Anxiety Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

category of psychological disorders in which fear or tension is overriding and is the primary disturbance

A

anxiety disorders

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2
Q

a mood state characterized by marked negative affect and bodily symptoms of tension in which a person apprehensively anticipates future danger or misfortune

A

anxiety

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3
Q

emotion of an immediate alarm reaction to present danger or life-threatening emergencies

A

fear

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4
Q

sudden, overwhelming fright or terror

A

panic

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5
Q

an abrupt experience of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical symptoms

A

panic attack

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6
Q

type of panic attack in which the cause is known and that only occurs in specific situations

A

expected (or cued) panic attack

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7
Q

type of panic attack that can occur at any time and whose cause is unknown

A

unexpected (or uncued) panic attack

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8
Q

How many symptoms are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for a panic attack?

A

at least 4 symptoms

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9
Q

biological reaction to alarming stressors that musters the body’s resources to resist or flee a threat, where glucose, endorphins, and hormones are secreted, and heart rate, metabolism, blood pressure, breathing, and muscle tension are elevated

A

fight-or-flight response

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10
Q

brain circuit in animals that, when stimulated, causes an immediate alarm and escape response that resembles human panic

A

fight/flight system (FFS)

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11
Q

a set of brain structures, including the amygdala, that tends to be activated when the individual is feeling anxious or fearful

A

fear circuit

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12
Q

brain circuit in the limbic system that responds to threat signals by inhibiting activity and causing anxiety

A

behavioral inhibition system (BIS)

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13
Q

State at least 1 part of the fear circuit and its implication in anxiety disorders.

A
  • The BIS is overactive.
  • The limbic system is overly responsive.
  • There is less activity in the medial prefrontal cortex.
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14
Q

State at least 1 neurotransmitter and its implication in anxiety disorders.

A
  • GABA (depleted)
  • Serotonin (deficient)
  • Norepinephrine (higher than normal)
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15
Q

a tendency of infants to become agitated and cry with novel stimuli, which manifests alter on as shyness, fearfulness, irritability, cautiousness, and introversion

A

behavioral inhibition

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16
Q

State at least 1 personality factor implicated in anxiety disorders.

A
  • Elevated behavioral inhibition
  • High neuroticism
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17
Q

Mowrer’s theory of avoidance learning, according to which fear is attached to a neutral stimulus by pairing it with a noxious unconditioned stimulus (classical conditioning); then, a person learns to escape the fear by avoiding the unconditioned stimulus (operant conditioning)

A

two-factor conditioning theory

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18
Q

State at least 1 cognitive factor that contributes to the development of anxiety disorders.

A
  • Sustained negative beliefs about the future
  • Sense of uncontrollability
  • Greater attention to threat
  • Anxiety sensitivity
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19
Q

a theory of the development of anxiety involving (1) generalized biological vulnerability, (2) generalized psychological vulnerability, and (3) specific psychological vulnerability

A

triple vulnerability theory

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20
Q

anxiety disorder characterized by intense, uncontrollable, chronic, unfocused, and continued worry that is distressing and unproductive and accompanied by physical symptoms

A

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

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21
Q

How long should the excessive anxiety and worry persist to meet the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A

at least 6 months

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22
Q

How many symptoms are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A

at least 3 (only 1 in children)

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23
Q

the cognitive tendency to chew on a problem and be unable to let go of it

A

worry

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24
Q

True or False: Symptoms of autonomic hyperarousal are less prominent in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) than in other anxiety disorders.

A

true

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25
Q

State at least 1 neurobiological factor associated with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).

A
  • Low cardiac vagal tone
  • Overactive frontal lobe
  • Overactive amygdala
  • Elevated sympathetic nervous system activity
  • Deficits in GABA
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26
Q

What does it mean to have comparatively low cardiac vagal tone, in relation to generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A

Comparatively low cardiac vagal tone leads to autonomic inflexibility (lack of parasympathetic resources) because the heart is less responsive to certain tasks.

Thus, individuals with GAD do not respond as strongly to stressors as individuals with anxiety disorders in which panic is more prominent.

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27
Q

What is the implication of having GABA deficits, in relation to generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A

Deficits in GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter) functioning result in excessive firing of neurons, particularly in the limbic system (involved in attention to emotionally salient stimuli).

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28
Q

an etiological model of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) arguing that worrying helps people avoid awareness of threats and thus helps reduce their reactivity to unavoidable negative events; as a consequence of avoidance, their underlying anxiety about these images do not distinguish

A

cognitive avoidance model

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29
Q

State at least 1 cognitive factor contributing to the development of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).

A
  • Attentional bias to threat
  • Cognitive avoidance of threat
  • Concerns about losing control
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30
Q

State at least 1 social contribution to the development of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).

A
  • Trauma or stress
  • Childhood maltreatment (i.e., negative parental behaviors)
  • Maladaptive interpersonal behavior
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31
Q

What are the 2 medications usually prescribed to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Antidepressants
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32
Q

Apart from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT and cognitive therapy, what are the 3 psychotherapy approaches used to treat generalized anxiety disorder specifically (GAD)?

A
  • Relaxation training
  • Mindfulness-based approaches
  • Emotion-regulation therapy (ERT)
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33
Q

psychotherapy approach that focuses on emotional awareness and regulation

A

emotion-regulation therapy (ERT)

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34
Q

anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks accompanied by concern about future attacks and/or a lifestyle change to avoid future attacks

A

panic disorder

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35
Q

True or False: The presence of expected (cued) panic attacks rules out the diagnosis of panic disorder.

A

false

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36
Q

State either 1 of the symptoms required to meet the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder.

A
  1. Persistent concern or worry about additional panic attacks and their consequences
  2. A significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attacks
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37
Q

How long should the worry and/or maladaptive behavior change related to panic attacks persist to meet the diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?

A

at least 1 month

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38
Q

limited-symptom attacks that do not meet full criteria for a panic attack

A

fearful spells

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39
Q

a phenomenon of waking from sleep in a state of panic

A

nocturnal panic attack

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40
Q

True or False: Panic disorder runs in families.

A

true

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41
Q

True or False: There is an increased risk for panic disorder among offspring of parents with somatic symptom and related disorders.

A

false

The risk is greater if the parents have a history of anxiety and mood disorders, not somatic symptom and related disorders.

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42
Q

What neurotransmitter is dysregulated in panic disorder, and where in the brain is it dysregulated?

A

norepinephrine in locus coeruleus

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43
Q

What hormone has been found to have fluctuating levels in panic disorder?

A

progesterone

44
Q

sensitivity to stimuli arising from within the body

A

interoceptive awareness

45
Q

classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to internal bodily sensations of arousal

A

interoceptive conditioning

46
Q

avoidance of internal physical sensations

A

interoceptive avoidance

47
Q

From the psychodynamic perspective, what contributes to the development of panic disorder?

A

early object loss and/or separation anxiety

48
Q

State at least 2 social contributions to the development of panic disorder.

A
  • Life stress or trauma
  • Overprotective parenting and low emotional warmth
  • Few economic resources
  • Smoking
49
Q

What are the 2 main neurotransmitters that are targeted by medication prescribed for panic disorder?

A
  • Serotonin
  • Norepinephrine
50
Q

Apart from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and cognitive therapy, what are 2 other psychotherapy approaches used to treat panic disorder?

A
  • Psychodynamic therapy
  • Panic control treatment
51
Q

cognitive-behavioral therapy approach for panic attacks involving gradual exposure to feared somatic sensations and modification of perceptions and attitudes about them

A

panic control treatment (PCT)

52
Q

a treatment approach in which the clinician begins with one treatment and then adds another if needed

A

stepped-care approach

53
Q

True or False: Benzodiazepines may interfere with the effects of psychological treatments when used to treat panic disorder.

A

true

54
Q

anxiety disorder characterized by anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult in the event of panic or other unpleasant physical symptoms

A

agoraphobia

55
Q

In how many situations should the marked fear or anxiety in agoraphobia occur?

A

at least 2

56
Q

How long should the fear, anxiety, or avoidance persist to meet the diagnostic criteria for agoraphobia?

A

at least 6 months

57
Q

True or False: Agoraphobia can be diagnosed even without the presence of panic disorder.

A

true

58
Q

What’s the difference between situational-type specific phobia and agoraphobia?

A

Situational phobia requires only 1 agoraphobic situation, whereas agoraphobia requires at least 2 agoraphobic situations.

59
Q

True or False: Compared to agoraphobia, specific phobia has a stronger and more specific association with the genetic factor that represents proneness to phobias.

A

false

Agoraphobia is more associated with genetic factors than specific phobia.

60
Q

True or False: A family history of panic disorder is associated with agoraphobia.

A

true

61
Q

What personality tendency often characterizes individuals with agoraphobia?

A

dependent personality

62
Q

a cognitive model for the etiology of agoraphobia suggesting that the condition is driven by negative thoughts about the consequences of having a panic attack in public

A

fear-of-fear hypothesis

63
Q

State 2 psychological treatments for agoraphobia.

A
  • Gradual exposure therapy
  • Self-guided treatment
64
Q

treatment approach in which those with agoraphobia use a manual to conduct their own step-by-step exposure treatment

A

self-guided treatment

65
Q

anxiety disorder marked by unreasonable fear of a specific object or situation that significantly interferes with daily life functioning

A

specific phobia

66
Q

How long should the fear, anxiety, or avoidance persist to meet the diagnostic crieria for specific phobia?

A

at least 6 months

67
Q

What are the 5 types of specific phobia?

A
  • Animal
  • Natural environment
  • Blood-injection-injury
  • Situational
  • Other
68
Q

True or False: Animal phobia runs in families more strongly than any phobic disorder.

A

false

It’s blood-injection-injury phobia that runs in families most strongly out of all of the phobic disorders.

69
Q

What distinguishes blood-injection-injury phobia from other types of specific phobia in terms of physiological response?

A

People with this type of specific phobia inherit a strong vasovagal response to blood, injury, or the possibility of an injection, all of which cause a drop in blood pressure and a tendency to faint.

70
Q

What is 1 example of a situational phobia?

A
  • Enclosed spaces
  • Public transportation
71
Q

What is 1 example of a natural environment phobia?

A
  • Heights
  • Storms
  • Water
72
Q

True or False: Relatives of individuals with specific phobia are likely to have the same type(s) of phobia.

A

true

73
Q

What 4 brain areas have abnormal activity in specific phobia?

A
  • Amygdala: Involved in processing of emotionally salient stimuli
  • Anterior cingulate cortex: Involved in pain response
  • Thalamus: Transmits sensory impulses
  • Insula: Pprocesses sensory information, emotions, and bodily sensations
74
Q

True or False: Chronic low-level anxiety or reactivity makes an individual susceptible to developing a specific phobia.

A

true

75
Q

mode of developing a phobia by being warned repeatedly about a potential danger

A

information transmission

76
Q

What are 2 behavioral factors that could cause the development of specific phobia?

A
  • Conditioned response sustained by avoidance
  • Prepared learning
77
Q

What 2 interpersonal risk factors are associated with specific phobia, specifically in relation to the individual’s parents?

A
  • Overprotective parenting
  • Parental loss and separation
78
Q

behavioral intervention used to treat blood-injection-injury phobias, in which the therapist teaches the client to increase their blood pressure and heart rate, thus preventing the client from fainting

A

applied tension technique

79
Q

anxiety disorder characterized by extreme, enduring, irrational fear and avoidance of social or performance situations

A

social anxiety disorder (formerly social phobia)

80
Q

What is the required minimum duration of the fear, anxiety, or avoidance to meet the diagnostic criteria for social anxiety disorder?

A

at least 6 months

81
Q

What is the key difference between avoidant personality disorder and social anxiety disorder?

A

Social anxiety disorder has a more specific avoidance pattern, whereas avoidant personality disorder has a broader avoidance pattern and involves a pervasively negative self-concept.

82
Q

State at least 1 neurobiological factor underlying how individuals with social anxiety disorder react to angry faces.

A
  • Greater activation of amygdala
  • Low cortical regulation
83
Q

What is 1 parental characteristic implicated in social anxiety disorder?

A
  • Socially fearful parents (passed on via modeling)
  • Overprotective, controlling, and critical parenting
84
Q

Apart from parental influences, what are 2 social factors contributing to the development of social anxiety disorder?

A
  • Peer victimization
  • Discrimination and racism
85
Q

What are 3 medications typically prescribed to treat social anxiety disorder?

A
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  • Selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
  • D-cycloserine (DCS)
86
Q

How does adding D-cycloserine (DCS) to cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) help in treating social anxiety disorder?

A

DCS makes extinction work faster and last longer.

87
Q

Apart from cognitive-behavioral approaches, mention 3 psychotherapy approaches for treating social anxiety disorder.

A
  • Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT)
  • Interpersonal therapy
  • Family therapy
88
Q

True or False: Social skills training is the second most credible treatment for social anxiety disorder.

A

false

Interpersonal therapy is the second most credible treatment for social anxiety disorder.

89
Q

How do childhood anxiety disorders difer from those occurring in adulthood?

A

Unlike adults, children need not regard their fear as excessive or unreasonable.

90
Q

therapy technique in which parents are given written materials and act as therapist with their children

A

bibliotherapy

91
Q

anxiety disorder of childhood and adolescence marked by the presence of abnormal fear or worry over becoming separated from the caregiver, as well as clinging behaviors in the presence of the caregiver

A

separation anxiety disorder

92
Q

How many symptoms at a minimum are required to meet the diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorders?

A

at least 3

93
Q

How long should the fear, anxiety, or avoidance persist in a child or adolescent to be diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder?

A

at least 4 weeks

94
Q

How long should the fear, anxiety, or avoidance persist in an adult to be diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder?

A

typically 6 months

95
Q

Apart from anxiolytics, what medications are commonly prescribed to treat separation anxiety disorder?

A
  • Antidepressants
  • Stimulants
  • Antihistamines
96
Q

a rare childhood anxiety disorder characterized by a lack of speech in at least 1 setting in which speaking is socially expected

A

selective mutism

97
Q

How long should the disturbance last at a minimum to meet the diagnostic criteria for selective mutism?

A

at least 1 month (not limited to the first month of school)

98
Q

What is the implication of increased abnormalities in auditory neural activity during vocalization in individuals with selective mutism?

A

It leads to peculiarities in the perception of their own voice and hence a recitence to speak.

99
Q

True or False: Individuals with selective mutism have difficulty in receptive language.

A

both true and false

The receptive language difficulty is subtly present but still within the normal range.

100
Q

State 3 parental characteristics that may contribute to the development of selective mutism.

A
  • Parental social inhibition (passes on via modeling)
  • Overprotective and controlling parenting
  • Enabling of behavior (i.e., parents do the talking for the child)
101
Q

True or False: Benzodiazepines are the first-line medications for treatment of most anxiety disorders.

A

false

SSRIs are the first-line medications for the treatment of anxiety disorders because benzodiazepines are addictive.

102
Q

Medications are more effective than psychological treatments for what anxiety disorder?

A

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

103
Q

True or False: Exposure therapy works without the relaxation component when treating anxiety disorders.

A

true

104
Q

True or False: Extinction of fears involves forgetting.

A

false

Extinction involves learning, not forgetting.

105
Q

True or False: Adding a cognitive therapy component to exposure therapy bolsters results.

A

false

106
Q

Adding anxiolytics to psychotherapy is not beneficial except for what anxiety disorder?

A

social anxiety disorder

107
Q

a medication that enhances learning by modifying neurotransmitter flow in the glutamate system

A

D-cycloserine (DCS)