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Study--To Share > Title 8 - Use of Force > Flashcards

Title 8 - Use of Force Flashcards

1
Q

8.000

Where do officers derive their authority from?

A

The community.

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2
Q

8.000

When will De-escalation be used?

A

When safe to do so, and time and circumstances permit.

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3
Q

8.000

What is essential for effective law enforcement and public safety?

A

A strong partnership between the dept and the community.

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4
Q

8.050

What is the reasonableness of a particular use of force based on?

A

The totality of the circumstances known by the officer at the time force is used.

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5
Q

8.050

Is the reasonableness inquiry in a force case objective or subjective?

A

Objective.

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6
Q

8.050

What is force?

A

Any physical coercion by an officer in performance of his official duties.

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7
Q

8.050

What level of force is the use of control holds or joint manipulation in a manner that does not cause any pain?

A

De Minimis

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8
Q

8.050

What level of force is using hands or equipment to stop, push back, seperate or escort a person without causing any pain or reasonably likely to cause pain?

A

De Minimis

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9
Q

8.050

What level of force is deploying a stationary tire deflation device resulting in no vehicle contact?

A

De Minimis

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10
Q

8.050

What it Type 1 force?

A

Force that causes transitory pain or the complaint of transitory pain?

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11
Q

8.050

What type of force is a hobble restraint?

A

Type 1

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12
Q

8.050

What type of force is the deployment of tire deflation devices that make contact and deflate the tires?

A

Type 1

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13
Q

8.050

What type of force is the deployment of blastballs (bangout) away from people?

A

Type 1

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14
Q

8.050

What type of force is pointing a firearm at a person?

A

Type 1

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15
Q

8.050

What is Type II force?

A

Force that causes or is reasonably likely to cause physical injury greater than transitory pain but less than great or substantial bodily harm?

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16
Q

8.050

What type of force is the Taser?

A

Type 2

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17
Q

8.050

What type of force is OC?

A

Type 2

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18
Q

8.050

What type of force is an impact weapon?

A

Type 2

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19
Q

8.050

What type of force is the deployment of a canine?

A

Type 2

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20
Q

8.050

What is type 3 force?

A

Force that causes or is reasonably expected to cause substantial bodily harm, great bodily harm or death.

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21
Q

8.050

What level of force is shooting at a person?

A

Type 3

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22
Q

8.050

What type of force is a hard strike to a person’s head, nec or throat with an impact weapon?

A

Type 3

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23
Q

8.050

What type of force is striking a person’s head into a hard, fixed object?

A

Type 3

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24
Q

8.050

What is de-escalation?

A

Taking time to stablize the situation and reduce the immediacly of the threat so that more time, options and resources are available to resolve the situation.

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25
Q

8.050

Waht is the goal of de-escalation?

A

The gain voluntary compliance fo the subject, reducing or eliminating the necessity to use physical force.

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26
Q

8.050

What is physical or bodily injury?

A

Physical pain, injury, ilness or impairement greater than transitory pain but less than great or substantial bodily harm.

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27
Q

8.050

What is Subtantial Bodily harm?

A

Bodily injury that involves:
1. Temporary but subtantial disfigurement.
2. Temporary but subtstantial loss or impairemnt of the function of any bodily part or organ.
3. Fracture of any body part.

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28
Q

8.050

What is Great Bodily Harm?

A

Bodily injury which either:
1. Creates a probability of death.
2. Causes significant serious permamnent disfigurement.
3. Causes a significant permanent loss or impairment of the functions of any bodily part or organ.

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29
Q

8.050

What are the two types of Public Safety Statements?

A
  1. Public Safety Statement Officer Involved Shooting Card.
  2. Use of Force public safety statement card.
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30
Q

8.050

Is the PIT teqchnique a use of force?

A

Yes, always. Regardless if there is an injury or not.

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31
Q

8.050

Is ramming a use of force?

A

Yes, always. Regardless if there is an injury or not.

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32
Q

8.050

Whose approval is needed for a roadblock used as force?

A

A Lieutenant or above.

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33
Q

8.050

Whose permission is needed to set up a roadblock on a fleeing or eluding vehicle?

A

A Lt or above

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34
Q

8.100

Are warnings given as a threat of force considered de-escalation?

A

No

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35
Q

8.200

Can officers use force to stop a subject from swallowing something that is already in their mouth?

A

No

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36
Q

8.200

Can officers use a tire-inflation device on a moving vehicle?

A

No.

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37
Q

8.200

When can deadly force be used?

A

When an objectively reasonable officer would believe that there is a imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury to the officer or others.

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38
Q

8.200

What three criteria must be present before deadly force can be used?

A
  1. The suspect is acting or threatening to cause death or serious bodily injury to the officer and others, and
  2. The suspect has the means or instruments to do it, and
  3. The suspect has the opportunity and ability to use the means or instruments.
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39
Q

8.200

Do officers need to given verbal warnings before discharging a firearm?

A

Yes, when feasible.

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40
Q

8.200

When can deadly force be used against a fleeing suspect?

A

When an objectively reasonable officer would belive that it is necessary and there is probable cause that:
1. The suspect committed a felony involving infliction or threatened infliction of serious physical injury or death, and
2. The escape would pose an imminent danger of death or serious physical injury to officer or other person if not apprehended, and
3. Verbal warning has been given if, time, safety and circumstances allow.

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41
Q

8.200

Do officers need to call for aid for an injury even if the suspect doesn’t want aid?

A

Yes. exception is for apprant minor injuries (scrapes, minor cuts) that can be treated with basic first aid.

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42
Q

8.200

When will officers automatically summon aid?

A
  1. Every type 3 force
  2. Every canine bit
  3. Every use of force where subject mentions difficulty breathing.
  4. Taser, 40 and OC applications.
  5. Any force greater than Type I when the person is pregnant, pre-teen, elderly or physically frail/disabled.
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43
Q

8.300

What is the goal of using less-lethal weapons?

A

Interrupt a subjects behavior so officers may take physical control of the subject with less risk of injury to the subject or officers than posed by greater force applications.

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44
Q

8.300

Who will ensure that each officer in their command is trained on the weapons they carry?

A

Sergeants and Lieutenants

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45
Q

8.300

Can officers use a less-lethal weapon to prevent the destruction of evidence?

A

No

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46
Q

8.300

What are the only misd crimes allowed for K9 deployment?

A

DV Assault or mandatory DV order violation

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47
Q

8.300

What is the only property crime allowed for K9 deployment?

A

Completed burglary

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48
Q

8.300

When can officers use less lethal on subject who are visibly pregnant, elderly, apparantly pre-adolescent or visibily frail?

A

When there is an exigency or an immediate threat to any person.

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49
Q

8.300

Does a canine have to break skin to be considered a bite?

A

No. A bite is any contact between the canine’s teeth and suspect.

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50
Q

8.300

What is non-tactical use of a canine?

A

use of a canine to find evidence or conduct an evidentiary confirmation track.

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51
Q

8.300

Is an accidental canine bite considered force?

A

no, but needs to be screened with FIT.

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52
Q

8.300

How often will taser operators train?

A

Annually

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53
Q

8.300

What side of the body must an officer carry their taser?

A

On their support side

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54
Q

8.300

Is arcing a taser reportable force?

A

no

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55
Q

8.300

When can a taser be used?

A

When a subject causes an immediate threat of harm to any
person;
or
- When public safety interests dictate that a subject needs to be
taken into custody and the level of resistance presented by the
subject is:
(1) likely to cause injury to the officer or subject; and
(2) if hands-on control tactics or other force options would
be likely to cause greater injury to the subject than the use
of TASER.

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56
Q

8.300

What areas should be avoided when using a taser?

A

Chest, head, neck and genitals

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57
Q

8.300

Can tasers be used to stop dangerous animals?

A

yes

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58
Q

8.300

How often are tasers inspected by ETS?

A

One a year.

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59
Q

8.300

What must an officer do when he wants to turn in his taser or 40mm launcher?

A

Notify a supervisor in person and specify which non-lethal they will carry, and
Notify chain of command and Taser or 40mm Coordinator, via email, prior to deployment without the taser.

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60
Q

8.300

How often will ETS train officers on impact weapons?

A

Every 2 years

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61
Q

8.300

When are intentional hard strikes to the head with an impact weapon justified?

A

Only when deadly force is justified.

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62
Q

8.300

When are impact weapon strikes to the head screened with FIT?

A

All hard strikes are screened with FIT, even if mistaken or accidental.

63
Q

8.300

What areas of the body should be avoided when using an impact weapon?

A

Head, throat, neck, spine, genital and kidneys. All strikes must be screeened with FIT, even if mistaken or unintentional.

64
Q

8.300

Who will train officers on the use of OC spray and how often?

A

ETS every two years.

65
Q

8.300

When do officers need to request new OC spray?

A

When the can is five years past the manufactures date.

66
Q

8.300

Can OC be used against an animal?

A

Yes, to deter an attack or prevent injury to a person.

67
Q

8.300

What level of force is the use of a tire deflation device against a motercycle?

A

Deadly force

68
Q

8.300

Who oversees all speciatly unit weaponry?

A

Assistant Chief of Special Operations

69
Q

8.300

What level of force are blast balls, regardless if the intended subject was struck?

A

Type 2. (Bangouts are type 1)

70
Q

8.300

Who manages the 40mm LL launcher program?

71
Q

8.300

Who will maintain inventory records of the 40mm launchers?

A

Firearms Training Squad

72
Q

8.300

When may officers target a suspects head or neck with a 40mm launcher?

A

When deadly force is authorized.

73
Q

8.300

What is the preferred target area for a 40mm launcher?

A

Buttocks, thighs, calf or large muscle groups.

74
Q

8.300

Who can deploy 40mm launcher during a crowd management event?

75
Q

8.300

When can a 40mm launcher be used?

A

Same as Taser.

  1. When a subject is an immediate threat, or
  2. Person needs to be taken into custody and level of resistance is likely to harm officers, and the use of 40mm is less harm than going hands on.
76
Q

8.300

Is a UoF report required if a 40mm launcher is used but the target is not struck?

A

Yes. Is still a type 2.

77
Q

8.300

Who can give approval for patrol officers to use 40mm during crowd control events?

A

Chief of Police

78
Q

8.300

What is the preferred target area for pepperball deployment?

A

Below the waist.

79
Q

8.300

What type of force is a pepperball?

A

Mininum of Type II, regardless if it hit anyone.

80
Q

8.300

When can an officer use a firearm as an impact weapon?

A

Only when a subject is attempting to take the firearm or lethal force is permitted.

81
Q

8.300

When may an officer draw their firearm?

A

When the officer reasonably believes it may be necessary for his or her own safety, or the safety of others.

82
Q

8.300

What level of force is pointing a firearm at someone?

83
Q

8.310

Who in a precinct will mantain and issue MK-21 and Mk-46 OC canisters?

A

Operations Lieutenant.

84
Q

8.310

Who issues OC cannisters?

A

MK-3, MK4 and MK9 are issued by stationmaster/quartermaster.

MK21 and MK 46 are issued by a Lt or above. (check log monthly.)

85
Q

8.400

What level of force is the application of a spit sock?

A

De minimus

86
Q

8.400

An officer makes inadvertant contact with the neck when controlling a subject. There is no complaint of pain and no injury. Is this a use of force?

A

No, but must screen with a supervisor due to contact with the neck.

87
Q

8.400

What level of force is complaint of pain during handcuffing?

88
Q

8.400

What level of force is the complaint of pain or force what is likley to cause pain?

89
Q

What level of force is an abrasion, bruising or laceration?

90
Q

What level of force is a complaint of injury?

91
Q

8.300

What level of force is a minor joint dislocation?

A

Type 2 (screen with FIT)

92
Q

What level of force is a chipped or broken tooth?

A

Type 2 (screen with fit))

93
Q

8.300

Officers who use force while working for a secondary employer will screen the force with who?

A

An on-duty sergeant (unless a SPD sergeant is also assigned to the off-duty event.)

94
Q

8.400

Officers who discharge a firearm at a person while off duty must call who?

A

Must call and be contacted by an on-duty LT.

95
Q

8.400

Are animal shootings and unintentional discharges considered force?

A

No, but will be investigated the same.

96
Q

8.400

Who classisifies the initial use of force?

97
Q

8.400

Can the supervisor who orders, used or participated in the tactical planning that led to the UoF conduct the investigation?

A

No.
1. If a sergeant was involved, a Lt will determine who conducs the investigation.
2. If a Lt or Capt was involved, a higher-ranking officer will determine who will review it.

98
Q

8.400

What types of force must a Sgt screen with FIT?

A
  1. Any contact with the neck that causes or is reasonably likely to cause injury.
  2. Joint dislocation
  3. Chipped or broken teeth
  4. Accidental K9 bite
  5. All Type III
99
Q

8.400

If a supervisor is part of the tactical planing leading up to a use of force, but did not use force themselves, what do they need to complete?

A

Must complete a witness statement.

100
Q

8.400

Are witness statement required for Type 1 force?

101
Q

8.400

Must ICV or other video be reviewed by the sergeant during a Type 1 investigation?

A

No. No video needs to be reviewed.

102
Q

8.400

Does the investigating sergeant make a determination on whether force was within policy or law?

103
Q

8.400

Sgt Steps for handcuff discomfort

A
  1. Screens in person
  2. Determines if there is visible injury. If there is visible injury, it is a Type II
  3. If no injury, completes Handcuff Discomfort report.
  4. No ICV or BWV required.
104
Q

UoF- Who does the reviewing Sgt consult if he believes there is criminal conduct or a serious policy violation?

A

Lt or Captain.

105
Q

8.400

When must a type 3 investigation be complete?

A

Within 60 days (90 days for firearms discharge case.)

106
Q

8.400

How much release time is authorized for officers involved in a lethal force situation?

A

Witness officers: 24 hours release time. Mandatory. If they have a furlough the next day, that counts as teh 24 hours.
Involved officers: up to 4 days. Approved by BC.

107
Q

8.400

Who determines if a witness officer will be required to see a Dept-approved MHP before returning to work?

A

Fit commander, officer’s BC and Peer Support.

108
Q

What is the minimum # of suspect photos for a UoF investigation?

109
Q

Are photos required for a Type 1 force?

110
Q

Read 8.400 several times

A

Read 8.400 several times.

111
Q

8.500

Is a furlough, vacation or extended sick a valid reason for delaying a UoF review?

112
Q

8.500

What is needed when reviewing a UoF on a restrained person?

A

Articulation of the exceptional circumstances laid out in policy.

113
Q

8.500

How does an officer fix a discrepancy, confusion or lack of relevent in formation in a UoF Blue Team?

A

Write a supplementary statement and attach it.

114
Q

Who can read a Public Safety Statement card to an officer?

A

Sgt or permanent Acting Sgt.

115
Q

8.500

What does a UoF reviewer do when he comes across concerns that have not been sufficiently addressed?

A

Reviewer will address the concerns. This may be through:
1. OPA Referral
2. Referral to training
3. Supervisory counseling or mentoring

Action will be noted in PAS

116
Q

8.500

Who has the authority to make policy for the department?

A

The chief of police.

117
Q

8.500

Who reviews handcuff discomfort?

A

Reporting supervisor, who then forwards it to FRU for tracking. No Lt review.

118
Q

8.500

Does the Lt and Captain review handcuff discomfort reports?

119
Q

8.500

How are Type I UoF reports routed?

A
  1. Sergeant
  2. Lt
  3. Captain or designated Ops Lt
  4. FRU
120
Q

8.500

How are Type 2 UoF reports routed?

A
  1. Sgt
  2. Admin Lt
  3. Lt
  4. Captain (Not ops Lt)
  5. FRU
121
Q

If an admin force Lt is used, does the Sgt need to review any video for a Type 2 force?

A

No, but can if he wants.

122
Q

8.500

If an admin Lt is not available for a Type 2 UoF review, who is responsible for the video review?

A

Investigating Sergeant

123
Q

When an officer is involved in a shooting, what must he do before being allowed to return to work?

A

Schedule a visit with a Dept-approved MHP within 72 hours of the incident and visit the MHP before returning to work.

124
Q

What level of force incident must a watch commander respond to?

125
Q

What are the duties of the watch commander on a Type III UoF?

A
  1. Respond to scene
  2. Ensure CISM, bargaining unit, precinct Capt is notified.
  3. Set up ICS if it is a shooting.
  4. Ensure public safety card was read.
  5. Maintains control of outer perimeter.
  6. Contact OPA if serious policy violation.
126
Q

8.500

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring all video has been sufficiently reviewed for a UoF review?

A

The captain

127
Q

During an OIS investigation, who provides the officer with a replacement handgun?

128
Q

On a Type 3, who takes control of the inner perimeter when FIT arrives?

A

FIT captain or FIT Sgt

129
Q

8.500

When do UoF reviews need to be completed?

A

Captain sets timelines for Sgt and Lt review. It has to be to FRU within 30 calendar days.

130
Q

8.500

Who can approve a UoF review time extension?

A

Bureau Chief

131
Q

8.500

For type 1 and 2, who makes a determination regarding if the use of force was within policy and law?

A

Reviewing Lt (not admin Lt)

132
Q

8.500

Who may reclassify a UoF during or after the UoF review?

A

Any reviewing Lt or Captain.

133
Q

8.500

Can the FRU unit reclassify any force?

A

Yes, FRU may reclassy force and overule the chain of command decision.

134
Q

8.500

Can the UoF classification be altered upon completion of the FRU or FRB findings?

135
Q

Who can order a FIT response and investigation to any use of force?

A

A bureau chief.

136
Q

Who does the duty captain notify when there is an officer-involved shooting?

A

Section captain of involved officer
A/C of involved officer
Chief
Public Affairs Unit

137
Q

8.500

What UoF cases will be refered to the FRB for a full board review?

A
  1. Serious policy violation.
  2. All Type 3 force.
  3. Fit was contacted for Type II screening and declined to respond.
  4. Less-lethal weapons used on subject.
  5. Canine makes physical contact with subject.
  6. Crowd management events
  7. 10% random cases
138
Q

8.500

Can the FRB review fatal and significant injury events such as vehicle pursuits or other critical incidents?

139
Q

8.500

Who is the Chair of the force review board?

A

Force Review captain

140
Q

8.500

Who is on the Force review board?

A
  1. Training rep
  2. Three reps from patrol
  3. One rep from APRS
  4. One rep from investigation bureau
  5. One additional rep from anywhere.
141
Q

Who selects the FRB members?

A

Professional Standard chief

142
Q

Whose permission is needed to observe the FRB?

A

Professional Standards Chief

143
Q

8.500

How long is the term of a force review board member?

144
Q

8.500

How are FRB board determinations made?

A

By majority vote

145
Q

8.500

When are expedited summary review of a firearm discharge allowed?

A
  1. Unintentional discharge that does not strike a peson or cause concern for public saftey.
  2. Discharge at an animal.
146
Q

Who decides to have a expedited summary review of a firearms discharge?

A

Professional Standards Chief.

147
Q

If an admin force Lt is used, does the Sgt need to review any video for a Type 2 force?

A

No, but can if he wants.

148
Q

For crowd control, if the IC directs Type 1 force, who reports the force?

A

IC. Involved officers do not submit anything for Type I as part of an ordered crowd management event.

149
Q

For crowd control, if the IC directs Type 2 force, who reports the force?

A

Both the IC and the officer using the force

150
Q

Who investigates crowd management force?

A

Crowd Management Force Investigation Team (CMFIT)

151
Q

What will FRB review of crowd management force focus on?

A

Command of the incident rather than on individual officers force.

152
Q

How many members are added to the FRB for crowd management reviews?

A

Two members are added. Rank of Lt or captain for both, who have CC experience.

153
Q

Who conducts day-time force review followup for 3rd watch force cases?

A

Force admin Lt

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