Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

22 spring: immunology > test 1: questions > Flashcards

test 1: questions Flashcards

1
Q

Pattern recognition receptors recognize:

a. evolutionarily conserved microbial structural components absent from eukaryotic cells
b. peptide-MHc comPlexes
c. viral reverse transcriPtase
d. of the above

A

a. evolutionarily conserved microbial structural components absent from eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proper development of mucosal immune tissues requires:

a. eating a nutrient rich diet
b. exercise
c. microbial colonization
d. inflammation

A

c. microbial colonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The evolutionary relationship between Drosophila Toll and the mammalian Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and interleukin-1 receptors (IL-IR) is apparent from the similarity between:

a. Toll, TLRs and lL-1R all respond to the cytokine TNF
b. intracellular TlR domain is the same in Toil, TLRs, and lL-1R
c. Toll, TLRs and lL-1R have the same extracellular domain
d. is no evolutionary relationship between Drosophila Toll and the mammalian TLRs

A

b. intracellular TlR domain is the same in Toil, TLRs, and lL-1R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Toll-like receptor signaling is important for adaptive immune responses to infection because:

a. it upregulates expression of co-stimulatory molecules and cytokines by antigen presenting cells
b. it induces T cell receptor rearrangement to allow detection of specific antigens
c. it induces B cell receptor rearrangement to allow production of antigen-specific antibodies
d. it inhibtis microbial colonization

A

a. it upregulates expression of co-stimulatory molecules and cytokines by antigen presenting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between affinity and avidity when considering antibody-antigen interactions?

A

affinity = 1 fab region-> intrinsic affinity

avidity = more then one Fab region -> functional affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is FACS

A

fluorescence activated cell sorter

sort based on granularity of cell

size of cell

flourescence

add antibodies with added stain to determine if a specific cell type is in a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does complement know self

A

DAF

MCP

H and I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the three effector functions of complement

A

recruitment of inflammatory cells by anaphylatoxins

opsonization of pathogen to increase killing- phagocytosis

perforation of pathogen by MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

producer cell and effect for

IL-12

IL-5

IL21

IL10

IL17

A

12→ T cells → T cell growth factor

5 → TH2 cells → epsonophil growth factor

21 → T cell → important for TFH help for B cells

10 → T cells and macrophages → inhibit T cells and macrophages

17 → T cells → proinflammatory, increases neutrophil recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

producer cell and effect for

IL-1

IL-2

IL-4

IL-5

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

producer cell and effect for

IL-6, 7, 10, 12, 13

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

producer cell and effect for

IL-15, 17, IFN gamma, TNF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

producer cell and effect for

TGF beta, IL-21

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cross presenting

A

can take an outside antigen and present it on a MHC class 1 instead of an MHC class II

CTL response on hematopoetic APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how can MHC see so many antigens

A

anchor residues see certain motifs everything else can be different

MHC class I → only 9 amino acids

MHC class 2 → not limited by length of amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

steps of leukocyte extravastation

A

capture and rolling → selectins → sialyl lewis X

arrest and crawling CAM → integrins and chemokines to chemokine receptors

diapedesis- PECAM - PEcAM1 and CD99 and CD99 (paracellular or transcellular

migration → chemotaxis through perivascular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which selectin are expressed by endothelial cells and what do they do?

A

E-selectin

bind to sialyl lewis X on leukocyte (capture leukocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does RAG gene do?

A

enzyme that causes somatic recombination of VDJ part of the light chain of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 components of the innate immune system

A

physical barriers

enzymes (chemical barriers)

phag cells

complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antibody isotype is the most prevalent in serum and exhibits the widest diversity of functions?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The major immunoglobulin class produced after primary exposure to antigen is

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 antibody effector mechanisms

A

neutralization → make toxin not toxic to body by binding

opsonization → tag antigen to be eaten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which antibody is most likely in the gut

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which antibody plays a direct role in actue hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The innate immune response:
Select one:
a. Has immediate and induced components
b. Can distinguish between “self” and “non-self” through pattern recognition receptors
c. Directs and shapes the quality of the adaptive response
d. Is the most ancestral type of immune response
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is INCORRECT regarding cytokines:
Select one:
a. They alert the body of an infection, in part by causing fever
b. They instruct and activate the adaptive immune response
c. They communicate information among cells of the immune system to shape the immune response
d. They neutralize pathogens upon infection
e. They act both at the local and systemic levels

A

d. They neutralize pathogens upon infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Examples of essential components of the innate immune system are:
Select one:
a. Defensins, chemokines, T cells, complement
b. Complement, cytokines, phagocytes, T cell receptor
c. Complement, pattern recognition receptors, cytokines, phagocytes
d. Defensins, complement, co-stimulatory molecules, antibodies
e. B cells, cytokines, chemokines, T cells, pathogen recognition receptors

A

c. Complement, pattern recognition receptors, cytokines, phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The thymus:
Select one:
a. Grows as we age and is where B cells mature
b. It doesn’t change in size as we age and is where both B and T cells mature
c. Is a secondary lymphoid tissue that involutes as we age
d. Involutes with age and is where B cells mature
e. Is the primary lymphoid tissue where T cells mature

A

e. Is the primary lymphoid tissue where T cells mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Animals lacking innate immunity:
Select one:
a. Have delayed but efficient adaptive immunity
b. Can’t control pathogens and pathogens grow to high numbers in the infected organism
c. Nothing happens as adaptive immunity kicks in instead
d. Control pathogen growth early on, but do not clear the pathogens from the organism
e. None of the above

A

b. Can’t control pathogens and pathogens grow to high numbers in the infected organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adaptive immunity:
Select one:
a. Is non-clonal and contains identical receptors on all cells of the same lineage
b. Generates memory responses that protect against re-infection with the same pathogen
c. Is the first line of defense against infection
d. Is immediate and there is no lag time after antigen exposure
e. All of the above

A

b. Generates memory responses that protect against re-infection with the same pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of these statements is true regarding lymph nodes? They…
Select one:
A. Are encapsulated secondary lymphoid tissues connected to both the circulatory and
lymphatic systems
B. Are present in all animals from reptiles to mammals
C. Have an inverted organization in pigs compared to other mammals
D. a and c
E. b and c

A

D. a and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Toll Like Receptors (TLRs) are present in a number of different cellular compartments and activate innate immune defense in response to recognizing their ligands. Choose the correct statement that describes the logic of TLR localization
Select one:
a. plasma membrane TLRs recognize nucleic acids while endosomal TLRs recognize microbial surface structures

b. plasma membrane TLRs recognize the T cell receptor while endosomal TLRs recognize the B cell receptor
c. plasma membrane TLRs recognize microbial surface structures while endosomal TLRs recognize the B cell receptor
d. plasma membrane TLRs recognize microbial surface structures while endosomal TLRs recognize nucleic acids

none of the above

A

d. plasma membrane TLRs recognize microbial surface structures while endosomal TLRs recognize nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs) are recognized by:
Select one:
The T cell Receptor
Cytokine Receptors
The B cell Receptor
Pattern Recognition Receptors
NK cells

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Phagocytes are crucial components of innate immunity. Which of these is not a mechanism used by
phagocytes to mediate host defense?
Select one:

providing a physical barrier
production of antimicrobial peptides
engulfment of foreign particles
production of reactive oxygen and nitrogen species

A

providing a physical barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Systemic bacterial infection can cause a lethal pathology known as sepsis. This is due to:
Select one:
overexuberant production of innate inflammatory mediators leading to systemic edema, loss of blood volume, and organ failure

direct effects of bacterial toxins causing organ damage

excessive bacterial burdens in tissues leading to organ failure

A

overexuberant production of innate inflammatory mediators leading to systemic edema, loss of blood volume, and organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of these statements correctly describes the relationship between the innate and adaptive
immune systems?
Select one:
A. The innate immune system is the first line of defense and the adaptive immune system is only activated if the innate immune system cannot contain the pathogen

B. The innate immune system is the first line of defense and also provides instructive signals to the adaptive immune system that appropriately tailor the adaptive response to the nature of the pathogen threat

C. The innate and adaptive immune systems function separately to provide optimal immune defense

D. The adaptive immune system is the first line of defense and the innate immune system is only activated if the adaptive immune system fails to contain the pathogen

E. (A) and (B) are correct

A

E. (A) and (B) are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Macrophages produce critical inflammatory mediators to promote clearance of infection. These
inflammatory mediators act by (chose the best answer):
Select one:
increasing vascular permeability
activating the vascular endothelium
producing chemokines that recruit other cells
activating lymphocytes
all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which molecule is not involved in activation step of the classical complement pathway?
Select one:
IgG
CRP
IgM
MBL
C1

A

MBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which is not an effector functions of the complement pathway?
Select one:
Blood coagulation
Phagocytosis
Formation of MAC
Removal of soluble immune complexes
Recruitment of inflammatory cells

A

Blood coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Regulation of complement is essential to ensure host tissue is not damaged during pathogen attack. From the list below, which protein is a soluble complement regulator that is recruited to the host cell plasma membrane to inactivate C3b?
Select one:
MCP
CR1
Factor D
Factor H
C8

A

Factor H

42
Q

Which protease of the alternative pathway is structurally similar to C2?
Select one:
C1r
MASP-2
Factor D
Factor I
Factor B

A

Factor B

43
Q

The term zymogen refers to a:
Select one:

Carbohydrate recognition domain
Pathogen associated molecular pattern
Inactive enzyme
Complement control domain
Immunoglobulin subclass

A

Inactive enzyme

44
Q

Which molecule binds covalently to pathogen associated carbohydrates and proteins via a thioester
motif?
Select one:
C1
MBL
DAF
C3
C5

A

C3

45
Q

Which of these is a C3 convertase?
Select one:
C2a-C3b
C3b -Bb
C1q-C1r
C3b-Bb
CR1-iC3b

A

C3b-Bb

46
Q

If I want to differentially detect by ELISA two viral antigens that are 99% identical at the amino acid
level, I should use:
Select one:
Polyclonal antibodies that have been produced by injecting each separate viral antigen to a different rabbit

Monoclonal antibodies that recognize common epitopes on both viral antigens

Polyclonal antibodies that have been produced by injecting the two viral antigen into the same rabbit

Monoclonal antibodies that recognize the epitope responsible for the 1% difference between the two antigens

All of the above

A

Monoclonal antibodies that recognize the epitope responsible for the 1% difference between the two antigens

47
Q

When isotype switching occurs, the following region in the immunoglobulin molecule changes:
Select one:
A. The variable region of the heavy chain
B. The constant region of the heavy chain
C. The variable region of the light chain
D. Both the variable and constant region of the heavy chain
E. A and C are correct

A

B. The constant region of the heavy chain

48
Q

Where does antigen-dependent B cell clonal expansion occur?
Select one:
A. In the bone marrow
B. In lymph nodes
C. Underneath your nails
D. In the spleen
E. B and D are correct

A

E. B and D are correct

49
Q

Do B cells play other roles in addition to secreting immunoglobulins?
Select one:

Yes, certain B cell types can phagocytose large particles
Yes, they can produce several important pro-inflammatory cytokines
Yes, they can produce several important anti-inflammatory cytokines
Yes, the can present antigen to T cells
All of the above are correct

A

All of the above are correct

50
Q

IgA is an immunoglobulin:
Select one:
A. That strongly activates the complement system
B. That has a key role in fighting helminths infections
C. That is specialized in mucosal immunity
D. That is critical in triggering of allergic reactions
E. B and D are correct

A

C. That is specialized in mucosal immunity

51
Q

Why is IgE important:
Select one:
Because it plays a key role against helminth infections
Because is a really cool immunoglobulin with three different antigen binding sites
Because it is the only immunoglobulin that can activate complement
Because it is an immunoglobulin specialized in mucosal immunity
None of the above are correct

A

Because it plays a key role against helminth infections (parasitite)

52
Q

Why is negative selection of B cells an important mechanism for organismal survival?
Select one:
A. Because it gets rid of B cells that react with viruses
B. Because it selects B cell clones that recognize HIV infected cells
C. Because it allows for autoimmunity
D. Because it eliminates B cells that recognize healthy host tissue/cells
E. C and D are correct

A

D. Because it eliminates B cells that recognize healthy host tissue/cells

53
Q

Dendritic cells use germline-encoded receptors that sense pathogen or DAMPs. Pick the correct combination of receptor for each.
Select one:
TLR and MHC II
RIG-1 and FcR gamma
Lysosomal hydrolases and complement receptor 3
TLR and DEC-205
TLR and P2XR

A

TLR and DEC-205

54
Q

Important differences between immature and mature dendritic cells include: (choose the correct
combination)
Select one:
Immature DC are highly phagocytic and express low levels of TCR
Mature DC are cytotoxic and migrate to the draining LN to prime naïve T cells
Immature DC are motile cells that express lower levels of MHC II than mature DC
Mature DC are a major source of cytokines for T cell priming but immature DC are immobile
A and C

A

Immature DC are motile cells that express lower levels of MHC II than mature DC

55
Q

Dendritic cells serve as an important source of cytokines for naïve T cell polarization into mature
CD4 T helper cell subsets. The cytokines produced by DC for TH17 polarization are:
Select one:
IL-4 and IL-10
GMCSF and IL-2
IL-6 and TGF-beta
IL-12p70 and IFN-gamma
IL-1 alpha and IL-1 beta

A

IL-6 and TGF-beta

56
Q

Dendritic cells are located primarily at mucosal barrier tissue sites. Select the correct tissue site and DC population. DCs located in the ______ are called _____ and are important for sensing pathogens or antigens that affect this tissue.
Select one:

Liver, kuppfer dendritic cells
Lamina propria, intestinal dendritic cells
Epidermis, langerhans cells
Trachea, aerophilic dendritic cells
Lung, alveolar dendritic

A

Epidermis, langerhans cells

57
Q

Antigen presenting cells that express Class II take up antigen into endosomes, where the proteins are broken down into peptides. Class II gets from the ER to an endosome, which is facilitated by:
Select one:

proteins encoded within the cytoplasmic proteasome
the invariant chain
several different lysosomal proteins contained with the endosome
the transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP)
Clip, which inhibits peptides from binding to Class II in the ER

A

the invariant chain

58
Q

In order for T cells to function as effector T cells, they require exposure to antigen-presenting cells that express the peptide they recognize. Following immunization in the skin, this exposure will primarily occur in the:

Select one:
skin
muscle
lymph node
spleen
blood

A

lymph node

59
Q

Positive selection occurs in the thymus and ensures that:
Select one:

T cells can recognize self MHC
T cells express either CD4 or CD8
T cells recognize foreign antigen
T cells can recognize costimulatory molecules
T cells do not recognize self-antigen

A

T cells can recognize self MHC

60
Q

CD8 T cells have several mechanisms that can lead to lysis of target cells. Which of the following is not one of them?
Select one:

production of IFN-γ
perforin and granzyme induced killing
Fas-FasL interactions
release of lytic enzymes
production of TNF

A

production of IFN-γ

61
Q

Naïve CD4 T cells can differentiate into different types of effector T cells. What cytokine promotes increased development of Th1 cells?
Select one:

IFN-γ
IL-4
IL-12
IL-17
IL-10

A

IL-12

62
Q

What cytokine promotes the development of Treg cells?
Select one:

IL-10
IL-17
TGF-β
IL-6
IFN-γ

A

TGF-β

63
Q

CD4 T cells recognize peptides by antigen-presenting cells because the antigen-presenting cells express:
Select one:

Class I
Class II
CD80
Surface bound Ig
all of the above

A

Class II

64
Q

Cytokines act on cell surface receptors that signal cells by:
Select one:

a. phosphorylation of residues on the receptor and on STATS by JAK kinases, after which STATs dimerize and bind enhancer regions in the genes induced by the cytokines
b. internalization of the cytokine receptor, leading to JAK kinase dependent phosphorylation of STATS, which then dimerize and bind enhancer regions in the genes induced by the cytokines
c. phosphorylation of residues on the receptor and on STATS by JAK kinases, which activates NF-kβ, leading to transcription of genes induced by cytokines
d. phosphorylation of residues on the receptor, which then leads to dimerization or polymerization of the receptors, phosphorylation of STATS by JAK kinases, after which STATs dimerize and bind enhancer regions in the genes induced by the cytokines
e. all of the above

A

a. phosphorylation of residues on the receptor and on STATS by JAK kinases,
after which STATs dimerize and bind enhancer regions in the genes induced by the cytokines

65
Q

What cytokine is particularly important in promoting the recruitment of neutrophils?
Select one:

IL-17
IL-4
IL-2
IL-10
TNF

A

IL17

66
Q

Superantigens are considered dangerous because they activate many T cells, leading to uncontrolled cytokine release. Their ability to activate so many T cells is because:
Select one:

they are recognized by antibodies that bind to the T cell receptor
they are produced by bacteria in very high quantities
they can bind to both Class I and Class II and a conserved region of the T cell receptor
they bind to Class I and a conserved region of the T cell receptor
they bind to Class II and a conserved region of the T cell receptor

A

they bind to Class II and a conserved region of the T cell receptor

67
Q

In order for a CD8 T cell to kill a virus-infected cell the infected cell only needs to express:
Select one:

Class I containing peptide recognized by the T cell receptor
Class I containing peptide recognized the T cell receptor and either CD80 or CD86
CD80 or CD86
Perforin and granzyme
Class I and Class II containing a viral peptide

A

Class I containing peptide recognized by the T cell receptor

68
Q

Which of the following is true for IFN-γ?
Select one:
IFN-γ is produced by Th2 cells and promotes increased IgE responses
IFN-γ is produced by CD8 T cells and promotes increased cytolysis
IFN-γ is produced by macrophages and leads to increased killing of tumor cells
IFN-γ is produced by B cells and induced macrophage activation
IFN-γ is produced by Th1 cells and induces macrophage activation

A

IFN-γ is produced by Th1 cells and induces macrophage activation

69
Q

When T cells leave the thymus they are able to function because they:
Select one:

are MHC restricted and express CD19
have differentiated into either a Th1, Th2 or Th17 cell effector T cell
are MHC restricted and express CD80 or CD86
are MHC restricted and express a T cell receptor
all of the above

A

are MHC restricted and express a T cell receptor

70
Q

CAR-T cells are revolutionizing the treatment of some forms of cancer. These T cells are created by genetically manipulating a patient’s T cells so that they are better able to kill tumor cells. This manipulation involves:
Select one:

Modifying the cells so they constitutively produce Tumor Necosis Factor (TNF)
Modifying the cells so they express a T cell receptor (TCR) that recognizes a tumor antigen
Modifying the cells so they express an immunoglobulin that recognizes a tumor antigen
Modifying the cells so they constitutively produce anti-IL-10 antibodies
Modifying the cells so they constitutively produce IL-12

A

Modifying the cells so they express an immunoglobulin that recognizes a tumor antigen

71
Q

Which T cell subset is most likely to promote an allergic reaction?
Select one:

Th2
Treg
CD8
Th1
Th17

A

Th2

72
Q

When the T cell receptor binds to a peptide-Class II complex, it might not always induce T cell activation and proliferation. This could be due to:
Select one:

the peptide-Class Il expressing cell does not express CD28
the peptide-Class II expressing cell does not express CD80 or CD86
the T cell does not express CD80 or CD86
the T cell does not express CTLA-4
all of the above

A

the peptide-Class II expressing cell does not express CD80 or CD86

73
Q

The Major Histocompatibility Complex encodes genes for Class I and Class II, which are critical for presenting antigen to T cells. One of the reasons Class I and Class II molecules can present so many peptides is because:
Select one:

a. there are two different genes, Class I and Class II that can present peptides
b. Antigen presenting cells express costimulatory molecules that promote T cell responses
c. there are multiple alleles at each single genetic locus coding Class I and Class II genes
d. there is clonal selection of T cells following antigen presentation
e. there is random recombination of the T cell receptor

A

c. there are multiple alleles at each single genetic locus coding Class I and Class II genes

74
Q

Which cytokine listed is most associated with suppressing immune responses?
Select one:
TNF
IL-4
IL-2
IL-10
L-12

A

IL-10

75
Q
A

F

F

T

F

T

76
Q
A
77
Q
A

kill bacteria

78
Q

key features of cell surface vs endosomal localized TLRs

A
79
Q

isotype switching

A

changes only the constant region of the Ig

80
Q
A

phagocytosis and production of cytokines

81
Q

antibody neutralization

A
82
Q

___ is the main Ig in primary antibody responses

A

IgM

83
Q
A
84
Q

+ selection occurs where

A

thymic cortex

85
Q

how can T cells recognize so many peptides?

A

random recombinatio

86
Q
A
87
Q

MHC has evolved to prevent pathogen : one way:

A

several MHC molecules in each individual

88
Q

AIRE is critical for

A

negative selection in the thymus

89
Q

helminth infection

A

IL4

90
Q

vaccine for intracellylar bacterial infection, what cytokine is important

A

IL12→ Th1 i> killer

91
Q

what determines the function of CD4 T cells responding following an infection

A

innate immune response

92
Q

in order for CD8T cells to lyse, the target must :

A

express peptides recognized by the CD8 T cell

93
Q

Th17 is important for

A

enhance the neutrophil response to fungal infections

94
Q

IFN gamma is made by

A

T cells

95
Q

IFN gamma does:

A

upregulating Class II

promote IgG2a isotype

activation of macrophages

(DOES NOT PROMOTE CD4 TH17 DEVELOPLEMT)

96
Q

what cytokine supresses the immune response

A

il10

97
Q

what cytokine promotes fever

A

IL1

98
Q

what cell produce IL4

A

T cells

99
Q

IL10 is produced by

A

TH2, TH1, T reg

100
Q

CD4 T cell s differentiate into functionally distinct T cells when

A

they are exposed to different cytokines

101
Q

what happens to the T cell poop once an immune response has elimated a pathogen?

A

die, some become memory

102
Q

FHT cells are critical for the production of Ab by B cells, what set of cytokines are important?

A

IL21, IL4, IFN gamma

22 spring: immunology (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions