Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Hans Selye’s description of the biological response to sustained high levels of stress

A

General adaptation syndrome

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2
Q

According to Selye, what are the phases in stress response?

A mnemonic for the phases in the stress response is ARE.

A
  1. Alarm reaction
  2. Resistance
  3. Exhaustion
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3
Q

An enduring, distressing emotional disorder that follows exposure to severe helplessness or a fear-inducing threat

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

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4
Q

What spurred the development of PTSD?

A

Aftermath of Vietnam War

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5
Q

What are the 4 major categories of PTSD symptoms?

A
  1. Intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event
  2. Avoidance of stimuli associated with the traumatic event
  3. Mood and cognitive changes after the trauma
  4. Increased arousal and reactivity
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6
Q

Feature of PTSD whereby the individual relives the event when memories occur suddenly, which is accompanied by strong emotion

A

Flashback

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7
Q

True or False: Traumatic memories are detailed and typically recalled vividly among people with PTSD.

A

False

People with PTSD often report fragmented and disjointed memories of their trauma and may forget specific details and aspects of the traumatic event.

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8
Q

True or False: PTSD can develop in individuals who only learned that the traumatic event(s) occurred to a close relative or friend.

A

True

In cases of actual or threatened death of a family member or friend, the event(s) must have been violent or accidental.

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9
Q

True or False: Exposure to aversive details of the traumatic event(s) via media, TV, movies, or pictures can be considered a traumatic event in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.

A

True and false

Exposure to aversive details of the traumatic event(s) via media, TV, movies, or pictures should be work-related only. Otherwise, it is not considered in meeting the criteria for PTSD.

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10
Q

In individuals older than 6 years, how many symptoms in total are required to meet the criteria for PTSD?

A
  • 1 intrusion symptom
  • 1 avoidance symptom
  • 2 cognitive and mood symptoms
  • 2 arousal symptoms

Total: At least 6 symptoms

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11
Q

PTSD specifier indicating that the person develops full-blown PTSD only 6 months later or years afterward

A

With delayed expression

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12
Q

PTSD specifier in which the individual experiences feelings of being detached from their mental processes or body and of the unreality of the surroundings

A

With dissociative symptoms

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13
Q

True or False: Individuals who have PTSD with dissociative symptoms have less arousal than normal.

A

True

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14
Q

In terms of the minimum number of symptoms, what is the difference between PTSD in people over age 6 and PTSD in children 6 years or younger?

A

Avoidance and cognition symptoms are combined as 1 category, whereby at least 1 symptom of either must be present.

It is not required that both avoidance and cognition symptoms are present.

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15
Q

True or False: Prolonged grief disorder and PTSD may both be diagnosed if the traumatic event involves the violent death of a loved one.

A

True

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16
Q

State at least 2 genetic contributions to the development of PTSD.

A
  • Genetic risk for anxiety disorders
  • Abnormally low cortisol levels
  • Abnormalities in brain responses to emotional stimuli
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17
Q

State at least 3 neurobiological contributions relating to brain structure and function in PTSD.

A
  • Greater activity in fear circuit
  • Diminished activation of medial prefrontal cortex
  • Damage to hippocampus
  • Decreased hippocampal volume
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18
Q

In PTSD, surges of norepinephrine and cortisol (typically present during extreme stress) lead to what?

A

Stronger memory formation (particularly for central aspects of a threatening experience)

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19
Q

In PTSD, lower levels of cortisol may result in what?

A

Prolonged activity of the sympathetic nervous system

This results in people easily developing a conditioned fear of trauma-related stimuli.

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20
Q

The process when fear memory is reactivated and stored back into long-term memory again

A

Fear memory reconsolidation

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21
Q

Apart from conditioned avoidance, state at least 1 behavioral factor associated with the etiology of PTSD.

A
  • Externalizing problems
  • Maladaptive coping
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22
Q

State at least 1 maladaptive coping strategy associated with PTSD.

A
  • Avoidance
  • Self-destructive behavior
  • Dissociation
23
Q

True or False: Traumas caused by natural disasters are more likely to cause PTSD than traumas caused by humans.

A

False

24
Q

State at least 2 social contributions to the development of PTSD.

A
  • Nature of trauma
  • Prior history of trauma
  • Minimal education
  • Lower socioeconomic status (SES)
  • Unstable family
  • Stigmatizing cultural norms
25
Q

What is the implication of stigmatizing cultural norms in the development of PTSD?

A

It decreases the amount of social support one receives.

26
Q

State at least 1 protective factor that lowers the likelihood of developing PTSD.

A
  • Strong social support
  • Positive coping strategies (i.e., active problem solving)
  • High intelligence
27
Q

Mention at least 2 medications commonly prescribed for PTSD.

A
  • Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  • D-cycloserine
  • Benzodiazepines
28
Q

When is D-cycloserine beneficial in the treatment of PTSD?

A

When the individual has severe PTSD and needs longer treatment

29
Q

What is the purpose of prescribing benzodiazepines for PTSD?

A

Benzodiazepines treat sleep problems, nightmares, and irritability.

30
Q

True or False: Early, structured interventions delivered as soon after the trauma as possible in those who require help are useful in preventing the development of PTSD.

A

True

It is only when the person doesn’t require help that early, structured interventions for PTSD produce worse outcomes, as is the case with critical incident stress debriefing.

31
Q

A cognitive-behavioral therapy approach that involves working with the victim to develop a narrative of the traumatic experience and to expose them for an extended period of time to the image

A

Prolonged exposure therapy

32
Q

A cognitive-behavioral therapy approach designed to help victims of rape and childhood sexual abuse dispute tendencies toward self-blame

A

Cognitive processing therapy

33
Q

A psychotherapy approach that requires the patient to verbalize negative thoughts while tracking the therapist’s movement of fingers

A

Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)

34
Q

The immediate treatment of trauma victims within 72 hours of the traumatic event that is usually limited to 1 long session and is given regardless of whether the person has developed symptoms

A

Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)

35
Q

A disorder characterized by severe reaction immediately following a terrifying event that is diagnosed when symptoms occur between 3 days and 1 month after a trauma

A

Acute stress disorder

36
Q

How many symptoms are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for acute stress disorder?

A

At least 9 symptoms

37
Q

What is the required duration of the disturbance in acute stress disorder?

A

3 days to 1 month after trauma exposure

38
Q

True or False: Most people who go on to meet criteria for PTSD experience acute stress disorder in the first month after the trauma.

A

False

Symptoms of PTSD usually arise after 3 months following trauma exposure, which does not meet the criteria for acute stress disorer, where the duration of the disturbance should persist for only 1 month at most.

39
Q

True or False: Acute stress disorder is a predictor of PTSD.

A

True

50% of acute stress disorder cases go on to develop PTSD.

40
Q

Stress-related disorder comprised of clinically significant emotional and behavioral symptoms in response to at least 1 specific stressor that arise within 3 months of the onset of a stressor

A

Adjustment disorder

41
Q

True or False: The adjustment disorder must resolve within 3 months of the termination of the stressor or its consequence.

A

False

The adjustment disorder must resolve within 6 months of the termination of the stressor or its consequence.

42
Q

How many symptoms are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for adjustment disorder?

A

At least 1 symptom

43
Q

A stressor-related disorder representing a maladaptive grief reaction characterized by intense yearning or longing for the deceased person or preoccupation with thoughts or memories of the deceased

A

Prolonged grief disorder

44
Q

Prolonged grief disorder requires that the death of a loved one occurred when?

A

At least 12 months ago (for children and adolescents, at least 6 months ago)

45
Q

How many symptoms in total are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for prolonged grief disorder?

A
  • At least 1 symptom of persistent grief response
  • Additional 3 symptoms

Total: At least 4 symptoms

46
Q

Disorders characterized by developmentally inappropriate behaviors in which the child is unable or unwilling to form normal attachment relationships with caregiving adults

A

Attachment disorders

47
Q

Attachment disorder in which a child with disturbed behavior neither seeks out a caregiver not responds to offers of help from one

A

Reactive attachment disorder

48
Q

How many symptoms in total are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for reactive attachment disorder?

A
  • Both symptoms of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior
  • At least 2 symptoms of social and emotional disturbance

Total: At least 4 symptoms

49
Q

True or False: Autism spectrum disorder and reactive attachment disorder can both be diagnosed in a child.

A

False

The criteria for autism spectrum disorder should not be met when diagnosing reactive attachment disorder.

50
Q

How old should the child be to meet the diagnostic criteria for reactive attachment disorder?

A

At least 9 months old until age 4

51
Q

When are reactive attachment disorder and disinhibted social engagement disorder specified as persistent?

A

The disorder should be present for more than 12 months.

52
Q

Attachment disorder in which a child shows no inhibition whatsoever in approaching adults

A

Disinhibited social engagement disorder

53
Q

How many symptoms are required to meet the criteria for disinhibited social engagement disorder?

A

At least 2 symptoms

54
Q

True or False: Symptoms of disinhibited social engagement disorder can persist even after other signs of neglect are no longer present.

A

True