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LATG Practice Questions > Unit 3 and 4 Review Exam > Flashcards

Unit 3 and 4 Review Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Miconazole is what type of drug?

A

Antifungal

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2
Q

Which type of research would be particularly affected if ferrets in a study had Aleutian disease?

A

Immunological

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3
Q

If active scavenging is used, the scavenging system is connected to which part of the re breathing system?

A

Pop-off valve

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4
Q

When speaking of multimodal drug therapy, “modal” refers to different modes of:

A

action

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5
Q

What do depressed levels of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

Active viral infection

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6
Q

Which group of worms are generally elongate, cylindrical, and non-segmented?

A

Nematodes

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7
Q

What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?

A

A baceterial endotoxin

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8
Q

Leukocytes generally make up what percentage of the total blood volume?

A

1%

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9
Q

Which disease in fish can be successfully treated with repeated dilute formalin baths?

A

Ich

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10
Q

Which method is used to diagnose coccidiosis in rabbits?

A

Fecal flotation

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11
Q

What is the typical treatment for a ruminant with a severely distended, bloated abdomen

A

Surgical incision of the rumen

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12
Q

Which drug is a dissociative agent?

A

Ketamine

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13
Q

The term “slow virus” is often used to describe which organism?

A

Prion

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14
Q

Which type of virus is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A

Retrovirus

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15
Q

Which antibiotics have the potential to cause inner ear and kidney toxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides

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16
Q

For which of the following conditions are cephalosporins often used?

A

Conditions that have shown resistance to other antibiotics

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17
Q

In a study testing the effects of different types of analgesia on wound healing:1) some mice are housed closer to a refrigerator that is known to cause cages on a rack to vibrate; 2) one treatment group is composed only of female mice who weigh less than males; and 3) one investigator coding the severity of wounds over times believes that only one of the analgesia types is effective. If a significant effect is found when the data is analyzed, it could be the result of a(n):

A

nonexperimental variable.

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18
Q

Which rodent should be fasted overnight if it is to be intubated?

A

Guinea pig

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19
Q

In which species is atropine not effective to reduce salivation under anesthesia?

A

Rabbits

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20
Q

Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

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21
Q

What is the definition of virulence?

A

The degree of pathogenicity of an organism

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22
Q

Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism

A

Nematode

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23
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat infections with parasitic protozoa, such as Amoeba, Giardia, and Trichomonas?

A

Nitroimidazoles

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24
Q

Which of the following is a type of acquired immune response?

A

Antigen-mediated

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25
Q

What is an antibody titer?

A

The greatest dilution of blood sample with a positive result when exposed to the antigen

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26
Q

When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, which of the following reaches the animal’s lungs?

A

A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases

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27
Q

Which is the stage when a protozoan parasite actively multiplies?

A

Trophozoite

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28
Q

Which of the following is a type of interferon?

A

Beta

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29
Q

Toxocara canis is which type of parasite?

A

Ascarid

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30
Q

Which of the following is an example of histopathology?

A

Thin slices of tissue are fixed, stained, and examined under the microscope.

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31
Q

The presence of antibodies against a pathogen is known as:

A

seroconversion.

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32
Q

The genus of roundworms known as whipworms is a member of which group of helminths ?

A

Nematodes

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33
Q

The four processes by which a drug is handled by the body — absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion — are the focus of which discipline?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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34
Q

Which action will NOT be taken at the end of our study if the p-value of our statistical test is less than 0.05?

A

Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups.

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35
Q

Which cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?

A

Phagocytes

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36
Q

The volume of the rebreathing bag in an anesthesia system should be how many times the animal’s tidal volume?

A

4

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37
Q

Which cell lineage is affected in XID mice?

A

B cell

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38
Q

An anesthetic log should be kept for each animal. How often should vital parameters be recorded?

A

Every 10-15 minutes

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39
Q

Which factor is an advantage of barbiturate agents?

A

Time to loss of consciousness

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40
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?

A

A harsh dry cough

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41
Q

Which type of virus is orf?

A

Poxvirus

42
Q

Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?

A

Mycobacteriosis

43
Q

In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?

A

B lymphocyes

44
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?

A

IgG

45
Q

Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?

A

Poor nutrition

46
Q

Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?

A

Prions

47
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of:

A

Heart worm disease

48
Q

Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?

A

Luciferin

49
Q

What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank?

A

Weigh the tank

50
Q

What is an example of a contrast medium?

A

Gadolinium

51
Q

What makes rabbits prone to blockages caused by hairballs?

A

Small pyloric lumen

52
Q

In what technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise locations of leasions?

A

Comeputed tomography

53
Q

What disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?

A

Ich

54
Q

What drug is often combined with benzodiazepine tranquilizers to induce a dissociative state and provide pain relief and sedation?

A

Ketamine

55
Q

Pseudocapillarioides xenopi is what type of organism?

A

Nematode

56
Q

What is NOT a function of interferons?

A

Attenuation (reduction) of the immune response of surrounding cells

57
Q

Parasite of which group are generally flat, have oral suckers, and have larval forms that hatch in water?

A

Trematodes

58
Q

Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?

A

Aminoglycosides

59
Q

What cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?

A

Phagocytes

60
Q

What is the least likely to cause intestinal inflammation in mice or rats?

A

Mycoplasma spp

61
Q

Hard bloat in Xenopus is caused by what?

A

Bacterial infection

62
Q

What characteristic is TRUE about heminths?

A

They have differentiated organs

63
Q

What does an ultrasonic Doppler flow detector measure?

A

Blood pressure

64
Q

A hamster was treated with penicillin to treat an infection caused by a gram-positive organism. The animal died the morning after the treatment. What is the cause of death that you should immediately consider?

A

A toxin secreated by Clostridium difficile killed the animal.

65
Q

The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response?

A

Response

66
Q

Species from the genera Giardia are memebers of what group of protozoan parasites?

A

Flagellates

67
Q

To examine mucus scrapped from the skin of an aquatic species, what substance is used to prepare the slide?

A

Tank water

68
Q

What term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?

A

Additive

69
Q

What enzyme can be found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions and destroys bacteria?

A

Lysozyme

70
Q

What component of the innate immune system coats the surface of invading organisms to facilitate their attack by the macrophages?

A

Complement proteins

71
Q

What is the role of cytokines?

A

They transmit information about the presence of a foreign substance.

72
Q

What cells have a similar role to macrophages in presenting the antigen to other cells.

A

Dendritic cells

73
Q

The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response?

A

Response

74
Q

The major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) are found on the surface of which cells?

A

T cells

75
Q

What cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?

A

Phagocytes

76
Q

What nematode has the unique characteristic of not producing eggs?

A

Filaria

77
Q

Parasites of which group are generally flat, have oral suckers, and have larval forms that hatch in water?

A

Trematodes

78
Q

What type of drug is NOT part of heartworm treatment?

A

Antifungal

79
Q

What is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?

A

A harsh dry cough

80
Q

What is the most common sign of infection with B virus?

A

Oral lesions or ulcers

81
Q

What is the typical treatment for a ruminant with a severely distended, bloated abdomen?

A

Surgical incision of the rumen

82
Q

Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism?

A

Nematode

83
Q

What disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?

A

Gas bubble disease

84
Q

What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?

A

Microsporidiosis

85
Q

What method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?

A

Cellophane tape test

86
Q

To examine mucus scraped from the skin of an aquatic species, what substance is used to prepare the slide?

A

Tank water

87
Q

The buffy coat in the hematocrit tube can be collected and used to determine which of the following?

A

Morphology of the white blood cells

88
Q

What do high concentrations of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

Active bacterial infection

89
Q

In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?

A

Computed tomography

90
Q

What technique uses a radioisotope to provide images of in vivo biological processes?

A

Positron emission tomography

91
Q

Tamoxifen is an example of a drug whose efficacy is dependent upon which factor?

A

Time of day

92
Q

What does the term “drug spectrum” refer to?

A

The type of organisms it is effective against

93
Q

Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?

A

Aminoglycosides

94
Q

A hamster was treated with penicillin to treat an infection caused by a gram-positive organism. The animal died the morning after the treatment. What is a cause of death that you should immediately consider?

A

A toxin secreted by Clostridium difficile killed the animal.

95
Q

What term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?

A

Additive

96
Q

Yohimbine is which type of drug?

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist

97
Q

What is a serious complication associated with the use of the anesthetic tribromoethanol?

A

Intestinal ileus

98
Q

What measure is unnecessary when using an open-drop chamber to anesthetize an animal?

A

Ensure that enough oxygen is delivered to sustain the animal’s metabolic needs.

99
Q

What reflex is not a good indicator of anesthetic depth in rodents?

A

Palpebral

100
Q

In which species does the administration of morphine frequently induce vomiting and defecation?

A

Dogs

101
Q

What phrase best defines “bias” in research?

A

Influence on study data by investigators or conditions

102
Q

What action will NOT be taken at the end of our study if the p-value of our statistical test is less than 0.05?

A

Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups

LATG Practice Questions (22 decks)

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