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MLS 416 Immunology and Molecular Diagnostics > Unit 2 Quiz > Flashcards

Unit 2 Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

The assembly of particles into visible clumps is called:

(a) Precipitation
(b) Agglutination
(c) Equivalence
(d) Sensitization

A

(b) Agglutination

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2
Q

The standard method for detecting antinuclear antibodies (in certain autoimmune diseases) is:

(a) direct immunofluorescence.
(b) indirect immunofluorescence.
(c) fluorescence polarization.
(d) autofluorescence.

A

(b) indirect immunofluorescence.

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3
Q

Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?

(a) A limited number of binding sites are present.
(b) The concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
(c) All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
(d) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.

A

(a) A limited number of binding sites are present.

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4
Q

When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them, this is known as:

(a) direct agglutination.
(b) passive agglutination.
(c) reverse passive agglutination.
(d) hemagglutination.

A

(b) passive agglutination.

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5
Q

Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize the reaction?

(a) IgM
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgE

A

(b) IgG

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6
Q

Pregnancy testing can be performed at home using:

(a) capture assay.
(b) immunochromatography.
(c) fluorescence polarization.
(d) chemiluminescence.

A

(b) immunochromatography.

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7
Q

An ELISA assay was performed on a patient’s serum sample. What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient analyte measured?

(a) directly proportional
(b) indirectly proportional

A

(a) directly proportional

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8
Q

The AFFINITY of antigen–antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?

(a) How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
(b) The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
(c) The number of antigens in the reaction
(d) The charge distribution on Fc

A

(a) How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab

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9
Q

Which statement about noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays is true?

(a) Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
(b) Washing in between steps is not necessary.
(c) All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
(d) Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.

A

(c) All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes homogeneous assays?

(a) A washing step is not necessary.
(b) The concentration of patient antigen is always directly proportional to the label detected.
(c) The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
(d) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.

A

(a) A washing step is not necessary.

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11
Q

The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen–antibody complexes in a solution is called:

(a) turbidimetry.
(b) nephelometry.
(c) agglutination.
(d) equivalency.

A

(b) nephelometry.

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12
Q

A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is called:

(a) latex agglutination.
(b) hemagglutination.
(c) neutralization.
(d) complement fixation.

A

(b) hemagglutination.

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13
Q

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier, the antibody is soluble, and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

(a) Precipitation
(b) Agglutination
(c) Flocculation
(d) Neutralization

A

(b) Agglutination

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14
Q

Serology is the study of:

(a) white blood cells.
(b) red blood cells.
(c) platelets.
(d) the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies.

A

(d) the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies.

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15
Q

Which assay poses the greatest risk of exposure to biohazards?

(a) Radioimmunoassay
(b) Enzyme immunoassay
(c) Fluorescence polarization
(d) Chemiluminescent immunoassays

A

(a) Radioimmunoassay

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16
Q

The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?

(a) Chemiluminescence
(b) Fluorescence
(c) Optical density
(d) Radioactivity
(e) Scatter

A

(b) Fluorescence

17
Q

What is the difference between a mutation and a polymorphism?

(a) A mutation can exist in a single person; a polymorphism must exist in at least 2% of the population.
(b) A mutation involves a single base pair; a polymorphism involves many base pairs.
(c) Mutations affect cell function; polymorphisms do not.
(d) Mutations do not change DNA structure; polymorphisms distort the helical structure.

A

(a) A mutation can exist in a single person; a polymorphism must exist in at least 2% of the population.

18
Q

Fluorescently labeled antibodies are used in flow cytometry to determine:

(a) the size of a cell.
(b) the granularity of a cell.
(c) proteins associated with a cell.
(d) the shape of the nucleus.

A

(c) proteins associated with a cell.

19
Q

Select the strand of RNA that is complementary to this single strand of DNA:
A T T A G C C G T A T

(a) T A A T C G G C A T A
(b) U A A U C G G C U A U
(c) T U U T C G G C A U A
(d) T A A T U G G U A T A

A

(b) U A A U C G G C U A U

20
Q

A ligase is an enzyme that:

(a) cleaves phosphodiester bonds.
(b) joins two DNA chains by creating hydrogen bonds.
(c) joins two DNA chains by creating a phosphodiester bond.
(d) cleaves hydrogen bonds.

A

(c) joins two DNA chains by creating a phosphodiester bond.

21
Q

As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:

(a) lymphocytes.
(b) granulocytes.
(c) monocytes.
(d) erythrocytes.

A

(a) lymphocytes.

22
Q

For a probe to hybridize to the target, which condition must be met?

(a) The target must be double-stranded.
(b) The target can only be RNA.
(c) The target must have the same bases.
(d) The target must have complementary bases.

A

(d) The target must have complementary bases.

23
Q

Steps in a Southern blot include which of the following?

(a) Ligation of DNA probes by a DNA ligase
(b) Gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane
(c) Denaturation of DNA followed by annealing of primers and bases
(d) Creation of a nick in a DNA strand followed by amplification

A

(b) Gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane

24
Q

The individual nucleotides along a single strand of DNA are held together by:

(a) phosphodiester bonds.
(b) disulfide bonds.
(c) hydrogen bonds.
(d) peptide bonds.

A

(a) phosphodiester bonds.

25
Q

A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?

(a) CD3, CD4, and CD8
(b) CD4, CD3, and CD5
(c) CD5, CD8, and CD3
(d) CD8, CD3, and CD2

A

(d) CD8, CD3, and CD2

26
Q

In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does the amount of side scatter indicate?

(a) Size of the cell
(b) Granularity of the cell
(c) Surface markers
(d) Shape of the cell

A

(b) Granularity of the cell

27
Q

Select the probe sequence that will hybridize to the following nucleic acid sequence:
C G A T A T T G T C

(a) T A G T A C A A G A
(b) C G A T A T T G T C
(c) G T C A A G A C C T
(d) G C T A T A A C A G

A

(d) G C T A T A A C A G

28
Q

A short strand of DNA or RNA used to detect an unknown nucleic acid in a patient specimen best describes a:

(a) nucleic acid probe.
(b) restriction enzyme.
(c) primer.
(d) restriction fragment length polymorphism.

A

(a) nucleic acid probe.

29
Q

In flow cytometry, fluorescence is usually used to determine:

(a) intrinsic cell parameters.
(b) extrinsic cell parameters.

A

(b) extrinsic cell parameters.

30
Q

DNA replication requires which enzymes?

(a) DNA polymerase and primase
(b) Reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase
(c) Nuclease and primase
(d) Nuclease and DNA polymerase

A

(a) DNA polymerase and primase

MLS 416 Immunology and Molecular Diagnostics (33 decks)

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