Unit 4: hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions are___ immune reactions that cause tissue damage.

A

adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypersensitivity Reactions: A state of excessive antigen driven adaptive immune reactivity with a ___ rather than a ___ outcome. Leads to inflammation & tissue damage

A

deleterious

protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ab dependent effector mechanism for ___ reaction

A

1,2,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ab independent effector reaction for ___ reaction

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hypersensitivity reaction can be categorized as:

A

Effector mechanism - Ab dependent (I, II, III) vs. Ab
independent (IV)

Time of onset - Immediate to days

Isotype involved - IgE vs. IgG

Is antibody bound to cell surfaces or. soluble antigens

T cells are primary mediators (Type IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

atopic dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

bee sting is a ___

A

type 1 hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

arthus reaction

A

type III hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

poison ivy

A

type 4 hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type 1 mechanism, onset and antigen

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

type 2 mechanism, antigen, onset

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type 3 mechanism, antigen, onset

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

type 4 mechanism, antigen onset

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anaphylaxis, Atopic disease

A

type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

immediate hypersensitivity are referred to as ___

A

allergies

type 1 hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___ are substances that so NOT cause any harm or trigger an immune response in 80% of the pop. These are IgE mediated

A

allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

___ are substances that trigger an immune response in 100% of the population

A

antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

type 1 HS reaction can cause what localized reactions:

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

allergic rhinitis (seasonal/hay fever). Airway obstruction in horses,
summer snuffles in Guernsey/Jersey cattle.

chronic allergic rhinitis. Dogs - (seasonal or year-round)

**allergic bronchiolitis**. Cats – low grade cough, wheezing, dyspnea –
peribronchiolar density (rads).

allergic asthma. Cats, signs similar to humans. Transient and mild
reactions (wheezing, cough) develop in summer. Can be protracted and severe (exp. dyspnea, cyanosis, lung hyperinflation).

Intestinal/food allergies. Dogs/cats – vomiting 1-2 hr after eating

atopic dermatitis – dog and others. >10% of dogs affected (terriers,
dalmations, retrievers). Often triggered by inhaled antigens. In cats,
commonly due to food allergens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

type 1 HS can cause what systemic reactions

A

A. Anaphylactic shock.

B. Urticarial reactions (hives).

C. Milk allergy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type 1 : systemic reaction: anaphylactic shock;

A

After exposure to certain vaccines, drugs, food, insects
bites. Response takes seconds to minutes.

**Lungs are primary targets** in domestic species, but also portal
mesenteric vasculature (except dogs are reverse).

Local or systemic (restlessness, excitement, pruritis, facial edema,
lacrimation, vomiting, diarrhea, dyspnea, cyanosis, shock, collapse,
convulsions, death.

Dogs: Liver is major target, portal hypertension, visceral blood pooling -GI vs respiratory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in dogs what does anaphylactic shock look like?

A

Anaphylactic shock. After exposure to certain vaccines, drugs, food, insects bites. Response takes seconds to minutes.

Dogs: Liver is major target, portal hypertension, visceral blood pooling - GI vs respiratory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Urticarial reactions

A

systemic reaction to type 1 HS

Edematous plaques in skin, lips, conjunctiva, facial skin (more severe) due to vaccines, drugs, foods, insect bites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

milk allergy

A

systemic reaction to Type 1 HS

Cows (+/- mares). Anti-milk casein IgE autoantibodies. Increased intramammary pressure pushes milk proteins into circulation (local or systemic, milking leads to recovery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mechanism for type 1 HS

A

Sensitization phase: TH2 cell secrete IL4 and IL13 that turn B cell from IgM to IgE memory and plasma cells. Plasma cells produce allergen specific IgE

Activation phase allergen specific IgE will bind to mast cells at Fc receptor,

Effector phase: allergen binds to IgE on mast cell surface. this will cause release of granules that leads to anaphylactic response- (histamine, heparin and protease release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are some common IgE mediated allergic reactions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

___: Antigens capable of stimulating Type I reactions. In industrialized countries, IgE responses to ___ predominate

A

innocuous antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The majority of humans mount significant IgE responses only
to ___

A

parasitic infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most allergic IgE responses occur on mucous membrane
surfaces in response to allergens that enter the body by
___

A

inhalation or ingestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Atopic allergy

A

atopy

pertains to (inherited) clinical manifestations of type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens

20%

runs in families- genetic link?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hygiene hypothesis

A

Less hygienic environments help to protect against atopy (developing allergy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

air pollution and low fiber diets lead to ____

A

increased allergies

predisposition to develop allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TSLP

A

Produced by epithelial cells, especially in the lung in
response the certain allergens such as mite proteases

Produced by basophils and mast cells

Production can be upregulated by IL-4

Prompts dendritic cells to activate Th2 type responses → type 1 HS response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Allergen induced TSLP production by epithelial cells, mast cells, or basophils promotes DC maturation & ___

A

Th2 responses (type 1 HS response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Basophils (IL-4 and TSLP producers) act as ___ to promote Th2 responses

A

APCs

Th2→ type 1 HS response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

certain allergens directly cross link FcR on mast cells leading to __ release

A

IL-4

Will switch immature B to mature B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TSLP will cause ___ to help with the class switch of B cells with the help of ___ made by ___ cells

A

DC cells

IL4, TH2

(type 1 HS- will produce IgE cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

mast cells release:

A

preformed/primary mediators: histamine, proteases, chemotactic factor (ECF, NCF)

newly synthesized/ secondary mediators: PAF, leukotrienes (B4, C4, D4) and prostaglandin (D2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

immediate vs late phase reaction of Type 1 HS reaction

A

antigen binds to TH2 which will release IL-4 and cause B cell switch to IgE B cell will produce IgE antibody which bind to Fc receptor on Mast cell

new antigen will bind to the IgE Fc recptor on the mast cell and cause release of primary and secondary mediators

39
Q

late phase of type 1 HS will cause the accumulation of __

A

Eosinophils • Neutrophils • Basophils • Lymphocytes & macrophages

40
Q

Eosinophils

A

Express a low affinity receptor for IgE, as well as Fc receptors
for IgG. Therefore, both IgE and IgG bound antigen can bind
to eosinophils leading to their activation.

Activated by:
• Leukotrienes • Platelet-Activating Factor • Major Basic Protein (MBP) • Eosinophil cationic protein

41
Q

Key features of Allergens

A

allergens are antigens capable of causing allergic reaction

Proteins or glycoproteins
• Often enzymatically active
• May have non-enzymatic biological activity
• Often exposure is to very low doses
• Often exposure is via the mucosa
• Often low molecular weight
• Often with high solubility

42
Q

What makes an antigen an allergen?

A

Triggering an allergic response requires IL-4/IL-13 producing Th2 cells to initiate B cells to class switch to IgE which will bind to Fc on mast cell

43
Q

Pollen from birch trees contains an allergen that structurally and functionally resembles PGE 2 and can inhibit __-production by DCs to promote __ cell differentiation

A

IL-12

Th2

44
Q

Certain peanut allergens can cross link IgE on ___ while others have been shown to bind to DC- SIGN and stimulate ___development

A

mast cells

Th2

45
Q

how to diagnosis type 1 HS

A

skin test

RAST test: radioallergosorbent test: Determine the serum levels
of total IgE (RIST) or serum IgE specific for an allergen (RAST)

46
Q

anaphylaxis causes

A

Difficulty breathing

Asphyxiation due to constriction of smooth muscles around the bronchi of the lung (H1).

Drop in blood pressure, due to blood leaking into tissue (edema) spaces due to increased permeability of blood vessels (H2).

Death is a possibility

47
Q

major organ effected by anaphylaxis in ruminants, horse, swine, cat and humans

A

respiratory tract (type 1 )

48
Q

what is the major organ effected by anaphylaxis in dogs

A

Primarily hepatic veins. Dogs show initial excitement followed by vomiting, defecation and urination. Progressive with muscular weakness, depressed respiration, become comatose, convulse and die within an hour.

49
Q

how to treat anaphylaxis

A

in severe case: epinephrine, corticosteroids, atropine and/or aminophylline

in mild case: antihistamine and steroids

50
Q

type 2 HS responses involving ___antibodies. This
effector arm of the immune response normally participates in protective immunity to infection. However, Abs occasionally react with noninfectious antigens to trigger acute or chronic hypersensitivity reactions.

A

IgG

51
Q

Antibodies against extrinsic antigens are normally ___

A

ok

52
Q

Antibodies against intrinsic antigens are normally__

A

NOT ok

53
Q

Type 2 HS cause AB to bind to blood cells causing

A

destruction of red blood cells (hemolytic anemia) or platelets (thrombocytopenia).

54
Q

In type 2, Certain drugs (___) bind non-specifically to cell surfaces and trigger Ab production and cell destruction.

A

i.e., penicillin, sulfas

55
Q

in type 2, Antibodies can be generated against cell receptors (___) to extracellular matrix molecules (___) and skin proteins (___.)
Not common but very serious.

A

TSHR, AcHR

Goodpasture’s syndrome

Pemphigus

56
Q
A

example of type 2 HS

immune mediated disease

57
Q

mechanism of type 2 HS

A

IgG driven

  1. Complement mediated target cell lysis - MAC complex lyses
    cell.
  2. Antibody mediated opsonization promotes Fc receptor
    dependent phagocytosis by macrophages.
  3. Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC).
    Complement fragments (C3a/C5a) attract neutrophils, which
    undergo Fc receptor mediated activation. Activated
    neutrophils release ROS and other cytotoxic molecules.
  4. Lysis and apoptosis via NK cells via Fc receptor activation.
    Perforin release causes cell lysis and granzymes trigger target
    cell apoptosis.
  5. Target cell dysfunction – Antibodies block or activate receptor
    targets.
58
Q

__mediated target cell lysis - MAC complex lyses
cell

A

Complement

(type 2 HS)

59
Q

Antibody mediated ___ promotes Fc receptor dependent phagocytosis by macrophages.

A

opsonization

(Type 2 HS)

60
Q

___ : Complement fragments (C3a/C5a) attract neutrophils, which
undergo Fc receptor mediated activation. Activated
neutrophils release ROS and other cytotoxic molecules.

A

Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC).

type 2 HS

61
Q

___ via Fc receptor activation. Perforin release causes cell lysis and granzymes trigger target cell apoptosis.

A

Lysis and apoptosis via NK cells

(type 2 HS)

62
Q

___: Antibodies block or activate receptor targets.

A

Target cell dysfunction

(type 2 HS)

63
Q

Antibody and Complement-dependent responses

A

Type 2 HS response → killing normal tissue

a. Antibody binds to target cell Ag, triggers classical C activation and
formation of a membrane attack complex (MAC) and cell lysis.

b. Antibody opsonizes(surrounds) the target cell and triggers phagocytosis by macrophages.

Examples: AIHA, Erythoblastosis fetalis, Goodpasture’s disease, transfusion reactions

64
Q

Rh reaction

A

mom is RH-, fetus in +

mom gives antibodies to child by colostrum or placenta, which include anti RH

this will cause fetus to attack itself

prevent by giving rhogam

(hemolytic disease- erythroblastosis fetalis)

type 2 HS response

65
Q

what happens with mix matched blood type

A

type 2 HS reaction

first time usually okay, second exposure will result in severe reaction

66
Q

hemolytic disease in newborns

A

type 2 HS reaction

HDN in the foal is not uncommon. (0.05 to 2%), in mules even more common (8-10%)

  • The foal inherits a RC antigen from sire not present in mother.
  • The mare is sensitized to the antigen due to transplacental hemorrhage in late gestation
  • Foal ingests colostrum containing high titer alloantibodies to its RBCs.

• Antibodies in mare do not cross the placenta. Therefore, foals are born healthy and sicken several hours after suckling.

67
Q

How to test for Type 2 HS

A

look for antibodies to normal tissues

detection of circulating antibody against the tissues involved, presence of antibody and complement in the lesion (biopsy) by IF. The staining pattern is normally smooth and linear, such as that seen below in a case of Goodpasture’s* nephritis (renal and lung basement membrane).

Goodpasture’s: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody disease

68
Q

___: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody disease

A

Goodpasture’s (type 2 HS)

69
Q

Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

A

(Type 2 HS response)

Ab bound cells are targeted through Fc receptors on:

Macrophages • NK cells • Eosinophils • Neutrophils

Examples:

  • Drug induced hemolytic anemia
  • Drug induced thrombocytopenia
  • Drug induced neutropenia
  • Transplant rejection
70
Q

Pemphigus foliaceus

A

type 2 HS in skin (Autoantibodies generated against intracellular cement proteins in the epidermis)

dogs > cats > horses

Erosions, ulcerations, & thick encrustations of the skin and mucocutaneous junctions.

Auto-Abs to IC cement (desmoglein)

Degradation and separation of the cornified and uncornified cell layers.

71
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

type 2 HS in skin (Autoantibodies generated against intracellular cement proteins in the epidermis)

Less common than p. foliaceus.

Vesicles form along the mucocutaneous junctions of the mouth, anus, prepuce, and vulva, and in the oral cavity.

Other areas of the skin are only mildly involved.

72
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

type 2 HS in skin (Autoantibodies generated against intracellular cement proteins in the epidermis)

Rare canine skin disease often in Collies and Doberman Pinschers.

Lesions are often widespread but tend to be concentrated in the groin.

Involved skin resembles a severe scald

73
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

type 2 HS → cause target cell dysfunction

AcH Receptor destruction → disrupts neural transmission → flaccid muscles

74
Q

graves disease

A

type 2 HS → target cell dysfunction

Anti-TSHR antibodies cause increased T3/T4

75
Q

Type 3 HS

A

Immune Complex Disease: Mediated by antibodies to soluble antigens in circulation and the formation of poorly catabolized immune complexes

Local response: Arthus reaction refers to a localized reaction

**Systemic response:** antibody- antigen immune complexes causing
systemic pathology (e.g., serum sickness).
76
Q

Arthus reaction refers to a ___ reaction

A

localized

type 3 HS

77
Q

mechanism of type 3

A

antigen/antibody complex form

there is too much and will deposit in tissues

complex will change shape and activate complement system, which will not only attack the complex but what ever it is attached to

C3a & C5a attract neutrophils/mast cells

Neutrophil activation - release of neutrophil lysosomal enzymes, leading to tissue destruction.

Increased vascular permeability

78
Q

why do type 3 HS occur

A

persistent or overwhelming infection will increase amount of immune complexes (antigen and antibody) formed

the normal system of removing extra IC, the RES (reticuloenothelial system) will get overwhelmed and excess IC will deposit in tissues

79
Q

the normal system of removing extra immune complexes

A

the RES (reticuloendothelial system)

this is what goes wrong in type 3 HS

80
Q

arthus reaction

A

type 3 HS

  1. Involves the in situ formation of antigen/antibody complexes after the
    intradermal injection of an antigen.
  2. Animal/patient has to be previously sensitized (has circulating Ab),
  3. Manifests as local vasculitis due to deposition of IgG-based immune
    complexes in dermal blood vessels.
  4. Activation of complement primarily results in cleavage of soluble
    complement proteins forming C5a and C3a
  5. C3a and C5a recruit PMNs and trigger local mast cell degranulation
    (requiring the binding of the immune complex onto FcγRIII), resulting
    in an inflammatory response)
81
Q

type 3 reaction in vessel wall create

A

hemorrhage and necrosis

82
Q

type 3 at glomerular basement membrane cause

A

loss of integrity, release of protein and RBCs into the urine, renal failure

83
Q

type 3 at joints cause

A

destruction of synovial membranes & cartilage.

84
Q

serum sickness

A

systemic type 3 response

Serum sickness (manifests 6-15 days after exposure

The administration of large amounts of “foreign” serum lead to an
immune response and generation of antibodies.

Results from administration of certain drugs (sulfas, penicillin)

The “antigen” in this case are all foreign molecules at concentrations
high enough to promote massive immune complex formation.

Case of Serum sickness

Snake venom-producing farm
Technician bit by a Egyptian cobra

Rushed to ER: IV anti-venom serum given.

Patient left the hospital 7 days later

10 days discharge, patient developed joint pain, fever, recurrent itchy hives.

Dx: “serum sickness”

85
Q

Snake venom-producing farm
Technician bit by a Egyptian cobra

Rushed to ER: IV anti-venom serum given.

Patient left the hospital 7 days later

10 days discharge, patient developed joint pain, fever, recurrent itchy hives.

what is the diagnosis?

A

serum sickness

systemic type 3 response

86
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

Immune complex deposition- complement activation, leading to
increased permeability in the glomeruli. This results in loss of plasma proteins in the urine.

Immune complexes trapped in the glomerulus fix complement. PMNs respond and destroy the glomerulus.

The clinical picture is relatively unpredictable, with some animals having IC deposition, but no clinical disease.

systemic type 3 response

87
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

ICs deposit in joints, pericardium, lungs

systemic type 3 response

88
Q

SLE

A

an AI disease that affects skin, joints, kidney – Ab’s are directed against DNA
a type 3 HS response

89
Q

Type 4 HS reaction

A
  1. Antibodies are not involved.
  2. It is a cell mediated response
  3. CD4+ T cells (TH1) and/or CD8+ T cells (CTL) drive the response, also macrophages play a key role (+/- eosinophils and neutrophils).
  4. A pathological response occurs only after previous exposure
    or sustained exposure.
  5. The pathological response is delayed, typically it takes 1-2 days to develop, thus the name ”Delayed Type Hypersensitivity” (DTH).
90
Q

two major types of type 4 HS

A

Those triggered by absorbable chemical substances - contact dermatitis

Those triggered by intercellular pathogens and in certain situations cellular antigens – granulomatous inflammation:

91
Q

: Mycobacterium (TB, leprosy) • Viruses • Fungi • Certain autoantigens can trigger a DTH reaction

A

these are intercellular pathogens that trigger type 4 reaction → granulomatous inflammation

92
Q

how do chemical substances cause type 4 HS

A

cell mediated response

will try to kill→ but unable and results in dermatitis

requires previous exposure

Cell-mediated → CD8+ CTL’s drive the response
- Chemicals are absorbed through skin & haptenize cellular proteins
- Skin cells present haptenized Ag on MHC I
- CD8+ TCR binds Ag and cells proliferate and differentiate.
- Subsequent exposure activates CD8+ memory cells.
- Perforin and granzyme release kills epidermal cells and leads to
blistering.

93
Q

how does poison ivy work

A

type 4 HS

TH1, TH17, & CD8+ T lymphocytes in contact dermatitis

Molecules such as pentadecacatechol (Urushiol) complex with skin proteins. This complex is internalized by APCs, processed and presented by MHC II to activate TH1 cells. Urushiol also haptenizes proteins in skin cells and is presented on MHC I to activate CD8+ lymphocytes.

Subsequent exposure to pentadecacatechol will activate these TH1 and cells & induce cytokine production and CTL mediated cytotoxicity

Macrophages also accumulate and release lytic enzymes

Together these actions lead to inflammation, cell damage, and blister formation

94
Q

how to detect type 4 HS

A

DTH test – Used to test for TB exposure in humans, not commonly used in Veterinary Medicine. This does not mean that Type IV reactions do not occur in animals, rather that using DTH to assess pathogen exposure in animals is unreliable.

do we have memory reaction??