U world 2 Flashcards

1
Q

reactive lymphadenopathy rx

A

Empiric antibiotic therapy with observation for 4 weeks

most common organisms are Staphylococcus aureus and group A Streptococcus.

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2
Q

no significant risk of congenital anomalies from SSRI use in pregnancy, except for __________.

A

paroxetine

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3
Q

Treating the flu

A

treatment of patients with a clinical picture suggesting influenza is recommended, even if a rapid test is negative.

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4
Q

Fastest rate for 3% saline for hyponatremia

A

0.5 mEq/ L/ hr

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5
Q

What increases the anion gap

A

abnormal presence of non-chlorinated acids (unmeasured)

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6
Q

envelope shaped crystals in urine

A

ethylene glycol poison

Can lead to renal failure

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7
Q

uremic pericarditis ECG

A

non-specific

will NOT show diffuse st elevation because there is no myocardial inflammation

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8
Q

Diabetic nephropathy renal biopsy

A

nodular glomerulosclerosis is hallmark

but

diffuse glomerulosclerosis is more common

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9
Q

Most common cause of aortic dissection > 60 yo

A

htn

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10
Q

what causes primary polycythemia vera

A

JAK2 mutations

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11
Q

isoniazid and anemia

A

isoniazid –> B6 antagonist –> sideroblastic anemia

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12
Q

CMV vs EBV mono

A

CMV no pharyngitis

EBV has pharyngitis

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13
Q

Apraxia

A

transmission disturbance on the output side, which interferes with skilled movements.

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14
Q

Agnosia

A

inability to recognize previously familiar sensory input

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15
Q

expressive aphasia

A

loss of the ability to express language.

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16
Q

Intertrigo

A

inflammation of skinfolds caused by skin-on-skin friction and is common on opposing cutaneous or mucocutaneous surfaces

Secondary cutaneous bacterial and fungal infections are common complications.

17
Q

Erythrasma

A

chronic superficial infection of the intertriginous areas of the skin. The incriminated organism is Corynebacterium minutissimum

18
Q

chronic paronychia

A

nail tenderness, erythema, swelling, and retraction of the proximal nail fold. Often the adjacent cuticle is absent.

associated with chronic immersion in water or contact irritant (thumb sucking)

19
Q

rx for esophageal spasm

A

CCBs

20
Q

First line treatment in COPD

A

antimuscarinic agents (ex ipratropium)

21
Q

Zinc Deficiency

A

hypogonadism
impaired taste
alopecia
rash (perioral)

22
Q

Mitral stenosis and arrythmias

A

MS often –> A-Fib from atrial dilation

23
Q

Increased breath sounds

A

Lobar pneumonia

24
Q

MI to PCI time

A
  • within 12 hours of pain onset
  • 120 minutes at noncardiac facility
  • 90 at capable facility
25
Q

Of the three types of colon adenomas __________ are the most likely to develop into an adenocarcinoma.

A

villous adenomas

the 3 are: tubular, tubulovillous, and villous

26
Q

treatments for diabetes mellitus reduces insulin resistance

A

Pioglitazone- works on PPAR-Y, a receptor that affects several insulin-responsive genes.

27
Q

this class of drugs inhibits the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of the incretins GLP-1 and GIP.

A

DPP-IV for DMT2

28
Q

Papanicolaou testing

is recommended starting at _____

A

21 years of age.

29
Q

Testicular cancer screening

A

Testicular cancer screening, whether by self-examination or as part of the physical examination, is not recommended.

30
Q

Early sign of CKD

A

The kidney is the source of erythropoietin,

and anemia generally appears when the GFR falls below 60 mL/minute

31
Q

Metolazone is?

A

Thiazide diuretics

Inhibit NaCl reabsorption in early DCT
–> ↓ diluting capacity of nephron.
↓ Ca2+ excretion.

32
Q

The American Diabetes Association recommends screening all persons older than 45 years old for diabetes ____

A

every 3 years

fasting glucose is a good test

33
Q

The diagnosis of diabetes may be made by

A
  • 2 random glucose > 200 mg/dL with s/s
  • fasting glucose > 126 mg/dL
  • glucose reading > 200 mg/dL 2 hours after a 75-g glucose load.