane
62
From which source do the FOs flight instruments receive pitot/static information from?
System #2, pitot/static tube on right side of nose
63
From which source does the integrated standby instruments receive pitot/static information from?
System #3, standby pitot under CA side window and two alternate static ports, one on left and one on the right side
64
Where is the TAT probe located?
Under FO’s side window
65
What is the definition of Total Air Temperature?
The Temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed
66
On the ground with probe heat on which probes are heated?
All pitot probes are heated half way, all others are fully heated except the TAT probe which is not heated on the ground
67
In flight, which probes are heated?
All are fully heated regardless of probe heat switch position
68
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby attitude indicator?
Yes, referencing NAV 1
69
When and where will the radio altitude information appear?
0-2500 AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape
70
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made
71
When and where will the MACH readout appear?
Appears when accelerating through 0.45 Mach
Disappears when decelerating through 0.4 Mach
Appears just above the airspeed tape in white
72
What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?
1.27 Vs based on current configuration
| Not accurate at high altitudes
73
Where is the slip and skid indicator located?
A rectangle located just under the sky pointer
74
How many flight directors are installed?k
Two
75
How many autopilots are installed?
One
76
What does the autopilot follow when engaged?
The selected side flight director which defaults to the CA FD.
The XFER button must be selected on the flight control panel to transfer to the FOs FD
77
What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?
TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page
Autopilot disengages
78
What does TO lateral mode do?
On the ground, it generates a wings level command
| After takeoff, it generates a heading hold command with a 5 degree bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff
79
What does TO vertical mode do?
Generates an optimized pitch up attitude for takeoff
80
What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight?
GA lateral mode,
GA vertical mode,
Missed approach procedures depiction appears on the MFD if
Instrument approach procedures selected in FMS
Autopilot disengages
81
What does the GA lateral mode do?
Same as TO lateral mode and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed
82
What does the GA vertical mode do?
Generates a 10 degree pitch up attitude
83
After takeoff or go-around, the autopilot must not be engaged below what altitude?
600 feet AGL
84
During visual and non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?
400 ft AGL
85
During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?
80 ft AGL
86
During single-engine precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?
110 ft AGL
87
When will autopilot automatically disconnect?
- AP/SP DISC button pushed
- AP ENG button on FCP pushed
- AP DISC switch bar pushed down
- Stick Shaker Activated
- TOGA buttons pressed
- STAB TRIM manually operated
- Windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
- Excessive attitude
- one or both FCCs fail
- both yaw dampers disc or fail
88
Max permissible load on the APU generator?
40 KVA
89
Max altitude for starting APU?
37,000 feet
90
Max altitude for APU operation?
41,000 feet
91
Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
25,000 feet
92
Max speed with APU door open?
220 knots if APU not operating, NO speed limitation if APU is operating
93
What battery voltage is required before starting the APU?
22 volts on both batteries
94
What does the main battery power during an APU start?
APU ECU
95
What does the APU battery power during an APU start?
Cranking of the 28 VDC start motor
96
When will the APU AVAIL switchlight illuminate?
99% RPM plus 2 seconds
97
What is the CRJ 900 Powerplant model number?
General Electric CF34-8C5
98
What is the thrust rating without APR/with APR?
13,560 lbs, 14,750 lbs
99
What is the Max ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?
ISA + 35 degrees C
100
What is the Min ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?
-40 degrees C
101
What is the max altitude for a windmill start?
21,000 ft Msp
102
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power?
2%
103
How much of the thrust is produced by core air?
Approximately 20%
104
How much thrust is produced by by-pass air?
Approximately 80%
105
How many stages of compression do we have?
The engine is equipped with a 10 stage axial flow compressor
106
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?
FISH OIL PLUS
- Fuel Pump (engine driven)
- IDG
- Starter (air turbine)
- Hydraulic Pump (engine driven)
- Oil Pump
- Alternator (FADEC)
107
What is the engine bleed air used for?
Engine Start
Air conditioning, Pressurization,
Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice
108
What stages of bleed air are used?
Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when demand exceeds capacity of 6th stage
109
What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?
Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)
110
How many igniters are installed on each engine?
Two, IGN A and B
111
What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground engine start?
20 % or greater N2, ITT < 120 degrees C
112
What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?
42 PSI to a maximum of 80% N2
113
When will APR arm on takeoff?
Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex
114
When will the APR system Activate?
Thrust levers in TOGA
Normal or flex thrust scheduled
N1 differs by 15% or greater or when thrust levers set in the MAX POWER detent
115
What occurs when the APR system activates?
FADEC commands an N1 speed increase dependent on thrust lever position
116
What indication will we have of APR activation?
Green APR icon on operable engine N1 gauge
117
If an engine fails during a go-around, will the APR system activate?
Yes
118
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reverser s?
Hydraulics
L REVERSER uses Hydraulic system # 1
R REVERSER uses hydraulic system # 2
119
How are thrust reverser’s deployed?
Thrust levers must be at idle, and raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers
A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy
Once deployed, the lock increases and N1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers
120
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?
The translating cowls move aft, the bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect air forward
121
What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment?
Green REV icon on N1 gauges
122
When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle?
60 knots
123
What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?
FADEC commands reverser to close and thrust set to idle on affected engine
124
What are the indications of a an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?
Amber REV icon on N1 gauge,
| REV UNLOCKED caution message
125
What is the normal air source for engine starts?
APU or cross-bleed if doing a single engine taxi
126
What source is used if the APU is INOP?
Ground Air Cart or bottle attached to the high pressure air ground connection to start one engine
A cross bleed start is then used to start the other engine after clearing it with ground control
127
Where is the high pressure air ground connection located?
Under left engine nacelle
128
When will the starter cut-out during an engine start?
50% N2
129
What are the engine starter cranking limits?
1st and 2nd Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 10 Sec OFF
| 3rd - 5th Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF
130
What are the Dry Motoring Limits?
1st Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF
| 2nd - 5th Attempt - 30 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF
131
What are the APU starter limits?
No more than three attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts
132
Min Oil Temperature for start?
-40 degrees C
133
Max Continuous Oil Temperature?
155 degrees C
134
Max Permissible oil temperature?
163 degrees C (15 minutes max)
135
Max oil consumption?
0.05 gallons/hr
136
Where do we check the oil quantity?
On the EICAS menu page
137
When should the oil capacity be checked?
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
138
When should the engine oil level be replenished?
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
139
Max refill without dry motoring for oil?
2 quarts
140
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
141
What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks?
7.2 quarts
142
How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the main tanks?
Transfer ejectors
143
How is the fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks?
Scavenge ejectors (gravity line is used as a backup)
144
How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pump?
Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)
145
what is the function of the electric boost pumps?
To provide initial fuel for engine start and to back-up the main ejectors
146
What is the flight deck indication of a high pressure fuel pump failure?
Engine flameout
147
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
300 lbs for takeoff
| 800 lbs for all other phases
148
What will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?
200 lb fuel imbalance
149
When are the boost pumps automatically energized?
Low pressure from the main ejectors (if the pumps are armed)
150
Where is the high pressure fuel pump located?
N2 accessory gearbox
151
Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?
Right main tank
152
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight?
Above -40 degrees C
153
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for take-off?
-30 degrees C
154
How is the engine fuel heated?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
155
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?
+5 degrees C
156
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has >500 lbs of fuel?
Each main tank must have >4400 lbs
157
Which Bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?
APU battery Direct Bus
158
Where is the refuel/defuel panel located?
The fuselage forward of the right wing
159
Where is the single point adapter located?
Right wing root
160
Normal pressure differential is for air conditioning/pressurization is?
8.5 PSI
161
Max pressure differential is?
8.7 PSI
162
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing?
0.1 PSI
163
Max negative pressure differential is?
-0.5 PSI
164
During single PACK operation, what is the max altitude?
FL 250
165
What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?
Low airflow behind screens or within the avionics rack
166
How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ 900?
2, PC 1 and PC 2
167
When do the pressurization controllers swap?
Weight on Wheels plus 3 minutes,
| One PC failure, the redundant controller takes over
168
When operating in auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?
500 FPM climb, 300 FPM descent
169
When operating in the manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?
50 FPM to 3,000 FPM +/- 1,000 FPM
170
When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT caution message?
Cabin altitude between 8,500-10,000 ft
171
When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT warning message?
Cabin altitude >14,000 ft
172
When will the CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
Cabin Altitude >14,000 feet
173
When will CPAM turn on the No Smoking/Fasten seatbelt signs?
Cabin altitude >10,000 feet (with switches in the auto mode)
174
Can we carry live animals in the cargo compartment of the CRJ 900?
Yes, aft cargo compartment only
175
What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate?
Over pressure or over temperature condition
176
What causes the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight to illuminate?
Both pressurization controllers have failed
177
What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti-ice?
6th or 10th stage bleed air
178
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
OAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1 sm or less, rain, sleet, snow, ice crystals) or on contaminated runways, ramps, taxiways when OAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C
179
When is cowl anti ice required to be ON during flight?
TAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture or when ICE is annunciated
180
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
OAT is less than or equal to 5 degrees C in visible moisture, or when OAT is less than or equal to 5 degrees C on contaminated runways (if type II, III, IV fluids have been applied, select wing anti-ice on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff)
181
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations?
TAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture, with airspeed less than 230 knots, except when SAT is below -40 degrees C or when ICE is annunciated
182
What is a good ICE detector test?
ICE caution message, the ICE switchlight illuminated
| ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message
183
What is the purpose of the wing A/I cross bleed switch?
To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing
184
What occurs when the windshield heat on LOW?
All 4 panels are heated to 24 degrees C
185
What occurs when the windshield heat on HIGH?
Side windows are heated to 24 degrees C and both windshields are heated to 41 degrees C
186
How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?
Two, dual loops mounted in parallel
187
How many firex bottles are available for an engine fire?
Two
188
What type of halon is in the engine firex bottles?
Halon 1301, pressurized with dry nitrogen
189
How is an engine fire detected by the crew?
Appropriate ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates,
| The Bell sounds and an EICAS warning message
190
What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pushed?
```
FUEL SOV closes
HYD SOV closes
Bleed Air SOV’s closes
Generator is de-energized
Appropriate squibs are armed
```
191
Can we blow both bottles into one engine, if necessary?
Yes
192
How many fire detection loops are inside the APU containment case?
Two, dual loops mounted in parallel
193
How is an in-flight APU Fire detected by the crew?
APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates
FIRE BELL sounds
APU FIRE warning message on EICAS
194
How many firex bottles are available for APU fire?
One
195
What type of extinguishing agent is used in the APU firex bottle?
Halon 1301, dry nitrogen pressurized
196
What occurs during an unattended APU Fire on the ground?
APU ECU shuts down the APU
| 5 seconds later, the APU bottle will discharge automatically
197
What occurs during an APU fire in flight?
The APU ECU shuts down the APU, the bottle does not discharge automatically the crew must discharge the bottle
198
How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment?
Two
199
How many smoke detectors are in the FWD cargo compartment?
Three
200
What are the flight deck indications of cargo smoke?
Triple chime, master warning flashers “SMOKE” aural
SMOKE AFT CARGO warning message
or SMOKE FWD CARGO warning message
Either FWD or AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight illuminate
201
How many firex bottles are there for cargo smoke?
Two, one is a slow metered standard bottle that should last approximately 60 minutes, and the other is a quick discharge bottle
202
How many smoke detectors are located in the lavatories?
One in the FWD and ONE in the AFT
203
What indication do we have for smoke in a lavatory?
Triple Chime
Master warning flashers
SMOKE FWD or SMOKE AFT LAV warning message
204
What protection do we have for a lavatory waste management fire?
A firex bottle with heat sensitive capsules that will melt to discharge Halon 1301 directly into the waste compartment
205
What indication will we get with a waste compartment fire?
None, unless it generates enough smoke to set off a smoke detector
206
Location of main battery?
Nose compartment
207
Location of APU battery?
Aft equipment bay
208
Max Engine generator load?
40 KVA
209
Max APU generator load?
40 KVA
210
Max transformer rectifier unit (TRU) load?
120 amps
211
Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only?
5 minutes
212
what is the reason for the 5 minute battery ground limitation?
To prevent ED1 and ED2 from overheating (fans are AC powered)
213
How many TRUs are installed on the CRJ 900?
4
214
Where are the TRUs located?
Nose compartment
215
The main battery is rated to?
17 ampere hour/24 volts
216
APU battery is rated to?
43 ampere hour/24 volts
217
How many generators are installed?
4 total
2 engine generators
1 APU generator
1 ADG generator
218
What is the function of the TRUs?
To convert 115 V AC to 28 V DC
219
How are the TRUs cooled?
Individual fans
220
Which buses are powered when the battery master switch is selected on?
Main battery direct bus
APU battery direct bus
DC battery bus
221
If the main buses are powered, are the essential buses automatically powered?
Yes
222
Is there an on/off switch for the TRUs?
No, they are automatically powered when the AC buses are powered
223
What controls the DC tie contactors?
The DC Power Centers (DCPC) automatically control DC tie operation
224
When will the Air Driven Generator (ADG) automatically deploy?
with complete loss of AC power
225
With the ADG deployed, what are the basic items that are powered?
AC ESS Bus
Hydraulic pump 3B
Flaps/Slats
STAB Trim CH 2
226
What is the ADG max load?
15 KVA
227
How many separate hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ 900?
3
228
Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 and 3 normal pressure is?
3000 PSI
229
Low pressure (Caution) message occurs at what pressure (hydraulic low pressure)?
Less than 1800 PSI
230
High Pressure occurs at what pressure (hydraulic system)?
3200 PSI
231
What is the normal hydraulic system quantity?
45%-85%
232
High temperature condition occurs at what temp? (Hydraulic system)
Equal to or more than 96 degrees C
233
The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of the system?
The reservoir
234
How many hydraulic pumps are there?
6, 3 full time (A pumps)
| 3 part time (B pumps)
235
When will the “B” pumps operate?
Switch ON or with switches in AUTO
At least one generator online
Flaps out of zero
236
When will the hydraulic pump 3B operate?
Switch ON or with the switch in AUTO
At least one generator online
Flaps out of zero OR ADG deployed
237
What type of hydraulic fluid is used?
Sky drop
238
What color is the hydraulic fluid?
Purple
239
When will pressure relief occur?
More than or equal to 3750 PSI
240
Which yoke is connected to the right aileron?
First Officers
241
Which yoke is connected to the left aileron?
Captains
242
How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder actuated?
Yoke and pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control, which operates a hydraulic PCU (power control unit) which hydraulically actuated the control surface
243
Which yoke controls the right aileron?
First Officers
244
Which yoke controls the left elevator?
Captains
245
What is the purpose of the Multifunction spoilers (MFS)?
To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on landing
246
Are the Multifunction spoilers (MFS) operational at any speed?
Yes
247
How are the MFSs controlled when used for roll assistance?
The FOs yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by the PCUs.
The CAs yoke position sends and electrical signal to the right MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs
248
What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?
Both yokes will be jammed
249
What happens when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROL SEL switchlight illuminates
250
How is the operable side selected?
By pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight on the unjammed side
251
What does pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?
Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on-side MFS panels
252
What is the flight deck indication of an aileron PCU runaway?
Aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the PCU runaway illuminates automatically because of the bungee break out signal
253
What is occurring when the pilots trim the ailerons or rudder?
The control surface is being repositioned. There are no trim tabs
254
What panels are part of the GND LIFT dumping system?
Inboard and Outboard ground spoilers, all 4 MFS panels
255
How are the flight controls gust locked?
Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown
256
How is the Yaw Damper engaged?
YD1 and YD2 engage switchlight on the center pedestal
257
How is the Yaw Damper Disengaged?
DISC button on the center pedestal
258
What controls the Yaw Damper?
The FCC (Flight Control Computer)
259
Is it necessary to disconnect the Yaw Damper on landing?
No
260
How are the flaps operated?
Electrically
261
How many flap segments does the CRJ have?
4 total, 2 on each wing
262
Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?
Yes, if the flap segments differ by more than 5 degrees the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position
263
How is STAB TRIM operated?
Electrically. A split switch on the control yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence
264
What systems can operate the STAB TRIM?
CAs trim switches
FOs trim switches
Autopilot and Mach Trim
265
What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?
CA
FO
Autopilot
MACH trim
266
How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?
Mechanical up and down locks
267
How is the nose gear held in the up and down position?
Over center mechanism
268
Do the forward nose gear doors remain open after a normal extension?
Yes
269
How are the nose gear doors actuated?
Mechanically
270
What is the purpose of the brushes on the main wheel wells?
Aerodynamic seals
271
Where do you look to determine the position of the landing gear?
EICAS primary page
272
Which component monitors the position of up locks, down locks, and gear door position and WOW sensors?
PSEU
| Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit
273
Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the UP position on the ground?
Down lock solenoid
274
Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?
Hydraulic System # 3
275
Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?
System # 2
276
When does the Anti-Skid Operate?
Wheel spin up equal to or more than 35 knots or weight on wheels plus 5 seconds
277
What is the nose wheel steering degree of travel limits with nose wheel steering on?
8 degrees either side of center for rudder pedals, 80 degrees either side of center for tiller
278
At what speed does anti-skid control stop operating?
Wheel speed is less than or equal to 10 knots
