Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mesa Airlines Training > UPGRADE - Limitations > Flashcards

UPGRADE - Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Max Taxi/Ramp Weight?

A

82,750 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max Takeoff Weight?

A

82,500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max Landing Weight?

A

73,500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight?

A

70,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Min Flight Weight?

A

45,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Total Aft Cargo Compartment Capacity?

A

4,375 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max Total Fwd Cargo Compartment Capacity?

A

850 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max Total Center Cargo Compartment Capacity?

A

850 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max Pressure Refueling Fuel Capacities?

A

Total - 19,594 lbs
Mains - 7,492 lbs
Center - 4,610 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Max Gravity Refueling Fuel Capacities?

A

Total - 14,810 lbs
Mains - 7,405 lbs
Center - N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the wingspan?

A

76’3”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the height of the Tail?

A

24’1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the minimum taxiway or runway surface width for a 180 degree turn?

A

126’5”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Length?

A

118’11”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Width of the Horizontal Stabilizer?

A

28’4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the distance from Main to Main?

A

13’6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Vmo?

A

335 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Mmo?

A

0.85 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Mmo in RVSM airspace?

A

0.82 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the Flap Extension Speeds?

A 
1 - 230 knots
8 - 230 Knots
20 - 220 Knots
30 - 185 Knots
45 - 170 Knots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Max Landing Gear operation speed for Extension (Vlo)?

A

220 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Max Landing Gear operation speed for retraction? (Vlo)

A

200 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Max Landing Gear Extended Speed (Vle)?

A

220 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Max Turbulence Penetration speed?

A

280 knots or 0.75 Mach whichever is slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is max windshield operation speed?

A

250 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Max Operating Altitude?

A

41,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

10,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

22 knots for takeoff and landing, 15 knots on a slippery runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max tailwind approved for takeoff and landing?

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max Tire Speed?

A

195 KGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Max altitude for extending flaps?

A

15,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max runway slopes for takeoff and landing?

A

+2% uphill

-2% downhill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of floatation equipment is provided for the passengers?

A

Seat Cushions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of floatation equipment is provided for the flight attendants?

A

Life vests located near the FA jumpseat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many life vests are in the flight deck?

A

3 total, (one under captains and FO seat) and one next to the jump seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch?

A

1180 PSI for 2 crewmembers

1630 PSI for 2 crewmembers plus jumpseater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where are the crew smoke goggles located?

A

Either part of oxygen mask, or under oxygen mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many sealed first aid kits and EEMK (Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit) must be on board?

A

One of each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In what rows are the extra passenger oxygen masks located?

A

All rows on right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where are the two flight deck flashlights located?

A

One behind each seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?

A

5 battery packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Can the flight attendant select the emergency lights on, if the flight deck switch is off?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged?

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where are the smoke detectors located?

A

1 - FWD lavatory
1 - AFT lavatory
2 - AFT Cargo Compartment
3 - FWD Cargo Compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What conditions would cause a Takeoff Configuration Warning?

A 
PASSFAR
Parking Brake ON
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended
Stab Trim out of Green Range
Flaps not 8 degrees or 20 degrees
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The 115V AC external power receptacle is located?

A

Forward right nose area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is the main battery located?

A

Nose Compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where is the APU battery located?

A

Aft Equipment Bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?

A

Forward of the passenger door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is blown?

A

Excessive pressure has occurred (2800 PSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Will the Flight Deck P.A. Override the FA P.A.?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How should we contact the FAs in an Emergency?

A
  • Turn the audio selector knob to PA

- Push the EMER Call switchlight to generate 3 high/low chimes and a flashing red light on the FAs overhead panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What indication do we get if the FA is calling the flight deck because of an emergency?

A

We hear one high/low chime and the EMER call switchlight will be flashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do we know if the company is trying to contact us?

A

An ACARS message
Or
SELCAL, SELCAL voice aural and a SELCAL advisory EICAS message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many air data computers are installed?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?

A

30-70 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?

A

10-11 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

From which source do the captains flight instruments receive AHRS information?

A

AHRS 1 or IRS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

From which source do the FOs flight instruments receive AHRS information?

A

AHRS 2 or IRS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

From which source do the CAs flight instruments receive pitot/static information?

A

System # 1, pitot/static system on left side of plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

From which source do the FOs flight instruments receive pitot/static information from?

A

System #2, pitot/static tube on right side of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

From which source does the integrated standby instruments receive pitot/static information from?

A

System #3, standby pitot under CA side window and two alternate static ports, one on left and one on the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is the TAT probe located?

A

Under FO’s side window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the definition of Total Air Temperature?

A

The Temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

On the ground with probe heat on which probes are heated?

A

All pitot probes are heated half way, all others are fully heated except the TAT probe which is not heated on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In flight, which probes are heated?

A

All are fully heated regardless of probe heat switch position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby attitude indicator?

A

Yes, referencing NAV 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When and where will the radio altitude information appear?

A

0-2500 AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When and where will the MACH readout appear?

A

Appears when accelerating through 0.45 Mach
Disappears when decelerating through 0.4 Mach
Appears just above the airspeed tape in white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?

A

1.27 Vs based on current configuration

Not accurate at high altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the slip and skid indicator located?

A

A rectangle located just under the sky pointer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many flight directors are installed?k

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How many autopilots are installed?

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the autopilot follow when engaged?

A

The selected side flight director which defaults to the CA FD.
The XFER button must be selected on the flight control panel to transfer to the FOs FD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?

A

TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page
Autopilot disengages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does TO lateral mode do?

A

On the ground, it generates a wings level command

After takeoff, it generates a heading hold command with a 5 degree bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does TO vertical mode do?

A

Generates an optimized pitch up attitude for takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight?

A

GA lateral mode,
GA vertical mode,
Missed approach procedures depiction appears on the MFD if
Instrument approach procedures selected in FMS
Autopilot disengages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does the GA lateral mode do?

A

Same as TO lateral mode and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does the GA vertical mode do?

A

Generates a 10 degree pitch up attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

After takeoff or go-around, the autopilot must not be engaged below what altitude?

A

600 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

During visual and non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?

A

400 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?

A

80 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

During single-engine precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?

A

110 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When will autopilot automatically disconnect?

A
  • AP/SP DISC button pushed
  • AP ENG button on FCP pushed
  • AP DISC switch bar pushed down
  • Stick Shaker Activated
  • TOGA buttons pressed
  • STAB TRIM manually operated
  • Windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
  • Excessive attitude
  • one or both FCCs fail
  • both yaw dampers disc or fail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Max permissible load on the APU generator?

A

40 KVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Max altitude for starting APU?

A

37,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Max altitude for APU operation?

A

41,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction?

A

25,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Max speed with APU door open?

A

220 knots if APU not operating, NO speed limitation if APU is operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What battery voltage is required before starting the APU?

A

22 volts on both batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does the main battery power during an APU start?

A

APU ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does the APU battery power during an APU start?

A

Cranking of the 28 VDC start motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When will the APU AVAIL switchlight illuminate?

A

99% RPM plus 2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the CRJ 900 Powerplant model number?

A

General Electric CF34-8C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the thrust rating without APR/with APR?

A

13,560 lbs, 14,750 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the Max ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

ISA + 35 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the Min ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

-40 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the max altitude for a windmill start?

A

21,000 ft Msp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How much of the thrust is produced by core air?

A

Approximately 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much thrust is produced by by-pass air?

A

Approximately 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How many stages of compression do we have?

A

The engine is equipped with a 10 stage axial flow compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?

A

FISH OIL PLUS

  • Fuel Pump (engine driven)
  • IDG
  • Starter (air turbine)
  • Hydraulic Pump (engine driven)
  • Oil Pump
  • Alternator (FADEC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the engine bleed air used for?

A

Engine Start
Air conditioning, Pressurization,
Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What stages of bleed air are used?

A

Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when demand exceeds capacity of 6th stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?

A

Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How many igniters are installed on each engine?

A

Two, IGN A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground engine start?

A

20 % or greater N2, ITT < 120 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?

A

42 PSI to a maximum of 80% N2

113
Q

When will APR arm on takeoff?

A

Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex

114
Q

When will the APR system Activate?

A

Thrust levers in TOGA
Normal or flex thrust scheduled
N1 differs by 15% or greater or when thrust levers set in the MAX POWER detent

115
Q

What occurs when the APR system activates?

A

FADEC commands an N1 speed increase dependent on thrust lever position

116
Q

What indication will we have of APR activation?

A

Green APR icon on operable engine N1 gauge

117
Q

If an engine fails during a go-around, will the APR system activate?

A

Yes

118
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reverser s?

A

Hydraulics
L REVERSER uses Hydraulic system # 1
R REVERSER uses hydraulic system # 2

119
Q

How are thrust reverser’s deployed?

A

Thrust levers must be at idle, and raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers
A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy
Once deployed, the lock increases and N1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers

120
Q

What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?

A

The translating cowls move aft, the bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect air forward

121
Q

What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment?

A

Green REV icon on N1 gauges

122
Q

When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle?

A

60 knots

123
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?

A

FADEC commands reverser to close and thrust set to idle on affected engine

124
Q

What are the indications of a an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?

A

Amber REV icon on N1 gauge,

REV UNLOCKED caution message

125
Q

What is the normal air source for engine starts?

A

APU or cross-bleed if doing a single engine taxi

126
Q

What source is used if the APU is INOP?

A

Ground Air Cart or bottle attached to the high pressure air ground connection to start one engine
A cross bleed start is then used to start the other engine after clearing it with ground control

127
Q

Where is the high pressure air ground connection located?

A

Under left engine nacelle

128
Q

When will the starter cut-out during an engine start?

A

50% N2

129
Q

What are the engine starter cranking limits?

A

1st and 2nd Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 10 Sec OFF

3rd - 5th Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF

130
Q

What are the Dry Motoring Limits?

A

1st Attempt - 90 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF

2nd - 5th Attempt - 30 Sec ON, 5 Min OFF

131
Q

What are the APU starter limits?

A

No more than three attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts

132
Q

Min Oil Temperature for start?

A

-40 degrees C

133
Q

Max Continuous Oil Temperature?

A

155 degrees C

134
Q

Max Permissible oil temperature?

A

163 degrees C (15 minutes max)

135
Q

Max oil consumption?

A

0.05 gallons/hr

136
Q

Where do we check the oil quantity?

A

On the EICAS menu page

137
Q

When should the oil capacity be checked?

A

3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

138
Q

When should the engine oil level be replenished?

A

15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

139
Q

Max refill without dry motoring for oil?

A

2 quarts

140
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

141
Q

What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks?

A

7.2 quarts

142
Q

How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the main tanks?

A

Transfer ejectors

143
Q

How is the fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks?

A

Scavenge ejectors (gravity line is used as a backup)

144
Q

How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pump?

A

Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)

145
Q

what is the function of the electric boost pumps?

A

To provide initial fuel for engine start and to back-up the main ejectors

146
Q

What is the flight deck indication of a high pressure fuel pump failure?

A

Engine flameout

147
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

300 lbs for takeoff

800 lbs for all other phases

148
Q

What will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?

A

200 lb fuel imbalance

149
Q

When are the boost pumps automatically energized?

A

Low pressure from the main ejectors (if the pumps are armed)

150
Q

Where is the high pressure fuel pump located?

A

N2 accessory gearbox

151
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?

A

Right main tank

152
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight?

A

Above -40 degrees C

153
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for take-off?

A

-30 degrees C

154
Q

How is the engine fuel heated?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

155
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?

A

+5 degrees C

156
Q

What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has >500 lbs of fuel?

A

Each main tank must have >4400 lbs

157
Q

Which Bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?

A

APU battery Direct Bus

158
Q

Where is the refuel/defuel panel located?

A

The fuselage forward of the right wing

159
Q

Where is the single point adapter located?

A

Right wing root

160
Q

Normal pressure differential is for air conditioning/pressurization is?

A

8.5 PSI

161
Q

Max pressure differential is?

A

8.7 PSI

162
Q

Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing?

A

0.1 PSI

163
Q

Max negative pressure differential is?

A

-0.5 PSI

164
Q

During single PACK operation, what is the max altitude?

A

FL 250

165
Q

What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?

A

Low airflow behind screens or within the avionics rack

166
Q

How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ 900?

A

2, PC 1 and PC 2

167
Q

When do the pressurization controllers swap?

A

Weight on Wheels plus 3 minutes,

One PC failure, the redundant controller takes over

168
Q

When operating in auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?

A

500 FPM climb, 300 FPM descent

169
Q

When operating in the manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?

A

50 FPM to 3,000 FPM +/- 1,000 FPM

170
Q

When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT caution message?

A

Cabin altitude between 8,500-10,000 ft

171
Q

When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT warning message?

A

Cabin altitude >14,000 ft

172
Q

When will the CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Cabin Altitude >14,000 feet

173
Q

When will CPAM turn on the No Smoking/Fasten seatbelt signs?

A

Cabin altitude >10,000 feet (with switches in the auto mode)

174
Q

Can we carry live animals in the cargo compartment of the CRJ 900?

A

Yes, aft cargo compartment only

175
Q

What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate?

A

Over pressure or over temperature condition

176
Q

What causes the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight to illuminate?

A

Both pressurization controllers have failed

177
Q

What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti-ice?

A

6th or 10th stage bleed air

178
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?

A

OAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1 sm or less, rain, sleet, snow, ice crystals) or on contaminated runways, ramps, taxiways when OAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C

179
Q

When is cowl anti ice required to be ON during flight?

A

TAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture or when ICE is annunciated

180
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?

A

OAT is less than or equal to 5 degrees C in visible moisture, or when OAT is less than or equal to 5 degrees C on contaminated runways (if type II, III, IV fluids have been applied, select wing anti-ice on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff)

181
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations?

A

TAT is equal to or lesser than 10 degrees C in visible moisture, with airspeed less than 230 knots, except when SAT is below -40 degrees C or when ICE is annunciated

182
Q

What is a good ICE detector test?

A

ICE caution message, the ICE switchlight illuminated

ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message

183
Q

What is the purpose of the wing A/I cross bleed switch?

A

To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing

184
Q

What occurs when the windshield heat on LOW?

A

All 4 panels are heated to 24 degrees C

185
Q

What occurs when the windshield heat on HIGH?

A

Side windows are heated to 24 degrees C and both windshields are heated to 41 degrees C

186
Q

How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?

A

Two, dual loops mounted in parallel

187
Q

How many firex bottles are available for an engine fire?

A

Two

188
Q

What type of halon is in the engine firex bottles?

A

Halon 1301, pressurized with dry nitrogen

189
Q

How is an engine fire detected by the crew?

A

Appropriate ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates,

The Bell sounds and an EICAS warning message

190
Q

What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pushed?

A 
FUEL SOV closes
HYD SOV closes
Bleed Air SOV’s closes
Generator is de-energized
Appropriate squibs are armed
191
Q

Can we blow both bottles into one engine, if necessary?

A

Yes

192
Q

How many fire detection loops are inside the APU containment case?

A

Two, dual loops mounted in parallel

193
Q

How is an in-flight APU Fire detected by the crew?

A

APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates
FIRE BELL sounds
APU FIRE warning message on EICAS

194
Q

How many firex bottles are available for APU fire?

A

One

195
Q

What type of extinguishing agent is used in the APU firex bottle?

A

Halon 1301, dry nitrogen pressurized

196
Q

What occurs during an unattended APU Fire on the ground?

A

APU ECU shuts down the APU

5 seconds later, the APU bottle will discharge automatically

197
Q

What occurs during an APU fire in flight?

A

The APU ECU shuts down the APU, the bottle does not discharge automatically the crew must discharge the bottle

198
Q

How many smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment?

A

Two

199
Q

How many smoke detectors are in the FWD cargo compartment?

A

Three

200
Q

What are the flight deck indications of cargo smoke?

A

Triple chime, master warning flashers “SMOKE” aural
SMOKE AFT CARGO warning message
or SMOKE FWD CARGO warning message
Either FWD or AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight illuminate

201
Q

How many firex bottles are there for cargo smoke?

A

Two, one is a slow metered standard bottle that should last approximately 60 minutes, and the other is a quick discharge bottle

202
Q

How many smoke detectors are located in the lavatories?

A

One in the FWD and ONE in the AFT

203
Q

What indication do we have for smoke in a lavatory?

A

Triple Chime
Master warning flashers
SMOKE FWD or SMOKE AFT LAV warning message

204
Q

What protection do we have for a lavatory waste management fire?

A

A firex bottle with heat sensitive capsules that will melt to discharge Halon 1301 directly into the waste compartment

205
Q

What indication will we get with a waste compartment fire?

A

None, unless it generates enough smoke to set off a smoke detector

206
Q

Location of main battery?

A

Nose compartment

207
Q

Location of APU battery?

A

Aft equipment bay

208
Q

Max Engine generator load?

A

40 KVA

209
Q

Max APU generator load?

A

40 KVA

210
Q

Max transformer rectifier unit (TRU) load?

A

120 amps

211
Q

Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only?

A

5 minutes

212
Q

what is the reason for the 5 minute battery ground limitation?

A

To prevent ED1 and ED2 from overheating (fans are AC powered)

213
Q

How many TRUs are installed on the CRJ 900?

A

4

214
Q

Where are the TRUs located?

A

Nose compartment

215
Q

The main battery is rated to?

A

17 ampere hour/24 volts

216
Q

APU battery is rated to?

A

43 ampere hour/24 volts

217
Q

How many generators are installed?

A

4 total
2 engine generators
1 APU generator
1 ADG generator

218
Q

What is the function of the TRUs?

A

To convert 115 V AC to 28 V DC

219
Q

How are the TRUs cooled?

A

Individual fans

220
Q

Which buses are powered when the battery master switch is selected on?

A

Main battery direct bus
APU battery direct bus
DC battery bus

221
Q

If the main buses are powered, are the essential buses automatically powered?

A

Yes

222
Q

Is there an on/off switch for the TRUs?

A

No, they are automatically powered when the AC buses are powered

223
Q

What controls the DC tie contactors?

A

The DC Power Centers (DCPC) automatically control DC tie operation

224
Q

When will the Air Driven Generator (ADG) automatically deploy?

A

with complete loss of AC power

225
Q

With the ADG deployed, what are the basic items that are powered?

A

AC ESS Bus
Hydraulic pump 3B
Flaps/Slats
STAB Trim CH 2

226
Q

What is the ADG max load?

A

15 KVA

227
Q

How many separate hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ 900?

A

3

228
Q

Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 and 3 normal pressure is?

A

3000 PSI

229
Q

Low pressure (Caution) message occurs at what pressure (hydraulic low pressure)?

A

Less than 1800 PSI

230
Q

High Pressure occurs at what pressure (hydraulic system)?

A

3200 PSI

231
Q

What is the normal hydraulic system quantity?

A

45%-85%

232
Q

High temperature condition occurs at what temp? (Hydraulic system)

A

Equal to or more than 96 degrees C

233
Q

The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of the system?

A

The reservoir

234
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are there?

A

6, 3 full time (A pumps)

3 part time (B pumps)

235
Q

When will the “B” pumps operate?

A

Switch ON or with switches in AUTO
At least one generator online
Flaps out of zero

236
Q

When will the hydraulic pump 3B operate?

A

Switch ON or with the switch in AUTO
At least one generator online
Flaps out of zero OR ADG deployed

237
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used?

A

Sky drop

238
Q

What color is the hydraulic fluid?

A

Purple

239
Q

When will pressure relief occur?

A

More than or equal to 3750 PSI

240
Q

Which yoke is connected to the right aileron?

A

First Officers

241
Q

Which yoke is connected to the left aileron?

A

Captains

242
Q

How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder actuated?

A

Yoke and pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control, which operates a hydraulic PCU (power control unit) which hydraulically actuated the control surface

243
Q

Which yoke controls the right aileron?

A

First Officers

244
Q

Which yoke controls the left elevator?

A

Captains

245
Q

What is the purpose of the Multifunction spoilers (MFS)?

A

To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on landing

246
Q

Are the Multifunction spoilers (MFS) operational at any speed?

A

Yes

247
Q

How are the MFSs controlled when used for roll assistance?

A

The FOs yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by the PCUs.
The CAs yoke position sends and electrical signal to the right MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs

248
Q

What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?

A

Both yokes will be jammed

249
Q

What happens when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?

A

The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROL SEL switchlight illuminates

250
Q

How is the operable side selected?

A

By pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight on the unjammed side

251
Q

What does pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?

A

Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on-side MFS panels

252
Q

What is the flight deck indication of an aileron PCU runaway?

A

Aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the PCU runaway illuminates automatically because of the bungee break out signal

253
Q

What is occurring when the pilots trim the ailerons or rudder?

A

The control surface is being repositioned. There are no trim tabs

254
Q

What panels are part of the GND LIFT dumping system?

A

Inboard and Outboard ground spoilers, all 4 MFS panels

255
Q

How are the flight controls gust locked?

A

Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown

256
Q

How is the Yaw Damper engaged?

A

YD1 and YD2 engage switchlight on the center pedestal

257
Q

How is the Yaw Damper Disengaged?

A

DISC button on the center pedestal

258
Q

What controls the Yaw Damper?

A

The FCC (Flight Control Computer)

259
Q

Is it necessary to disconnect the Yaw Damper on landing?

A

No

260
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electrically

261
Q

How many flap segments does the CRJ have?

A

4 total, 2 on each wing

262
Q

Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?

A

Yes, if the flap segments differ by more than 5 degrees the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position

263
Q

How is STAB TRIM operated?

A

Electrically. A split switch on the control yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence

264
Q

What systems can operate the STAB TRIM?

A

CAs trim switches
FOs trim switches
Autopilot and Mach Trim

265
Q

What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?

A

CA
FO
Autopilot
MACH trim

266
Q

How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?

A

Mechanical up and down locks

267
Q

How is the nose gear held in the up and down position?

A

Over center mechanism

268
Q

Do the forward nose gear doors remain open after a normal extension?

A

Yes

269
Q

How are the nose gear doors actuated?

A

Mechanically

270
Q

What is the purpose of the brushes on the main wheel wells?

A

Aerodynamic seals

271
Q

Where do you look to determine the position of the landing gear?

A

EICAS primary page

272
Q

Which component monitors the position of up locks, down locks, and gear door position and WOW sensors?

A

PSEU

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit

273
Q

Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the UP position on the ground?

A

Down lock solenoid

274
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?

A

Hydraulic System # 3

275
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?

A

System # 2

276
Q

When does the Anti-Skid Operate?

A

Wheel spin up equal to or more than 35 knots or weight on wheels plus 5 seconds

277
Q

What is the nose wheel steering degree of travel limits with nose wheel steering on?

A

8 degrees either side of center for rudder pedals, 80 degrees either side of center for tiller

278
Q

At what speed does anti-skid control stop operating?

A

Wheel speed is less than or equal to 10 knots

Mesa Airlines Training (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions