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MLS 416 Immunology and Molecular Diagnostics > Block 2: Exams & Quizzes > Flashcards

Block 2: Exams & Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

An antigen is fixed to a microscope slide then incubated with patient serum. After washing, fluorescent labeled AHG is applied. After an additional wash the slide is inspected with a fluorescent microscope. This technique is:

a. direct immunofluorescence
b. indirect immunofluorescence
c. fluorescence polarization
d. autofluorescence

A

b. indirect immunofluorescence

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2
Q

Flow cytometry is commonly used to:

a. measure serum protein concentrations.
b. identify microbes.
c. determine the stage of leukocyte differentiation.
d. measure complement activation.

A

c. determine the stage of leukocyte differentiation.

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3
Q

What testing interference could cause a false negative result?

a. cross-reactivity
b. Postzone effect
c. Heterophile antibodies produced in the patient
d. Biotin-Sav complex

A

b. Postzone effect

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4
Q

After cells have been suspended in liquid they are transported through a channel, in clusters, where they are passed through a laser light source.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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5
Q

A clinic is investigating the addition of cost effective and convenient way to perform analysis on a commonly tested analyte where results are needed before the provider enters the exam room. Which test is most appropriate?

a. MIA
b. ELISA
c. Rapid immunoassay
d. indirect fluorescence

A

c. Rapid immunoassay

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6
Q

An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for antigen (Ag) in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known antibody (Ab) are added together and incubated. Unbound material is removed by washing. The amount of labeled antigen (Ag) is measured. What assay was performed?

a. Homogenous
b. Competitive
c. Capture
d. Precipitation

A

b. Competitive

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7
Q

Pregnancy testing can be performed at home using:

a. Immunochromatography
b. Capture assay
c. chemiluminescence
d. agglutination

A

a. Immunochromatography

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8
Q

Which is a testing interference that could cause a false-positive result?

a. Post zone effect
b. Low molecular weight analyte
c. Prozone effect
d. cross reactivity

A

d. cross reactivity

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9
Q

The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?

a. Chemiluminescence
b. Fluorescence
c. Optical density
d. Radioactivity

A

b. Fluorescence

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10
Q

Which best characterizes agglutination inhibition reactions?

a. the antigen is naturally expressed on particles
b. antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles
c. antibody is attached to particles
d. No agglutination indicates a positive result

A

d. No agglutination indicates a positive result

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11
Q

Identify the characteristic associated with noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays.

a. They are less sensitive than agglutination reactions
b. They are used when quantitation is necessary
c. Antibody is bound to the solid phase
d. Binding sites for patient antibody are limited.

A

c. Antibody is bound to the solid phase

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12
Q

An indirect ELISA assay was performed a patients serum sample. What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient antibody measured?

a. Directly proportional
b. Indirectly proportional
c. Logarithmic
d. 2-fold

A

a. Directly proportional

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13
Q

Which of the following is true of the reverse agglutination test?

a. The antigen is a natural particle
b. Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles
c. Antibody is attached to particles
d. The antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result)

A

c. Antibody is attached to particles

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14
Q

When is the enzyme-labeled antibody added in the sandwich immunoassay testing technique?

a. At the start before incubation
b. Before the addition of patient serum
c. Right after incubation
d. During the incubation stage

A

c. Right after incubation

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15
Q

To process a whole blood sample to produce serum, the sample must:

a. spun in the centrifuge immediately after drawing
b. sit a room temperature and allowed to clot before centrifugation
c. put in the freezer, allowed to clot and centrifuged
d. Put into a heat block

A

b. sit a room temperature and allowed to clot before centrifugation

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16
Q

In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does the amount of side scatter indicate?

a. Size of the cell
b. Granularity of the cell
c. Surface markers
d. Shape of the cell

A

b. Granularity of the cell

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17
Q

(Blank) is the ability of a test to yield a positive result from a patient that has that disease.

a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Positive predictive value
d. Negative predictive value

A

a. Sensitivity

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18
Q

The “sandwich” in the sandwich immunoassay testing technique is between:

a. Two reagent antibodies
b. Two reagent antigens
c. Reagent antigen and patient antibody
d. Reagent antibody and patient antigen

A

a. Two reagent antibodies

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19
Q

What is meant by “gating” in flow cytometry?

a. The chromatic arrangement of cellular populations
b. The process by which one cell population adheres to another population
c. An electronic window separating subpopulations of cells
d. An electronic device measuring all populations of cells

A

c. An electronic window separating subpopulations of cells

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20
Q

If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with Antigen A and B, this indicated that antigens A and B:

a. are identical
b. are entirely different
c. share a common epitope, A more complex
d. share a common epitope, B more complex

A

b. are entirely different

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21
Q

Compared to a heterogenous assay, a homogenous assay:

a. is more sensitive
b. requires more procedural steps
c. is less prone to analytical interferences
d. takes longer to perform

A

c. is less prone to analytical interferences

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22
Q

Which immunoglobulin is more efficient in agglutination?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA

A

b. IgM

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23
Q

An intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a flow cytometer is:

a. surface expression of CD3
b. granularity
c. RNA content
d. cytoplasmic protein content

A

b. granularity

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24
Q

In flow cytometry, fluorescence is usually used to determine:

a. intrinsic cell parameters.
b. extrinsic cell parameters.

A

b. extrinsic cell parameters.

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25
Q

In flow cytometry, forward scatter provides a measure of:

a. cell size.
b. cell granularity.
c. membrane receptor expression.

A

a. cell size.

26
Q

A single cell parameter acquired by flow cytometry is presented graphically as a:

a. histogram.
b. dot plot.
c. vector plot.
d. quadrant analysis.

A

a. histogram.

27
Q

Which of the following best describes homogenous assays?

a. A washing step is not necessary
b. The concentration of patient antigen is always directly proportional to the label detected
c. The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag
d. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts

A

a. A washing step is not necessary

28
Q

Which statement about noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays is true?

a. Binding sites for patient antigen are limited
b. Washing in between steps in not necessary
c. All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites
d. Color is indirectly proportional to the antigen concentration

A

c. All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites

29
Q

Based on the following equilibrium constant, which would have the best sensitivity?

a. K=1
b. K=2
c. K=3
d. K=9

A

d. K=9

30
Q

In immunofixation electrophoresis, the first lane detects which of the following?

a. All serum proteins
b. Alpha chains
c. Gamma chains
d. Delta chains

A

a. All serum proteins

31
Q

The assembly of particles into visible clumps is called:

a. precipitation.
b. agglutination.
c. equivalence.
d. sensitization.

A

b. agglutination.

32
Q

The standard method for detecting antinuclear antibodies (in certain autoimmune diseases) is:

a. direct immunofluorescence.
b. indirect immunofluorescence.
c. fluorescence polarization.
d. autofluorescence.

A

b. indirect immunofluorescence.

33
Q

Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?

a. A limited number of binding sites are present.
b. The concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
c. All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
d. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.

A

a. A limited number of binding sites are present.

34
Q

When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them, this is known as:

a. direct agglutination.
b. passive agglutination.
c. reverse passive agglutination.
d. hemagglutination.

A

b. passive agglutination.

35
Q

Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize the reaction?

a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgG

36
Q

Pregnancy testing can be performed at home using:

a. capture assay.
b. immunochromatography.
c. fluorescence polarization.
d. chemiluminescence.

A

b. immunochromatography.

37
Q

An ELISA assay was performed on a patient’s serum sample. What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient analyte measured?

a. Directly proportional
b. Indirectly proportional

A

a. Directly proportional

38
Q

The AFFINITY of antigen–antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?

a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
b. The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
c. The number of antigens in the reaction
d. The charge distribution on Fc

A

a. How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab

39
Q

Which statement about noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays is true?

a. Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
b. Washing in between steps is not necessary.
c. All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
d. Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.

A

c. All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.

40
Q

Which of the following best describes homogeneous assays?

a. A washing step is not necessary.
b. The concentration of patient antigen is always directly proportional to the label detected.
c. The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
d. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.

A

a. A washing step is not necessary.

41
Q

The measurement of light scattered at an angle by the antigen–antibody complexes in a solution is called:

a. turbidimetry.
b. nephelometry.
c. agglutination.
d. equivalency.

A

b. nephelometry.

42
Q

A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against those exogenous antigens is called:

a. latex agglutination.
b. hemagglutination.
c. neutralization.
d. complement fixation.

A

b. hemagglutination.

43
Q

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier, the antibody is soluble, and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination
c. Flocculation
d. Neutralization

A

b. Agglutination

44
Q

Serology is the study of:

a. white blood cells.
b. red blood cells.
c. platelets.
d. the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies.

A

d. the liquid components of the blood, especially antibodies.

45
Q

Which assay poses the greatest risk of exposure to biohazards?

a. Radioimmunoassay
b. Enzyme immunoassay
c. Fluorescence polarization
d. Chemiluminescent immunoassays

A

a. Radioimmunoassay

46
Q

The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?

a. Chemiluminescence
b. Fluorescence
c. Optical density
d. Radioactivity
e. Scatter

A

b. Fluorescence

47
Q

What is the difference between a mutation and a polymorphism?

a. A mutation can exist in a single person; a polymorphism must exist in at least 2% of the population.
b. A mutation involves a single base pair; a polymorphism involves many base pairs.
c. Mutations affect cell function; polymorphisms do not.
d. Mutations do not change DNA structure; polymorphisms distort the helical structure.

A

a. A mutation can exist in a single person; a polymorphism must exist in at least 2% of the population.

48
Q

Fluorescently labeled antibodies are used in flow cytometry to determine:

a. the size of a cell.
b. the granularity of a cell.
c. proteins associated with a cell.
d. the shape of the nucleus.

A

c. proteins associated with a cell.

49
Q

Select the strand of RNA that is complementary to this single strand of DNA:
A T T A G C C G T A T

a. T A A T C G G C A T A
b. U A A U C G G C U A U
c. T U U T C G G C A U A
d. T A A T U G G U A T A

A

b. U A A U C G G C U A U

50
Q

A ligase is an enzyme that:

a. cleaves phosphodiester bonds.
b. joins two DNA chains by creating hydrogen bonds.
c. joins two DNA chains by creating a phosphodiester bond.
d. cleaves hydrogen bonds.

A

c. joins two DNA chains by creating a phosphodiester bond.

51
Q

As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:

a. lymphocytes.
b. granulocytes.
c. monocytes.
d. erythrocytes.

A

a. lymphocytes.

52
Q

For a probe to hybridize to the target, which condition must be met?

a. The target must be double-stranded.
b. The target can only be RNA.
c. The target must have the same bases.
d. The target must have complementary bases.

A

d. The target must have complementary bases.

53
Q

Steps in a Southern blot include which of the following?

a. Ligation of DNA probes by a DNA ligase
b. Gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane
c. Denaturation of DNA followed by annealing of primers and bases
d. Creation of a nick in a DNA strand followed by amplification

A

b. Gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane

54
Q

The individual nucleotides along a single strand of DNA are held together by:

a. phosphodiester bonds.
b. disulfide bonds.
c. hydrogen bonds.
d. peptide bonds.

A

a. phosphodiester bonds.

55
Q

A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?

a. CD3, CD4, and CD8
b. CD4, CD3, and CD5
c. CD5, CD8, and CD3
d. CD8, CD3, and CD2

A

d. CD8, CD3, and CD2

56
Q

In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does the amount of side scatter indicate?

a. Size of the cell
b. Granularity of the cell
c. Surface markers
d. Shape of the cell

A

b. Granularity of the cell

57
Q

Select the probe sequence that will hybridize to the following nucleic acid sequence:
C G A T A T T G T C

a. T A G T A C A A G A
b. C G A T A T T G T C
c. G T C A A G A C C T
d. G C T A T A A C A G

A

d. G C T A T A A C A G

58
Q

A short strand of DNA or RNA used to detect an unknown nucleic acid in a patient specimen best describes a:

a. nucleic acid probe.
b. restriction enzyme.
c. primer.
d. restriction fragment length polymorphism.

A

a. nucleic acid probe.

59
Q

In flow cytometry, fluorescence is usually used to determine:

a. intrinsic cell parameters.
b. extrinsic cell parameters.

A

b. extrinsic cell parameters.

60
Q

DNA replication requires which enzymes?

a. DNA polymerase and primase
b. Reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase
c. Nuclease and primase
d. Nuclease and DNA polymerase

A

a. DNA polymerase and primase

MLS 416 Immunology and Molecular Diagnostics (33 decks)

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