Top 100 Pearls Flashcards

1
Q

Ludwig’s angina occurs in which area

A

Submental and Submandibular

Swelling of FOM, Upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histopathology of IFS

A

Fungal invasion into submucosal tissues and vessels, associated necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classic symptoms of PTA

A

Trismus, uvular deviation, muffled voice, soft palate edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Elevated RF for OSA

A
>65
BMI >30 kg/m2
Post-menopause
AA or Asian
Male
Neck >17 (m) >16 (f)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mucor pathology

A

Non-septate, wide angle br

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aspergillus path

A

Septate, 45 br

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common HA

A

Tension HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment persistent idiopathic facial pain

A

TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tongue papillae

A

Fungiform
Foliate (sides)
Circumvallate
Filiform (no buds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why hypopharyngeal cancer is worse than laryngeal

A

Frequent submucosal spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common malignancy and neoplasm of thyroid

A

M: Papillary
N: Follicular adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common H/N paraganglioma

A

Carotid body tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

JNA classic presentation

A

Nasal obstruction, epistaxis, bluish mass

Expansion of PPF on axial view, widening of sphenopalatine and vidian foramina, bony destruction pterygoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exposure risks for adenocarcinoma and SCC of sinuses

A

A: Wood, leather dust
S: chromium, nickel, mustard gas, aflatoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ohngrens line

A

Medial canthus to angle of mandible, maxillary sinus tumors worse above line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common nerve affected in cavernous sinus

A

VI (most medial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CSF production per hour

A

20 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chandler classification

A
I- preseptal cellulitis
II- orbital cellulitis
III- subperiosteal abscess
IV- orbital abscess
V- cavernous sinus thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Major tip support

A

Attachments between septum, Lower lats, upper lats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minor tip support

A

Interdomal lig, dorsal septum, membranous septum, sesamoid complex, skin and SQ tissue of tip, maxillary spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nose changes u/l cleft

A

I/l LLC inf/Post/lat
Tip, caudal septum, columella towards non cleft side
Bony septum toward cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common complications of septal hematoma

A

Septal perforation, saddle nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of TSS

A

S Aureus

High T, low P, multiorgan failure
Rash, vomit, diarrhea

IV ABx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Keros Olfactory Fossa Depth

A

I: 1-3mm
II: 4-7mm
III: 8mm +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common iatrogenic CSF leak during FESS

A

Lateral lamella cribiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cochlear tonotopy

A

Basilar membrane thick, stiff, narrow (higher f)

Apex thin, flexible, wide (lower f)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

4 most common causes CHL

A

Cerumen impaction
OME (#1 in kids)
TM perf
Otosclerosis

28
Q

3 most common causes SNHL

A

Presbycusis
Noise
Hereditary

29
Q

Most common ototoxic meds

A

Aminoglycosides
Cisplatin
Loop D
Salicylates

30
Q

Pure Tone Average

A

Air conduction 500, 1000, 2000 (speech)

31
Q

Alexander’s Law (Nystagmus)

A

Worse when gaze in direction of fast phase (right beating worsens on right gaze)

32
Q

4 components of hearing aid

A

Microphone, amplifier, receiver, battery

33
Q

Percentage of AOM bacteria susceptible to Amoxicillin

A

80% (if concurrent bact conj then most likely H Flu and resistant to amoxicillin)

34
Q

When to do CWD mastoidectomy

A

SCC fistula, posterior canal wall damage due to cholesteatoma, sclerotic mastoid prevents visualization, unable to follow up or get more surgeries

35
Q

Otosclerosis presentation and CT

A

20-40 progressive CHL (rare SNHL), FHx
Remodel otic capsule, lose piston Action
Otospongiosis, lucent temporal focus

36
Q

Mechanism of passive upper eyelid closure

A

Relaxation of LPS

37
Q

Most susceptible CN7 segment to entrapment neuropathy

A

Labyrinthine segment (narrowest portion of fallopian canal)

38
Q

Symptoms of SCC dehiscence

A

CHL, aural fullness, vertigo, autophony

39
Q

Portions of canal numb with acoustic neuroma compression

A

Posterior, Superior, Medial

Hitzelberger Sign

40
Q

How long does it take for CSF leak to typically stop after T-bone fx

A

7 days

41
Q

2 most common causes strider in children

A

Laryngomalacia

U/l VC paralysis (iatrogenic usually)

42
Q

Lab test to distinguish hemangioma from vascular malformation

A

GLUT-1 positive hemang

43
Q

Post-adenoidectomy VPI

A

Resolves 4-6 wk usually

If 2 mo persistent…pharyngeal flap

44
Q

Bronchial cleft anomalies location relative to arch

A

Deep to own arch, superficial to subsequent arch

45
Q

Cleft percentages

A

50% lip and palate
35% palate alone
15% lip alone

Most common left unilateral

46
Q

Internal nasal valve

A

Upper lats, septum, floor

47
Q

Pollybeak deformity

A

Supratip fullness post-rhinoplasty due to loss of tip support, supratip scar tissue

48
Q

Layers of eyelid A-P

A
Skin
Orb Oc
Septum
Pre-aponeurotic fat
Levator aponeurosis
Muller’s muscle
Conjunctiva
49
Q

Toxicity of phenol chemical peels

A

Cardiac

Apply to individual facial subunits in 15 min intervals

50
Q

Facelift common complication and nerve injuries

A

Hematoma

10%, more common in men

GA, Marg

51
Q

Botox mechanism

A

Presynaptic NMJ

Prevent Ach release

52
Q

Advantages of FTSG

A

Limits contraction

Better texture and color match

53
Q

First color to lose (vision)

A

Red

54
Q

Most common facial bone fx, site of jaw fx

A

Nasal

Angle

55
Q

VC abductor

A

Post CA

56
Q

Innervation of cricothyroid and interarytenoid

A

SLN

Bilateral RLN

57
Q

HPV types causing RRP

A

6, 11

58
Q

Primary management of VC nodules

A

Voice therapy

59
Q

Laryngeal EMG signs of denervation and reinnervation

A

De: fibrillation potentials, positive waves

Re: polyphasic motor units

60
Q

7 steps to handle airway fire

A
O2 off
Saline (douse)
Remove damaged tube 
Re-intubate
IV steroids, ABx
Bronch 
Delayed extubation, repeat bronchs
61
Q

Pendred syndrome mutation

A

SLC26A4

Hearing loss, enlarged vestibular aqueduct, euthymic goiter

62
Q

Sistrunk procedure key

A

Central hyoid resection

Resect tongue mm between hyoid and foramen cecum

63
Q

C Diff antibiotics

A

Clindamycin
Fluoro
Cephalosporin
Carbapenem

64
Q

How to manage posterior nasal packing patient

A

Admit, telemetry, pulse ox

65
Q

How long to wait for scar revision

A

At least 6-12 months (unless obvious concern not expected to improve)

Usually improve spontaneously after 1-3 yr