U1 LAB: SPECIMEN COLLECTION AND HANDLING Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Specimen should be collected prior to administration of antibiotics.

A

True

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1
Q

Specimen collection should be done in what phase?

A

Acute phase (Early phase)

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2
Q

What is the result when specimen collection is done after administration of antibiotics?

A

False negative result

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3
Q

Specimens should be properly labeled with:

A
  • Name
  • Birthday
  • Date & Time of collection
  • Anatomic site
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4
Q

Specimens should be accompanied by a?

A

laboratory request

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5
Q

CS stands for?

A

Culture & Sensitivity

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6
Q

ARD stands for?

A

Antibiotic Removal Device

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7
Q

These may be possible contaminants

A

Normal flora

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8
Q

Blood is considered as a?

A

sterile site

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9
Q

What must you do when the blood culture is positive?

A

Report immediately (there should be no bacteria in blood)

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10
Q

Bacteria that is Gram + which is mistaken for Anthrax

A

Bacillus

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11
Q

Examples of anatomic site

A

Wound discharge, swab

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12
Q

The use of sterile leak proof containers must be observed in all body fluids except for?

A

stool

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13
Q

What are primarily used for aerobic bacteria?

A

Swabs

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14
Q

What are primarily used for anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aspirates

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15
Q

Where should you collect lesions, wounds, and abscesses?

A

at the margin (swabs)

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16
Q

Swabs are collected in?

A

superficial wounds

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17
Q

Aspirates are collected in?

A

deep wounds

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18
Q

This is a transport medium to maintain the viability of organisms.

A

Tube/vial

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19
Q

This is appropriate for the recovery of aerobic organisms

A

Swabs

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20
Q

Types of Swabs

for Bacterial Culture

A

Dacron, Calcium, Alginate, Rayon

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21
Q

Types of Swabs

for Viral Culture

A

Cotton and Dacron

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22
Q

This has fatty acids that have antibacterial properties.

A

Cotton

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23
Q

Types of Swabs

Nasopharyngeal swab

A

flexible swabs

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24
Q

The shaft of the swab must be made up of?

A

plastic or wooden material

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25
Q

This part of the swab absorbs the fatty acid.

A

Charcoal (black)

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26
Q

T/F: You can place back the swab in its cover to prevent drying.

A

True

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27
Q

Upper Respiratory Tract for swab

A
  • Throat cultures
  • Nasopharyngeal cultures
  • Nasal
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28
Q

Throat cultures isolate what bacteria?

A

Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

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29
Q

Nasopharyngeal cultures are used to diagnose?

A

Pertussis, middle ear infections

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30
Q

Nasopharyngeal cultures are used to see carrier states of?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Haemophilus influenzae
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31
Q

Urogenital swabs are used to diagnosis?

A

Gonococcal urethritis, Vaginosis, Vaginitis

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32
Q

Other than the URT, swabs can also be used in the?

A

External ear, eyes

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33
Q

Minimum swabs

A

2

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34
Q

2 swabs are for?

A
  1. Direct Microscopy (Gram Staining)
  2. Culture & Sensitivity
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35
Q

If there is only one swab, who will decide what test it should be used for?

A

Physician

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36
Q

UTIs stand for?

A

Urinary Tract Infections

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37
Q

This connects the kidney to the bladder.

A

Ureter

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38
Q

UTIs are more prone to who, and why?

A

Females, have shorter urethra

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39
Q

UTIs include?

A
  • Cystitis
  • Urethritis
  • Pyelonephritis (kidney)
  • Pyelitis
  • Glomerulonephritis
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40
Q

This refers to the inflammation of the bladder.

A

Cystitis

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41
Q

Etiologic agents in Urine specimens (PEKPEKS)

A
  • Escherichia coli

Gram -
- Enterics (Proteus, Enterobacter, Klebsiella)
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Gram +
- Enterococcus faecalis
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

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42
Q

What is the preferred urine specimen?

A

Clean catch midstream

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43
Q

First portion of the urine contains organisms from the?

A

Urethra

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44
Q

Which etiologic agent in urine appears as bluish/greenish?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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45
Q

Other urine collection methods

A
  • Straight catheterized urine
  • Suprapubic aspirates
  • Cytoscopy
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46
Q

This refers to the method in which the syringe is directly punctured in the bladder.

A

Suprapubic aspiration

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47
Q

What urine should be avoided?

A

Random voided urine, Foley catheters

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48
Q

Best urine specimens

A
  • First morning (concentrated)
  • Clean Catch Midstream
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49
Q

Urine from a newborn is collected through a?

A

plastic bag

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50
Q

CFU stands for?

A

Colony Forming Unit

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51
Q

What value is indicative of UTI?

A

> 100,000 CFU/ml

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52
Q

This is used for quantitative procedure, and has measurements in its loop (diameter)

A

Calibrated loop

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53
Q

This is used for diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infections.

A

Sputum

54
Q

Examples of LRT infections

A

Bacterial pneumonia, PTB

55
Q

Recommended volume for sputum

A

5-10ml

56
Q

Collection of sputum is done through:

A
  • Expectorated
  • Induced
  • Gastric contents (children)
57
Q

Recommended number of sputum specimens

A

2

58
Q

Other specimens for PTB:

A
  • Transtracheal aspirate
  • Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)
  • Bronchial washings
59
Q

T/F: Bronchoalveolar lavage is done by the medical technologist.

A

False

Physician ang gagawa

60
Q

What specimen may be used for other sputum-related infections?

A

Early morning specimen

61
Q

What stain is used in microscopic examination for sputum?

A

Gram Stain

62
Q

This refers to the values of acceptable sputum.

A

Bartlett’s Classification

63
Q

Bartlett’s Classification

A

> 25 WBCs/LPF
<10 Epithelial cells/LPF

64
Q

LPF stands for?

A

Low power field

65
Q

Specimen of choice for diagnosis of gastrointestinal pathogens

A

Stool

66
Q

This can be used if stool is present on swab during collection.

A

Rectal Swab

67
Q

Stool pathogens

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Escherichia coli (EHEC, ETEC, EPEC, EIEC)
  • Vibrio
  • Yersinia enterocolitica
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
68
Q

Strains of E. coli as stool pathogens

A
  • EHEC (Hemorrhagic)
  • ETEC (Toxigenic)
  • EPEC (Pathogenic)
  • EIEC (Invasive)
69
Q

This refers to the normal flora of stool and carries no infection.

A

Escherichia coli

70
Q

T/F: Identification of E. coli in water analysis is often caused by fecal contamination.

A

True

71
Q

This specimen is used to determine fever of unknown origin.

A

Blood

72
Q

Blood is used for the diagnosis of the following:

A
  • Fever of unknown origin (FUO)
  • Septicemia
  • Bacteremia
  • Typhoid Fever
  • Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)
73
Q

Collection of blood must be done when?

A

before and right after fever spike (to isolate organism), an hour apart

74
Q

If culture bottle is not possible to be used, aspirate using what?

A

syringe

75
Q

Collection of blood must be done where and when?

A

2 to 3 different sights (left/right arm/foot) within 24 hours

76
Q

Disinfecting with venipuncture is done with?

A

70% alcohol, iodine/clorhexidine

77
Q

Volume of blood collection in adults

A

20ml

78
Q

Volume of blood collection in pediatrics

A

1-20 (1-5ml)

79
Q

Blood to media ratio

A

1:10

80
Q

Media of choice for blood

A

Broth, Isolator system

81
Q

Types of broth

A
  • Brain heart infusion (BHI)
  • Tryptic soy broth (TSB)
  • Biphasic media
  • Thioglycollate Broth
82
Q

This media contains both agar and broth.

A

Biphasic Media

83
Q

What percent of SPS is recommended?

A

0.025 to 0.030%

84
Q

Mainly used anticoagulant for blood

A

Sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS)

85
Q

Other anticoagulants for blood

A
  • Heparin
  • Sodium amylosulfate
  • Sodium citrate
86
Q

This anticoagulant is used for mycobacteria cultivation.

A

Heparin

87
Q

T/F: EDTA inhibits growth of microorganisms.

A

True

88
Q

This property refers to inhibition of growth.

A

Bacteriostatic

89
Q

This property refers to killing of organisms.

A

Bacteriocidal

90
Q

Body Fluids include

A
  • Abdominal fluid
  • Amniotic fluid
  • Ascitic fluid
  • Bile
  • Synovial fluid
  • Pleural fluid
  • Pericardial fluid
91
Q

Body fluids are collected by?

A

needle aspiration

92
Q

Body fluids must be placed in culture media?

A

immediately

93
Q

What gastric tubes must be used for gastric specimens?

A

Levine and Rehfuss

94
Q

CSF stands for?

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid

95
Q

CSF is used for diagnosis of?

A

Meningitis or Menincoencephalitis

96
Q

Agents of Meningitis

A
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Listeria
97
Q

Collection of CSF

A

Lumbar Tap (3rd-4th Lumbar Vertebra)

98
Q

How many tubes can be collected for CSF?

A

3-4

99
Q

What tube for CSF is used in microbiology?

A

2nd tube or 4th tube

100
Q

If there is only 1 CSF tube, where should it be used?

A

CS (Microbiology)

101
Q

Volume of CSF

A

> /= 1mL

102
Q

Tissue specimens are collected thru?

A

Biopsy

103
Q

Two types of Biopsy

A

Excisional and Incisional

104
Q

This refers to biopsy wherein the whole lesion is removed.

A

Excisional

105
Q

This refers to biopsy wherein only a portion of the lesion is removed.

A

Incisional

106
Q

Aspirates must be placed in a container with tight lid or in an?

A

anaerobic transport system

107
Q

Ideal time for specimen transport

A

30 minutes

108
Q

Two common preservatives

A

Boric Acid, Refrigeration

109
Q

This is used to preserve urine when there are delays

A

Boric Acid

110
Q

In cold temperatures

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

111
Q

This is an antiphagocytic, anticomplementary anticoagulant

A

SPS

112
Q

T/F: SPS may inhibit aminoglycosides.

A

True

113
Q

SPS inhibits bacteria such as?

A
  • Neisseria
  • Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Streptobacillus moniliformis
  • Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
114
Q

Refrigerator temp at 4 degrees

A
  • Catheter tips
  • CSF FOR VIRUSES
  • Outer ear swab
  • Unpreserved feces and urine
  • Feces (C. diffinale)
  • Sputum, swabs
115
Q

Ambient / Room temp at 22 degrees

A
  • CSF FOR BACTERIA
  • Abscess, lesion, wound
  • Body fluid
  • Inner ear
  • Preserved urine and stool
  • Nasal specimens
  • Tissues
116
Q

Body temperature (37 degrees)

A
  • Normal CSF
117
Q

Freezer temperature (-20 or -70 degrees)

A
  • 20: serum for Serology
  • 70: long term storage
118
Q

QNS stands for?

A

Quantity not sufficient

119
Q

This refers to dead organisms collected.

A

Fixed specimens

120
Q

Specimen Priority

Level 1 (Critical/Invasive)

A
  • CSF
  • aminiotic fluid
  • blood
  • pericardial fluid
121
Q

Specimen Priority

Level 2 (Unpreserved)

A
  • Feces
  • Sputum
  • Tissue
122
Q

Specimen Priority

Level 3 (Quantitation required)

A
  • Urine
  • Tissue for quantification
123
Q

Specimen Priority

Level 4 (Preserved)

A
  • Feces and urine in preservative
  • Swabs in holding/transport medium
124
Q

Specimen Priority

Level 5 (Batch processing)

A
  • Sputum
  • AFB Culture
125
Q

Incubation condition

18-24 hours at 37 degrees

A

for most bacteria, AFB

126
Q

Incubation condition

4 degrees (Cold enrichment medium)

A
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Yersinia enterocolitica
127
Q

Incubation condition

5-10% Carbon Dioxide (15% O2), candle jar

A

Capnophiles

128
Q

Incubation condition

takes months

A

Mycobacteria

129
Q

Incubation condition

Aerobic bacteria

A

21% O2, 0.03% CO2

130
Q

Incubation condition

Anaerobe

A

0% O2

131
Q

Incubation condition

Microaerophiles

A

5-6% or 5-10% O2

132
Q
A