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LATG Practice Questions > Chapter 15 Diagnostic Techniques > Flashcards

Chapter 15 Diagnostic Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

Which term means “the determination of the nature and cause of a disease, injury, or congenital defect”?

A

Diagnosis

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2
Q

Which term means “to predict the outcome of a disease”?

A

Prognosis

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3
Q

Where are endoparasites most commonly found in laboratory animals?

A

In the intestinal tract

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4
Q

What samples can be used to find endoparasites in the body?

A

Feces
Blood
Sputum

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5
Q

Which test is a quick method, though not very accurate, for detecting endoparasites?

A

Direct fecal smear

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6
Q

What signs might be an indication that an animal has ectoparasites?

A

Itching
Skin lesions
Hair loss

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7
Q

Testing with a fecal analysis kit does not require centrifugation.

A

True

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8
Q

Direct smear is the primary method used to detect protozoan parasites in an animal

A

True

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9
Q

Ectoparasites leave a dead body as it cools.

A

True

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10
Q

By which method are most endoparasites detected?

A

Fecal examination

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11
Q

Fecal flotation is used to determine if and/or are present in the sample

A

Parasite eggs; coccidial oocytes

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12
Q

Mites in fur samples are visible by eye.

A

False

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13
Q

To detect endoparasites by fecal flotation, sugar may be mixed with the fecal specimen.

A

True

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14
Q

Serological tests are used to determine the type of organisms present in a skin scraping sample.

A

False: PCR is used to determine the type of organisms present in a skin scraping sample.

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15
Q

The fecal flotation test requires a larger sample than the one needed for the direct smear.

A

True

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16
Q

An animal may need to be sedated to swab its ear to check for ear mites.

A

True

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17
Q

PCR is more sensitive than a tape test for the detection of pinworm species

A

True

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18
Q

Hematology can assist in the diagnosis of what health problems:

A

Dehydration
Infection
Anemia

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19
Q

Lymphocyctes are produced by the:

A

lymph nodes

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20
Q

A white blood cell count includes quantification for all types of white blood cells.

A

False

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21
Q

What function is served by basophils?

A

Initiation of inflammatory response.

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22
Q

Hemoglobin is the:

A

oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells

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23
Q

A hematocrit is used to determine:

A

packed cell volume

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24
Q

What best describes plasma?

A

The liquid portion of unclotted blood

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25
Q

What test provides information on blood cell morphology?

A

Peripheral blood smear

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26
Q

In most species, which type of white blood cells are most numerous?

A

Neutrophils/heterophils

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27
Q

The neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio varies among healthy animals of different species.

A

True

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28
Q

The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test used to quantify antibodies or antigens in the research laboratory.

A

True

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29
Q

Serology is testing of serum for the presence or absence of:

A

antibodies

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30
Q

What is indicated by the red top tubes usually used for serum chemistry testing?

A

Use of serum for the tests

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31
Q

Even at proper temperatures, serum samples cannot be used after 6 weeks of freezer storage.

A

False

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32
Q

In most institutions, a generic antibody test is preformed as an initial screen to quickly identify which antibodies are present in the blood.

A

False

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33
Q

Serum chemistry tests help the veterinarian determine which organ is affected in a sick animal.

A

True

34
Q

When measuring antibody titer, the lower the titer, the less antibody is present.

A

True

35
Q

Serum should be stored at -18 to 0 degrees Celsius

A

False

36
Q

Urinalysis can aid in the diagnosis of disease other than those of the urinary system.

A

True

37
Q

To examine the urinary sediments, the urine should be left undisturbed for several hours before being stained.

A

False

38
Q

Paper strips used to evaluate urine samples are known as:

A

dipsticks

39
Q

The measurement of specific gravity is expressed with no units (like mg or ml)

A

True

40
Q

The best way to obtain a sterile urine sample is to use a catheter inserted into the urethra of the animal.

A

False

41
Q

A higher urine specific gravity indicates that the urine is less concentrated.

A

False

42
Q

Why can’t viruses be co-identified with bacteria if inoculated on the same agar plate?

A

Viruses do not grow on artificial media

43
Q

Fungal diseases cannot be diagnosed by culturing a sample because they don’t grow in culture.

A

False

44
Q

Viruses can be cultured in?

A

Cell culture

45
Q

Microbial pathogens are usually identified after being inoculated into nutrient media and left to grow.

A

True

46
Q

If a sample contains both bacteria and fungi, what is true?

A

Bacteria grow faster in the culture.

47
Q

Samples obtained for microbiological analyses should be treated with antibiotics before being inoculated on nutrient media.

A

False

48
Q

Most bacteria can be identified based on their growth pattern on agar plates.

A

False

49
Q

What is the term for the examination of an animal after it’s death?

A

Necropsy

50
Q

A case history is the complete list of findings obtained during necropsy.

A

False

51
Q

An examination of the animal’s cage should be part of the development of the case history of the animal being necropsied

A

True

52
Q

To preserve tissues for further examination, what is the usual ratio of tissue to fixative used by weight?

A

1 to 20

53
Q

What items of personal protective equipment should be worn by personnel working with radiation?

A

Film badge
Thyroid shield
Lead apron and gloves
Goggles

54
Q

Contrast media are used to change the way organs are seen on a radiograph

A

True

55
Q

For a ventrodorsal view, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?

A

The ventral surface

56
Q

Thermal control is important during diagnostic imaging to prevent the introduction of artifact.

A

True

57
Q

in bioluminescence, a fluorophore is oxidized and produces a light signal.

A

False, luciferin is oxidized and produces a light signal

58
Q

Fluorescent imaging may use a genetically modified animal to express a that emits a colored light that can used to measure biological changes.

A

Fluorophore

59
Q

What imaging technique allows the observation of metabolic processes as they occur?

A

Positron emission tomography (PET)

60
Q

During magnetic resonace imaging (MRI), what happens to the hydrogen atoms after they realign with the magnetic field?

A

They emit a radiofrequency wave that is recorded as an image.

61
Q

What diagnostic imaging technique allows real time moving images to be observed?

A

Fluoroscopy

62
Q

What are some dangers when working with diagnostic imaging techniques?

A

Strong magnetic fields
Toxic contrast media
Ionizing radiation

63
Q

Thermal imaging can be affected by what factor?

A

Room temperature

64
Q

X-rays cannot penetrate the body but the electrons they produce can.

A

False

65
Q

What imaging modality uses molecules that produce a certain light wavelength when exposed to ultraviolet light?

A

Fluorescence

66
Q

Dense areas of the body absorb the most X-rays.

A

True

67
Q

Fluorescence imaging is also known as fluoroscopy.

A

False

68
Q

Infrared radiation is emitted from all objects.

A

True

69
Q

Leukocytes generally make up what percentage of the total blood volume?

A

1%

70
Q

Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?

A

Glucose

71
Q

An example of contrast medium is:

A

Gadolinium

72
Q

What does the specific gravity of urine measure?

A

Kidney’s ability to concentrate the urine

73
Q

What is a major advantage of fluoroscopy over standard radiography?

A

It takes moving pictures

74
Q

Thermographic cameras measures what sort of radiation?

A

Infrared

75
Q

Leukocytes generally make up what percent of the total blood volume?

A

1%

76
Q

Neutrophils/Heterophils

A

make up 45% to 75% of the total WBC count.

77
Q

Monocytes

A

3% to 5% of total WBC count

78
Q

Band cells

A

immature forms of neutrophils/heterophils.
Recognized by their unsegmented nucleus.
An increased number of these cells means that the body is making more neutrophils to attack an infection.

79
Q

Lymphocytes

A
  • produced by lymph nodes
  • 25% to 40%
  • A large number might indicate the presence of an acute infection or leukemia.
80
Q

Easinophils

A

2% to 5%

Large concentration of these cells indicates an allergic reaction or the presence of parasites.

81
Q

Basophils

A

1% of WBC count

-Help initiate the body’s inflammatory response

82
Q

Platelets (thrombocytes)

A
  • no nucleus

- source of clotting factors.

LATG Practice Questions (22 decks)

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