Unit VI Flashcards

1
Q

Network of cells, tissues, organs that work together to defend body aganst attacks by foreign invaders

A

immune system

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2
Q

altered adverse reactoin to foreign substance that doesnt normally cause reaction

A

allergy

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3
Q

genetic trait predisposing for localized anaphylaxis

A

atopy

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4
Q

substance that induces formation of antibodies when introduced into body

A

antigen

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5
Q

most antigens are composed of

A

protein

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6
Q

what are the four ways antigens can enter the body

A

ingestion, inhalation, injection, absorption

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7
Q

substance synthesized by B lymphocytes in response to presence of specfic antigen

A

antibody

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8
Q

antibodies are a class of proteins known as

A

immunogloblins

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9
Q

where are lymphocytes produced

A

bone marrow

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10
Q

B lymphocytes are found in the

A

bone marrow & produce antibodies

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11
Q

t lymphocytes move from where

A

bone marrow to thymus

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12
Q

Humoral immunity

A

is extracellular body fluid

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13
Q

primary immune response is noted when

A

4-8 days after initial exposure to antigen

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14
Q

can cross the placenta, provides newborn with passive immunity for at least 3 months

A

IgG

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15
Q

first type of antibody formed, primary immune response (can kill bacteria)

A

IgM

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16
Q

protects against infection in intestines & respiratory tract, lines mucus membranes

A

IgA

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17
Q

assist in differentiation of B lymphocytes

A

IgD

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18
Q

causes symptoms of allergic reations

A

IgE

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19
Q

loss of hair

A

alopecia

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20
Q

an abnormal or allergiv reaction to an antigen antibody formation

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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21
Q

the body fails to recoginze self-proteins and reacts against its own proteins

A

autoimmune disease

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22
Q

loss of appetite

A

anorexia

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23
Q

a medicine that prevents or controls vomiting or nausea

A

antiemetic

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24
Q

a drug that kills or blocks the growth and or spread of cancer cells

A

antineoplastic (chemo)

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25
Q

an abnormal growth of tissue which does not spread from one body part to another

A

benign tumor

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26
Q

the cutting out of a small piece of tissue for microscopic examination

A

biopsy

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27
Q

what is the only way to diagnois cancer

A

biopsy

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28
Q

a disease in which abnormal or malignant cells grow out of conrtol and usually spread to other parts of the body

A

cancer

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29
Q

a small cancer that has not spread and is located on the surgace of a tissue

A

cancer in situ

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30
Q

a substance or agent which causes cancer

A

carcinogen

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31
Q

a kind of cancer which originates in the skin or membranes lining the interior of hollow organs, such as the lungs & intestines etc

A

carcinoma

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32
Q

chemo used in conjuction with surgery, radiation or both to destroy cancer cells

A

adjuvant chemotherapy

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33
Q

simultaneous use of several drugs

A

combination chemotherapy

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34
Q

a science which studies cells under the microscope

A

cytology

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35
Q

an accumulation of fluid or semisolid material within a sac in the body

A

cyst

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36
Q

a chemical test to detect blood in the stool

A

guaiac test

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37
Q

tissue examined under the microscope

A

histology

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38
Q

artificial stimulation of the body’s immune mechanism to treat or combat disease

A

immunotherapy

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39
Q

the use of x-rays for treating disease

A

irradiation

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40
Q

an abnormal change in body tissue or organ due to a disease or injury

A

lesion

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41
Q

a tumor made up of cancer cells

A

malignant tumor

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42
Q

cancer of pigment forming cells usualy of the skin

A

melanoma

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43
Q

to spread from the original site

A

metastasize

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44
Q

a new and abnormal growth of tissue or cells, a tumor

A

neoplasm

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45
Q

a type of neoplasm which does not invade or destory nearby tissues

A

non-invasive

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46
Q

th study of cancerand treatment of malignant disease

A

oncology

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47
Q

a benign tumor of bone

A

osteoma

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48
Q

treatment that relieves pain and symptoms of disease but which does not cure the disease

A

palliative treatment

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49
Q

an overgrowth of tissue projecting into a body cavity

A

polyp

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50
Q

the use of radiation for treatment of disease

A

radiotherapy

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51
Q

complete or partial disappearance of a disease

A

remission

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52
Q

a malignant tumor of muscles and or connective tissues

A

sarcoma

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53
Q

an abnormal swelling or enlargement of cells or tissues

A

tumor

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54
Q

what is the goal of treatment of cancer

A

cure, control & palliation

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55
Q

surgery where a biopsy, used to confirm or rule out the diagnosis of cancer

A

diagnostic surgery

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56
Q

what surgery is the goal to remove the entire tumor with minimal functional and structural destruction. Tumor and lymph nodes are removed

A

radiacal surgery

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57
Q

a surgery that is preventitive, where lisions are removed early while they are non malignant or cause harm

A

prophylactic surgery

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58
Q

surgery for the relief of pain, obstruction, hemmorrhage and comfort measures

A

palliative surgery

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59
Q

surgery for insertion of therapeutic devices

A

supportive surgery

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60
Q

surgery used to assist with body image, improving function, anatomical defect or cosmetic apperance

A

reconstructive surgery

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61
Q

uses high energy ionizing radiation to kill/destroy cancer cells (break one or both strands of DNA)

A

radiation therapy

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62
Q

debulk

A

take away excess

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63
Q

radioactive isotops that are used for tempoary or permenant implants

A

internal radiation (brachytherapy)

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64
Q

what is importnat to remember with internal implants

A

priciples of time(minimize exposure), distance (maximize distance from source) & shielding (decrease exposure, lead shield)

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65
Q

Side effects of radiation

A

fatigue, skin changes, anorezia and other site specific side effects

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66
Q

desquamation

A

peeling of the skin

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67
Q

how long will it take after the last radiation treatment will it take for a pt to feel better bc of cummalitive effect

A

4-6 weeks

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68
Q

nurtrionally what does someone with radiation need to do

A

increase calories & proteins and have small frequent meals

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69
Q

treatment of cancer with chemicals

A

chemotherapy

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70
Q

cytoxic

A

kills cells

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71
Q

what cells does chemo affect

A

all cells cancer and normal cells

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72
Q

routes of chemo

A

oral, im, iv, intracavity, sub q, topical, intraarterial etc

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73
Q

work together and are more effective against CA cells

A

synergistic effect

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74
Q

in conjunction with surgery or radiation or both with the ultimate goal to kill cancer

A

adjuvant

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75
Q

a chemotherapeutic agent capable of causing or forming a blister &/or tissue destruction

A

vesicant

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76
Q

a chemotherapeutic agent capable of producing venous pain at the IV site & along the vein with or without an inflammaroty reaction

A

irritant

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77
Q

who can give chemo

A

only a specially trained RN

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78
Q

infiltration (leakage) of a drug into surrounding tissue, vesicants cause pain & tissue necrosis

A

extravasation

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79
Q

Inflammation of mouth

A

stomatitis

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80
Q

what is the most serious side effect of chemotherapy

A

bone marrow depression

low platelets, WBC & RBC count

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81
Q

what nursing measures should you do with chemo

A

increase fluids, I & O, oral care, decrease odors in room, aseptic techniques, food lukewarm, assess labs (CBC, H&H, WBC, RBC)

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82
Q

in chemo trials how many ppl are tested in phase 1, 2, 3

A

20-80
100-300
1000-3000

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83
Q

attempt to stimulate a persons own immune system to fight cancer cells

A

immunotherapy

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84
Q

natural substances produced in small amts by the body’s immune system

A

BRM, biological response modifiers

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85
Q

interferes with viral replication, increases natural killer cell activity

A

interferon

86
Q

what regulates the production, maturation & function of blood cells (hematopoiesis)

A

colony stimulating factors (CSF)

87
Q

when your WBC counts are at its lowest 10-17 days after chemo has been given

A

nadir

88
Q

activiates antitumor cells which attack the tumor

A

IL 2

89
Q

are 2nd malignancies usually resistant to therapy?

A

yes

90
Q

uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells

A

cancer

91
Q

incidence

A

new cases

92
Q

morbidity

A

illness rate

93
Q

mortality

A

death rate

94
Q

what is highest cancer overall

A

lung

95
Q

what is the highest % of cancer in men

A

prostate

96
Q

what is the highest % of cancer in women

A

breast

97
Q

what carcinogens can effect cancer

A

chemicals, diet, radiation, drugs

98
Q

resting phase of the cell cycle

A

G0

99
Q

RNA & protein synthesis phase of the cell cycle

A

G1

100
Q

DNA synthesis phase of the cell cycle

A

S

101
Q

additional RNA & DNA synthesisphase of the cell cycle

A

G2

102
Q

mitosis-cell division phase of the cell cycle

A

M

103
Q

what phase do cancer cells not go in

A

G0

104
Q

cells with recognizable specialized structures and functions

A

differentiated

105
Q

cells which have lost their capactiy for specialized functions

A

undifferenctiated

106
Q

causes a cell to mutate

A

carcinogen

107
Q

malignant, irreversible change of cells which regress to more primitive level (fetal)

A

anaplasia

108
Q

benign change of cells resulting from chromic irritation -may reverse or progress to cancer

A

dysplasia

109
Q

reversible, benign change of adults cells from one type to another

A

metaplasia

110
Q

abnormal increase in # of cells, increased tissue mass

A

hyperplasia

111
Q

process by which neoplasms are produced, new growths

A

oncogenesis

112
Q

in the development of cancer, when something happens to the cell to make it change, usually when exposed to a carcinagen

A

initiation

113
Q

in the development of cancer, increase progression of cell growth, immune system doesnt know its there

A

promotion

114
Q

in the development of cancer, increase of cell growth to allow cell mass to continue, usually where tumors are detected

A

progression

115
Q

what is the role of the immone system

A

to reject or destroy cancer cells if perceived as nonself

116
Q

cancer cells evade immune system

A

escape mechanisms

117
Q

does not invade, localized

A

benign

118
Q

will matastasize, immature cells, dont go into resting phase

A

malignant

119
Q

oma

A

tumor malignant

120
Q

Grade I cancer

A

well differentiated, no change in apperance

121
Q

Grade II cancer

A

moderately differentiaed, moderate change

122
Q

Grade III cancer

A

poorly differentiated, very abnormal

123
Q

Grade IV cancer

A

undifferentiated, lost all normal cellular charcteristics

124
Q

describes the extent of the disease, not looking at cell apperance

A

Staging of cancer Stage 0( cancer in situ) -Stage IV (mesastasis)

125
Q

TNM classification

A

T-tumor size
N-lymph nodes involved
M-metastasis

126
Q

calignant cells detach from parent tissue & migrate; spread of cancer cells

A

metastasis

127
Q

when cancer grows into surrounding tissue (local spread)

A

direct extension

128
Q

break off from original tumor and seed to grow in other organs

A

seeding

129
Q

spread from blood system

A

hematogenous spread

130
Q

seven warnings of cancer

A
C-change in bowel or bladder habits
A-a sore that doesnt heal
U-unusal bleeding or discharge
T-thickening or lump
I-indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O-obvious change in wart or mole
N-Nagging cough or hoarseness
131
Q

primary prevention

A

general wellness promotion

132
Q

secondary prevention

A

screening (early diagnosis & treatment)

133
Q

tertiary prevention

A

assist to highest level of wellness

rehab

134
Q

characterized by fat, muscle depletion

A

malnutrition

135
Q

infection throughout bloodstream

A

sepsis

136
Q

obstruction of vena cava by tumor

A

superior vena cava syndrome

137
Q

shifting of fluid from vascular space to interstital space

A

third space syndrom

138
Q

when is tumor lysis syndrome seen

A

1 week after chemo, results from rapid destruction of tumor cells leads to acute renal failure

139
Q

fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac

A

cardiac tamponade

140
Q

what is the goal of the psychological aspects of cancer

A

to meet the daily physical and psychological needs of the cancer pt

141
Q

patients may exhibit what behaviors when coping with fears & diagnosis

A

shock, denile, anger, bargaining, depression, helplessness, hopelessness

142
Q

those who have overcome and been cured of their cancer

A

suviorship

143
Q

complex metabolic problem in advanced cancer pts, lassified by anorexia, altered taste & smell, dry mouth

A

cachexia

144
Q

hepatomegaly

A

enlarged liver

145
Q

what does a cancer pt need in thier diet

A

high protein & high calories

146
Q

proteins

A

rebuilds tissue

147
Q

calories

A

energy & maintence of cells

148
Q

source of protein

A

animal product (meat, fish, eggs milk, cheese), legumes, nuts, beans

149
Q

analgesic drug therapy for mild pain

A

non opiod analgesics, NSAIDS, adjuvant meds

tylenol, ibuprofen

150
Q

analgesic drug therapy for moderate pain

A

mild opiod analgesics, adjuvant meds

darvocet, percocet

151
Q

analgesic drug therapy for severe pain

A

strong opiod analgesics, adjuvant meds

morphine

152
Q

what is a contrainication for bone cancer

A

massage

153
Q

psychological dependence, opiods used for uuphoria

A

addiction

154
Q

occurs when a lager dose of opiod is required to maintain the same level of analgesia for the same level of pain

A

tolerance

155
Q

stage 1 in family crisis

A

living with cancer, family informed of cancer diagnosis

156
Q

stage 2 in family crisis

A

restructuring during the living-dying interval

157
Q

stage 3 in family crisis

A

bereavement

before, during and after death

158
Q

stage 4 in family crisis

A

reestablishment, completes the grieving process

159
Q

an organized institution designed to provide palliative & supportive care to terminally ill patient and their families

A

hospice

160
Q

what is the number one complaint of cancer patients

A

fatigue

161
Q

pain where body part has been removed

A

phantom pain

162
Q

what are causes of bone marrow suppression

A

cancer, chemo, radiation, combination

163
Q

low hemoglobin

A

anemia, 120 days after chemo

164
Q

low platelets

A

thrombocytopenia, 7-10 days after chemo

165
Q

low white blood cells

A

leukopenia or neutropenia, 7-10 days after chemo

166
Q

all blood counts are low

A

pancytopenia

167
Q

what turns on bone marrow to produce cells quicker

A

colony stimulating factors

168
Q

when is a chemo pt most at risk for infection?

A

7-10 days after chemo

169
Q

all cells start as ?

A

stem cells or hemocytoblasts

170
Q

signs and symptoms of anemia

A

cool, clammy pale skin, decrease b/p, high RR, high HR, fatigue, SOB

171
Q

protect patient with reduced immunity

A

neutropenic precautions

172
Q

mucositis

A

inflammation of mucus membrane

173
Q

esophagitis

A

inflammation of esophagus, hard to swallow

174
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

enlargement of heart

175
Q

CHF

A

fluid back up in to heart

176
Q

symptoms caused by damage to peripheral nerves

A

peripheral neuropathy

177
Q

chemo brain

A

side effect of chemo, memory lapse, trouble concentrating, clower thinking process

178
Q

build up of lymoh fluid in tissue causes edema

A

lymphedema

179
Q

when does hair loss start after chemo

A

about 21 days after treatment

180
Q

regardless of treatment type, cancer ________ affects a persons physical and psychological functioning

A

ALWAYS

181
Q

RBC

A

transport O2, lasts 120 days

182
Q

WBC

A

fight infection, lasts from hours to 7 days

183
Q

platelets

A

clotting, lasts 7 days

184
Q

kills immature blood cells forming in bone marrow

A

chemotherapy (systemic)

185
Q

kills immature blood cells forming in bone marrow

A

radiation (localized)

186
Q

how many people are living with HIV in the US

A

1.4 million

187
Q

emphasis on primary health care and support services that enhance access to and retention in care

A

ryan white HIV

188
Q

75% of HUV is transmitted by

A

sex

189
Q

every _____minutes, someone in the US is infected with HIV

A

9 & 1/2 minutes

190
Q

In a PPD test, a pt with HIV will have positive test what size will the wheal be

A

5 mm

191
Q

how is HIV transmitted

A

infected blood and blood products
sexual contact
maternal/child

192
Q

number of viral (HIV) particles in 15 mLof blood

A

viral load

193
Q

who is at highest risk for HIV

A

women & children

194
Q

three enzymes in the HIV life cycle

A

reverse transcriptse
integrase
protease

195
Q

primary HIV infection

A

5 weeks

196
Q

what is the normal range for the CD4 test

A

500-1450 cells/mm3

197
Q

signs and symptoms of HIV

A

shingles, neuropathy, thrush, HPV, herpes

198
Q

fat redistrubution may be caused by some HIV infections

A

lipodystrophy

199
Q

does pregnancy accelerate HUV

A

NO

200
Q

do more americans die from hepatitis or HIV

A

Hepatitis

201
Q

help with lower income individuals under 65 will have access to federal tax credits to purchase private insurance coverage

A

the affordable care act

202
Q

adults and children in the world with HIV

A

34.2 million people

203
Q

What are the three functions of the immune system

A

Defense
Homeostasis
Surveillance

204
Q

Organs of the immune system

A
Tonsils
Thymus
Bone marrow
Spleen
Lymph nodes
205
Q

What is the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction

A

Epi (adrenalin)

206
Q

How much and how often would you give epi

A

Mild symptoms
1:1000 (0.3-0.5ml) sub q or IM q10-15 min
Severe symptoms
1:10000 (3-5ml) IV q5-10 min

207
Q

If a person is having an anaphylaxis reaction what do you do?

A
Epi
High flow O2
Recumbent position
Keep pt warm
Maintain b/p
Benadryl
208
Q

Involves deposited of antigen-antibody complexes in blood vessel walls of skin, joints, in renal glomeruli

A

Serum sickness

209
Q

What is the nursing goal of a pt who has advanced cancer

A

Assist with achievement of a healthy death

210
Q

Progressing to cachexia contributes to the morbidity & mortality of cancer patients

A

Malnutrition

211
Q

What is most affected by chemo/radiation

A

Rapidly dividing immature cells