Block 3: Quizzes Flashcards
Lyme disease is caused by:
a. Treponema pallidum.
b. Borrelia recurrentis.
c. Leptospira autumnalis.
d. Borrelia burgdorferi.
d. Borrelia burgdorferi.
The Southern blot test is the specific confirmatory test for HIV infection.
a. True
b. False
b. False
A patient presents with a painless genital ulcer. The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis. In what stage of syphilis is the patient?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
a. Primary
In general, antigen detection assays in bacterial diagnosis have which of the following characteristics?
a. High associated cost
b. Rapid turnaround time
c. Complicated methods
d. Low specificity
b. Rapid turnaround time
The advantage of molecular assays in bacterial diagnosis is:
a. many methods approved by the Food and Drug Administration are available.
b. the instrumentation is not expensive.
c. the reagents and disposables are not expensive.
d. the methods are very sensitive.
d. the methods are very sensitive.
What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
a. It is difficult to perform.
b. False positives may be caused by certain viruses.
c. Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
d. It requires expensive instrumentation.
b. False positives may be caused by certain viruses.
A laboratory test that is used to confirm syphilis and detects specific treponemal antibodies is:
a. VDRL.
b. TP-PA.
c. RPR.
d. monospot.
b. TP-PA.
RPR stands for:
a. reagin plasma reactive.
b. reactive phosphate reagent.
c. rapid plasma reagin.
d. random positive reagin.
c. rapid plasma reagin.
A physician wants to know if his patient, who currently has a rash and fever, has an active rubeola virus infection. IgG against rubeola virus is detected. IgM against rubeola virus is not detected. What do these results mean?
a. The patient has a current measles infection.
b. The patient has a current chickenpox infection.
c. The patient has never had either measles or chickenpox.
d. The patient has had a previous exposure to measles, either through natural infection or vaccination.
d. The patient has had a previous exposure to measles, either through natural infection or vaccination.
The pathogenesis of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis involves:
a. deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.
b. destruction of glomeruli by streptolysin O.
c. bacterial-induced dehydration.
d. invasion of the kidneys by Streptococcus pyogenes.
a. deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.
The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes.
b. Staphylococcus aureus.
c. Epstein-Barr virus.
d. HIV.
c. Epstein-Barr virus.
A patient has a hepatitis B profile performed and is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody only. This patient:
a. was vaccinated against hepatitis B.
b. had a previous hepatitis B infection.
c. is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B.
d. has acute hepatitis B.
a. was vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Complement helps in the defense against bacterial invasion by:
a. promoting phagocytosis.
b. neutralizing bacterial toxins.
c. preventing bacteria from penetrating the skin.
d. fusing lysosomal granules to bacterial cell walls.
a. promoting phagocytosis.
A patient has detectable levels of IgG and IgM against the viral capsid antigens of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This patient has:
a. been infected with EBV in the past.
b. an infection with HIV, too.
c. a current infection with EBV.
d. never had EBV.
c. a current infection with EBV.
Which of the following peripheral blood measurements is used to determine the stage of HIV infection?
a. The number of CD4 T cells
b. The number of CD8 T cells
c. The number of HIV RNA copies
d. The HIV antibody titer
a. The number of CD4 T cells