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study > Title 15 - Primary Investigations > Flashcards

Title 15 - Primary Investigations Flashcards

1
Q

15.010

When are suspicious fires screened by ABS?

A
  1. Arson as determined by Marshal 5
  2. Death or life-threatening injury
  3. Significant property damage
  4. Fire bombings caused by criminal activity
  5. A suspect in custody for arson
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2
Q

15.015

When is ABS notified of an explosion?

A

When damage or injury occured from the explosion

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3
Q

15.020

When can a charge by officer be used?

A

Completed Misd investigations involving adult suspects who have not been booked into jail.

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4
Q

15.020

When is a CBO inapprorpriate?

A
  1. DUI
  2. Juvenile suspects
  3. Retail Theft program
  4. Felonies
  5. Traffic crimes
  6. Prostitution
  7. Prostitution loitering
  8. Sexual exploitation
  9. Crimes that require followup
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5
Q

15.030

What crime is “swatting”?

A

False reporting under the RCW

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6
Q

15.030

What Mir is used for Swatting?

A

530

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7
Q

15.030

What must a Swatting or attempted swatting report contain?

A

Swatting Flag and label

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8
Q

15.055

When is Homicide called for a death investigation?

A
  1. Homicide
  2. Assault with injuries likely to cause death
  3. Susp Deaths or abuse that lead to death
  4. Non-traffic death to person under 18
  5. Death of on-duty police personnel
  6. Found bones likely to be human
  7. Industrial accidents resulting in death
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9
Q

15.055

Who can order follow-up units to respond to a death scene?

A

Watch Commander

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10
Q

15.055

Who must respond to all incidents involving a dive rescue, drowning or near drowning?

A

Duty captain. SPD has primary responsibility.

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11
Q

15.055

Who is responsible for on-scene command for drownings, dive rescue or near drownings?

A

Seattle Police

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12
Q

15.055

Who approves homicide reports from patrol?

A

Homicide sgt. Patrol sgt informs them it is in the que

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13
Q

15.055

Who can enter a homicide scene?

A

Essential personnel, who include police, fire, medical examiner and prosecutors.

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14
Q

15.055

On a natural death invesitgation, what can the officer search for?

A

Identification of the deceased. (If a followup unit or ME is responding, do not search for ID)

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15
Q

15.055

Do officers make a scene sketch for death investigations?

A

No. Photograph the scene thoroughly.

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16
Q

15.055

How can a patrol officer/sergeant screen a dead body from public view?

A

Use a Dept emergency blanket.

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17
Q

15.080

Who usually makes the determination if a follow-up unit is responding?

A

The follow-up unit and primary unit sergeant will usually determine this.

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18
Q

15.080

Who has discretion to order a follow-up unit response?

A

Watch Commander

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19
Q

Short of exigent circumstances, who should be onscene and determine if a SWAT callout is necessary?

A

Watch commander.

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20
Q

15.080

When is FIT called out?

A
  1. Type III force
  2. Outside agency officer-involved shooting
  3. Unintentional firearm discharge
  4. Animal shooting
  5. Any death where suspect is in custody or was in SPD custody in the past 72 hours.
  6. Serious assault on officer
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21
Q

15.080

When is SAU called out?

A
  1. Any stranger rape where crime scene exists
  2. Serious injury to child under 12 involving questionable circumstances.
  3. Any rape where victim is seriously assaulted
  4. Sexually based incidents in custodial or institutional settings.
  5. Sexual asaults likely to generate significant media/public interest.
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22
Q

15.080

When is the robbery unit called out.

A
  1. Bank robbery
  2. Robbery involving shots fired, restraints, serious injuries or extensive media interest.
  3. Incidents involving high dollar loss
  4. Home invasions.
  5. Large scale commercial robberies.
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23
Q

15.080

When is ABS called out?

A
  1. Suspicious fire, arson, or fire that causes serious injury or death.
  2. Explosion that causes serious injury or property damage.
  3. Suspected or known explosive devices
  4. Any explosion of an IED (homemade bomb)
  5. Incediary device
  6. Site used to illegally manufacture explosives
  7. Found military or commercial explosives
  8. Large quantity of small arms ammunition or any ammunition .50 cal or larger
  9. More than a few pounds of fireworks or M80 or above
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24
Q

Who is notified for a serious asslt or death of an on-duty officer?

A

Ofc chain of command, media, appropriate follow-up unit and SPOG/SPMA.

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25
Q

15.080

When is the DV unit contacted?

A
  1. Serious DV assault where suspect was arrested.
  2. Serious DV assault where there is extensive evidence
  3. When victim has suffered injuries likely to result in death.
  4. DV allegations involving SPD employees (as victim or suspect). An on-duty Lt is required to respond
  5. DV incident involving employees of another law-enforcement agency. On-duty Lt is required to respond.
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26
Q

15.080

When is the GVRU contacted?

A
  1. Drive by shooting with injury or serious risk of injury.
  2. Any violent crime related to gang activity.
  3. Assualt upon officer by suspected gang member
  4. Riot/disturbance by suspected gang members.
  5. Serious assaults involving juveniles
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27
Q

15.080

When is the narcotics unit contacted?

A
  1. Seizure of currency of $10,000 or more related to a narcotics transaction.
  2. Clandestine drug lab
  3. Significant marijuana grow
  4. Safe deposit info or key that may indicate the safe box is related to narcotics activity
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28
Q

15.080

When is Human Trafficking/ICAC contacted?

A
  1. Child porn with suspect in custody
  2. Luring of child via the internet
  3. Missing child deemed to be endangered and believed that a computer contains evidence
  4. Escort services involving minors
  5. When child is arrested for prostitituion and willing to cooperate
  6. Large gambling incidents where detective expertise is needed.
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29
Q

15.080

What notifications are made when an officer is seriously injured or killed?

A
  1. Appropriate follow up unit
  2. Chain of command
  3. Media response unit
  4. SPOG or SPMA rep
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30
Q

15.080

How should detective case files be prepared?

A

Prepared to satisfy standards established by the prosecuting attorney’s office.

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31
Q

15.080

Who will publish the filing standards set by the prosecuting attorny’s officer?

A

Criminal Investigations Bureau

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32
Q

15.100

Can information or references regarding a kidnapping be made over radio?

A

No

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33
Q

15.100

Who needs to be notified regarding a kidnapping?

A

Violent Crimes Commander

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34
Q

15.100

In regards to a kidnapping, who makes notifications to the FBI or other outside agencies?

A

Criminal Investigations Bureau.

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35
Q

15.110

What determines jurisdiction in a custodial interference incident?

A

The child’s legal residence (not where the report is being made.)

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36
Q

15.110

Who makes the final determination of jurisdiction for a custodial interference incident?

A

King County Prosecutor office.

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37
Q

15.110

Who has follow-up responsibility for a custodial interference case?

A

DV unit

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38
Q

15.110

When do officers complete a missing persons report in custodial interference cases?

A

Only when directed to do so by DV unit.

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39
Q

15.110

What must happend before officers make a custodial interference arrest?

A

Screen the incident with a sergeant.

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40
Q

15.110

Who serves Writs of Habea Corpus for children in King County?

A

KCSO (SPD does not serve them.)

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41
Q

15.110

Can officers remove or transfer a child based soley on a parenting plan, custody or visitation rights?

A

No. Write a report and send it to the DV unit.

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42
Q

15.110

When can patrol take action or make an arrest in a custodial interference case?

A

Only in an emergency, such as one parent with a foreign citizenship is leaving the country with the child. Such an action must violate the current parenting plan. Otherwise, it is still legal.

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43
Q

Do officers have the authority to enforce parenting plans, custody or visitation orders?

A

No. Only the courts can enforce them.

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44
Q

15.120

What are the protected classes for a hate crime or malicious harassment?

A

Race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, gender, sexual orientation, gender expression, or a mental, physical or sensory disability (felon)

Homelessness, martial status, political ideology, age or parental status (misdemeanor)

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45
Q

15.120

What are the three prongs of malicious harassment?

A

Person maliciously and intentionally commits one of the following because of the protected status:
1. Causes injury to another person
2. Causes physical damage to property
3. By threat, places another person in reasonable fear of harm to his or her person or property or to the person or property of a third person.

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46
Q

15.120

What is a “crime with bias elements”?

A

A crime committed that is not bias-based and during the incident the suspect uses derogatory language directed at the victim’s protected status or group.

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47
Q

15.120

What is a bias incident?

A

Offensive derogatory comments directed at a person’s sexual orientation, race or other protected status which causes fear and concern, but no crime involved.

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48
Q

15.120

Who must respond to all bias crimes or incidents?

A

Patrol sergeant

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49
Q

15.120

What must a patrol sergeant do on all bias crimes or incidents?

A
  1. Ensure officers conduct a thorough investigation
  2. Notify a watch Lt.
  3. Send an alert email.
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50
Q

15.120

Who determines if an incident meets the elements of a hate crime?

A

The on-scene sergeant consults with homicide sergeant.

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51
Q

15.120

What unit typically handles hate crimes and bias incidents?

A

Homicide.
Precinct detective handle if only property is involved.

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52
Q

15.120

Who reviews all reports involving bias elements?

A

Bias Crimes Coordinator

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53
Q

15.120

Who does the patrol sergeant send an alert email to in regards to bias crimes and incidents?

A

Captain of violent crimes section
Bias Crimes Cordinator
Homicide Unit
Public Affairs Unit

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54
Q

15.130

What is the waiting period to take a missing persons report?

A

There isn’t one.

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55
Q

15.130

What paperwork is required for a Missing Persons

A
  1. Missing Persons Report in Mk 43 (one incident number per missing person)
  2. Missing Person’s Supplement.
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56
Q

15.120

What must be done after a missing person report is taken?

A

Notify data center. If missing person is under 21, notify within 2 hours of the initial report.

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57
Q

15.130

Who can approve an AMBER alert?

A

Lt or above

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58
Q

15.130

What is required for an AMBER alert?

A
  1. Child is under 18
  2. Not a voluntary runaway
  3. Appears to be a risk of injury or death to victim
  4. Sufficient descriptive info avalaiable to the public that would help them locate the child.
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59
Q

15.130

Who can aprove the cancellation of an AMBER alert?

A

A Lt.

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60
Q

15.130

What must occur after the cancellation of an AMBER alert?

A

The Lt convenes a debrief with involved personnel (if practical.)
Lt completes an after action and send copy to Violent Crimes Section Captain

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61
Q

15.130

Who approves an endangered/missing persons alert EMPA?

A

Lt.

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62
Q

15.130

When is an endangered/missing person alert activated?

A
  1. Person is missing under unexplained, involuntary or suspicious circumstances and the person is believed to be in danger because of age, health, mental or physical disability.
  2. There is enough descriptive info that could assist in safe recovery.
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63
Q

15.130

When does an endangered/missing person alert become a “silver alert”?

A

When the person missing is 60 or older, suffering from a form of dementia and is not able to return safely without assistance.

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64
Q

15.130

Who conducts follow-up for missing persons reports?

A

Missing Persons Unit

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65
Q

15.130

What does a patrol officer do on a scene of a missing child.

A
  1. Treats it like a crime scene
  2. Requests consent to search home/outbuildings (Consent to search form)
  3. Asks peson with last contact with child “What do you think happened to the child?”
  4. Identify child’s “zone of safety.”
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66
Q

15.170

How many identification procedures can an detective use with a witness to identify a suspect?

A

Only one. If a photmontage was done, cannot do a lineup. Only exception is if directed by prosecutor

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67
Q

15.170

Can a detective use a single photo identification procedure?

A

No. (unless suspect and victim know each other, and just need to establish the identify.)

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68
Q

15.170

How do officers conduct show-ups with multiple witnesses?

A

One witness at a time. The others must be seperated from the show up.

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69
Q

15.170

If there are multiple suspects in an incident, can the investigator put all of them in a photomontage?

A

No. Only one suspect per photomontage, regardless of how many suspects are involved.

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70
Q

15.170

What are the mininum number of filler photos or people in a photomontage or lineup?

A

5

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71
Q

15.170

What must an investigator do before showing a photomontage to a witness/victim?

A

Have a coworker who is unfamiliar with the case review it.

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72
Q

15.170

Can a photomontage be conducted via email?

A

yes. Either in person or email. (Victim/witness email must be verified prior to sending the montgate.)

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73
Q

15.170

Must a witness pick out a person in a photmontage?

A

No. Can choose not to pick anyone.

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74
Q

15.170

Can the investigator state that the suspect is in the photomontage or line up?

A

No. Must stated “the person or photo who committed the crime may or may not be present.”

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75
Q

15.170

How much time is given for a witness to view a photomontage?

A

As must time as needed.

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76
Q

15.170

Can a photomontage be recorded?

A

Yes. They should be recorded when practical. It not recorded, explain why in the report.

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77
Q

15.170

During a lineup, if the defense attorny wants the suspect in a particular location, does the officer have to honor that request?

A

No.

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78
Q

15.170

What is the suspect’s attorney’s role at a lineup?

A

A silent observer only. Cannot badger or question witnesses, officers or detectives.

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79
Q

15.170

During a lineup with the suspect’s attorny present, who documents any objections made, or lack of objections, by the attorny?

A

The sergeant documents in the follow-up report.

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80
Q

15.170

Who must be present during a lineup?

A
  1. Supervisor
  2. Lead detective
  3. Mininum of two ofther detectives in the line-up room.
  4. Photographer or videographer
  5. Taser-traing officer, if available.
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81
Q

15.170

Can detectives use an identification procedure other than a photomontage or lineup?

A

Yes, after recieving training. Can still only do one type of ID procedure though.

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82
Q

15.170

Can a detective offer incentives such as cigarretess or candy to “filler” inmates to get them to participate in a lineup?

A

Yes

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83
Q

15.170

Prior to a lineup, must the lead detective notify the suspect’s attorney?

A

Yes. If the suspect does not have an attorny, call the Public Defender Association.

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84
Q

15.170

Can a lineup be recorded?

A

Yes. Must be recorded and advisement given that it is being recorded. If anyone objects to the recording, document objection and can no longer record.

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85
Q

15.170

What happens when there is an objection to videotapping a lineup?

A

Dont record (or stop recording) and take photos instead. Cannot object to photos being taken.

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86
Q

15.180

If evidence is at a scene and it is impractical to collect or submit, what must be done?

A

Photograph the evidence.

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87
Q

15.180

Who is responsible for the proper utilization of Evidence Technicians?

A

Sergeants.

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88
Q

15.180

When must officers take statements?

A
  1. Victim statements in all DV incidents.
  2. Witness and Victim statements in felony DV.
  3. Witness, victim and complainent statements in juvinile arrest investigations.
  4. Witness, victim and complainent statements in all felony arrest investigations.
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89
Q

15.180

When are canvass cards used?

A

Major crime scenes when there are multiple witnesses.

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90
Q

Where are canvass cards sent to?

A

The appropriate follow-up unit

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91
Q

15.180

What must all reports be?

A

Complete, thorough and accurate

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92
Q

15.185

What is a “vulnerable adult”?

A

60 years or older and
1. Mentally or physically unable to care for self, or
2. Incapacitated, or
3. Developmentally disabled, or
4. Admitted to any facilty, or recieving services, from home health, hospice or home care agencies.

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93
Q

15.185

Who is a mandatory reporter for vulnerable adults?

A
  1. Law enforcement
  2. On-duty DSHS worker
  3. Social worker
  4. Healthcare provider
  5. Operator of a licensed residence.
94
Q

15.185

What vulnerable adult crimes must be reported to Residential Care Services (RCS) or Adult Protective Services (APS)?

A
  1. Sexual abuse
  2. Physical abuse
  3. Financial Exploitation
  4. Abandonment
  5. Neglect
95
Q

15.185

Who do officers contact if they are investigating abuse or neglect of a vulnerable adult in a private home?

A

Adult protective services

96
Q

15.185

Who do officers contact if they are investigating abuse or neglect of a vul adult in a licensed care facility?

A

Residential Care Services

97
Q

15.185

Who follows up on financial exploitation cases involving vul adults?

A

DV/Elder crimes unit

98
Q

15.190

What must an officer do when taking a report of one stolen license plate?

A

Remove the other plate on the vehicle and give to the complainent for disposal.

99
Q

15.190

When investigating an autotheft with other crimes, how many case numbers are drawn?

A

Just one.

100
Q

15.190

When wil officers screen auto theft calls prior to taking an auto theft report?

A
  1. Complainent knows who took the vehicle
  2. Complainants child (juv or adult) took the vehicle
  3. If the situation warrants a missing person report, the vehicle info will be in the narrative.
  4. Rental car compnay is the complainent (inlcudes zipcar, etc)
101
Q

15.190

When can officers impound a recovered stolen vehicle?

A
  1. Owner authorizes impound, or
  2. Vehicle poses an immediate hazard, or
  3. Is illegally parked.
102
Q

15.190

What will officers do with a stolen recovery when the vehicle was stolen outside the city?

A
  1. Always impound the vehicle
  2. Obtain a new case number (this number will be used for any crimes associated with the recovery.)
103
Q

What is the retail theft program?

A

Voluntary program which allows a security officer to file misdemaor tresspass and theft cases without patrol officer involvement.

104
Q

Can officers make an arrest when responding to a Retail Theft Program incidet?

A

Yes, but officers must make an independent determination of probable cause.

105
Q

When an officer responds to a Retail Theft Program incident and arrests the suspect for a warrant or other misd charges, who handles the RTP theft charge?

A

The officer will book the suspect for the RTP theft/tresspass charge.

Adds the security incident report to his own report.

106
Q

15.215

When two or more residents live together and have dominion and control over firearms, if one wants to surrender it to police, can the police take it?

A

No. All parties present at the scene must consent. Same with searches.

107
Q

15.215

What is an evidentiary firearm?

A

Firearms that are evidence of a crime and may be required for future criminal prosecution.

108
Q

15.215

What is a non-evidentiary firearm?

A

A firearm that has no value as evidence. It appears to be legal to posses and ownership of the firearm is established.

109
Q

15.215

What is a Surrendered Firearm?

A

Firearms surrendered voluntarly or by court order and are not known to be evidence.

110
Q

15.215

Who handles Orders to Surrender Firearms?

A

SPD follow-up unit if related to an SPD report. Patrol wil handle when related to an outside agency investigation.

111
Q

15.215

What firearms seizures must be screened by a sergeant?

A

Firearms seized for community caretaking purposes, voluntary surrender and court-ordered surrenders.

112
Q

15.215

Where do reports related to firearms seizures get routed?

A

To the follow-up unit that would normally be resonsible for the incident.

113
Q

15.215

Who coordinates the release of seized firearms?

A

The follow-up unit resonsible for the follow-up of the incident.

114
Q

15.215

How much time must elapse between when the evidence unit gets the Property Releae form authorizing the release of a firearm, and the actual release?

A

At leaat 72 hours to allow notification of family that the firearm is being released.

115
Q

15.215

What must the sergeant do when a seized firearm is being released?

A
  1. Noftify any family or household members that requested notification of the release.
  2. Contacts owner of the firearm by letter or email to have them contact evidence unit
  3. Sends property release form to evidence
116
Q

15.215

Who conducts the background check when a seized firearm is being released to its owner?

A

Public Request Unit. (Evidence sends a background form to them.)

117
Q

15.215

Who reviews a Order to Surrender a Firearm before it is issued to be served?

A

Lieutenant verifies the order and evaluates it using the Warrant Risk Matrix.

118
Q

15.220

When will officers notify DSHS/CPS?

A

When a child is taken into custody for:
1. An abused or neglected child
2. A runaway
3. Child in dangerous circumstances

119
Q

15.220

If an officers identifies a way to assist a child that is outside of policy or statute, can they do it?

A

Yes, but must screen the incident with a supervisor and CPS, and CPS must agree to the solution.

120
Q

15.220

Who makes the decision if a child is in dangerous circumstances?

A

The officer at the scene. it is a subjective opinion of the officer.

121
Q

15.220

Who may an officer call for assitance in obtaining an approrite vehicle child seat?

A

CPS

122
Q

15.220

What is a Crisis Residential Center?

A

A secure or semi-secure facility established pursuant to the RCW.

123
Q

15.220

What is an “approved youth shelter”?

A

A facility under contract with DSHS, providing room and board in a supervised living arrangement.

124
Q

15.220

When can an officer transfer custody of a child to a CRC or approved youth shelter?

A

When the child is 12-17 and is a reported runaway or found in dangerous circumstances.

125
Q

15..220

When will a CRC or approved youth shelter refused to take a child when the child meets the criteria?

A

Child has outstanding warrants or is in need of medical, emotional or behavioral crisis evaluation.

126
Q

15.220

When is SAU contacted in regards to children?

A

Sergeant contacts SAU when the child has a serious injury and child abuse or neglect is suspected.

127
Q

15.220

When can a child be taken into custody without a court order?

A

If there is probable cause that the child is abused or neglected, and that child would be injured or could not be taken into custody before the order could be approved.

128
Q

15.220

Can an officer photograph a child?

A

Yes, to document evidence of the child’s physical condition.

129
Q

15.250

When will a sign-language interpreter be used?

A

When interviewing a deaf person as a witness, victim or suspect, or

When conducting a criminal investigation involving a minor child as a witness, victim or suspect and the parent/guardian is deaf.

130
Q

15.250

When a deaf person is arrested, when is an interpreter requested?

A

At the earliest time for notification of rights, warnings, interrogations or taking of statements.

131
Q

15.250

What is an intermediary interpreter?

A

A person who uses specific signs and gestures instead of actual sign language.

132
Q

15.250

Who is responsible for interpretor costs?

A

The dept shall pay when conducting a criminal inv and an interpretor is needed for:
1. interviewing a deaf person as victim, witness or suspect, or
2. interviewing a minor child whose parents are deaf.

133
Q

15.250

How does an officer request a sign-language interpreter?

A

Via on-duty Chief Dispatcher

134
Q

15.250

When 911 dispatches a call involving a deaf peson, whose responsibility is it to request an interpreter?

A

Communications will automatically contact an interpreter to respond.

135
Q

15.250

What provides a quick reference when encountering the deaf or hard of hearing?

A

SPD’s Deaf and Hard of Hearing Resource Card

136
Q

15.250

What does current case law say about using a person at the scene as an interpreter?

A

Case law disallows admission of the suspects statements.

137
Q

15.250

Can an officer use a person at a scene to translate a foreign language?

A

No, except in exigent circumstances. Officer should request an employee who can speak the language.

138
Q

15.250

What should an officer do if a person speaks a different language and there isnt an employee available who speaks the language?

A

Use the Voiance Interpreter service

139
Q

15.250

How many langauges does the Voiance line offer?

A

140+ languages and is open 24 hours a day.

140
Q

15.250

For patrol officers, how do they get in touch with Voiance?

A

Call Communications on a cell phone and Communications will dial Voiance then disconnect.

141
Q

15.250

How do detectives get in touch with Voiance?

A

Call directly.

142
Q

15.250

Are Voiance calls recorded?

A

Yes. So must inform all parties that the call is recorded. The recording can be subpoened.

143
Q

15.250

What information is required in a report when using Voiance?

A
  1. Telephone number call was made from
  2. Starting time of the call
  3. Ending time of the call
  4. Language of the subject.
144
Q

15.265

How long is the SR 99 Tunnel and how far underground?

A

2 miles long and 250 feet underground.

145
Q

15.265

Where are the northbound lanes for the SR99 tunnel?

A

Below the southbound lanes

146
Q

15.265

What are the 4 entry points for the SR 99 tunnel?

A
  1. NB and SB at Royal Brougham
  2. NB and SB at Harrison St
147
Q

15.265

For SR 99 tunnel response, what is “With flow entry”?

A

Responding units will enter tunnel with normal flow of traffic.

148
Q

15.265

For SR 99 tunnel response, what is Opposite Direction Entry?

A

Responding units will respond above or below the incident via the opposite direction roadway (but with flow of traffic) then go on foot using the pedestrian corriders to access the site.

149
Q

15.265

For SR 99 tunnel response, what is Wrong Way Entry?

A

Responding unites entering the tunnel the wrong way to access an incident.

150
Q

15.265

Before officers can utilize Wrong Way Entry for SR 99 response, what must first happen?

A

An officer or figherfighter on the scene of the incident must verify that traffic is stopped by a physical barrier and there is no traffic in the roadway downstream from the incident.

151
Q

15.265

Can an officer use WSDOTS traffic cams to verify traffic is stopped to make a wrong way entry to SR 99 tunnel?

A

No. Must be a officer or firefighter onscene to make that call.

152
Q

15.265

How many fire zones are in the SR 99 tunnel?

A

109

153
Q

15.265

How many emergency egress doors are in the SR 99 tunnel?

A

16 doors located every 650 feet.

154
Q

15.265

What safety systems does the SR 99 tunnel have?

A
  1. Deluge system that dispenses water (not foam)
  2. Ventilation system with 8 fans
155
Q

15.265

Who is the primary responding agency to non-fire or non-medical emergency incidents in the SR 99 tunnel?

A

Seattle Police

156
Q

15.265

What is the primary strategy for most incidents in the SR 99 tunnel?

A

With Flow response

157
Q

15.265

What are the three instances when SFD will start a Wrong Way Reponse on the SR 99 tunnel?

A
  1. Major Fire
  2. Rescue Extrication
  3. Hazmat
158
Q

15.265

Who can overide any system in the SR99 tunnel, to include the deluge and ventilation systems?

A

SDOT Traffic Management Center

159
Q

15.265

Who must respond if officers utlize a Opposite Entry or Wrong Way entry to the SR99 tunnel during an incident?

A

A SPD supervisor

160
Q

15.265

What does a Wrong Way Response on the SR 99 tunnel trigger?

A

It triggers a Unified Command Response invovling SPD, SFD, SDOT and WSDOT. An on-duty Lt must repond to Unified Command

161
Q

15.265

What is a Lt role in a SR 99 incident?

A
  1. Respond to CP in North Operations Building
  2. Assume role as part of unitifed command
  3. Fire will have overall scene command until incident stabilized
  4. Enusre all appropriate documentation is complete
162
Q

15.270

Can officers arrest for SMC tresspass if there is or isnt a tresspass warning agreement?

A

Yes

163
Q

15.270

What are the three conditions of the Trespass Warning Program?

A
  1. Trespass Warning and Enforcement Authorization
  2. Conditions of Entry signage
  3. Trespass Warning
164
Q

15.270

For the trespass warning program, what is an admonishment and who initiates it?

A

It is a revocation of permission for an individual to enter or reamon on property. it is initiated by the proprieter.

165
Q

15.270

Who manages the trespass warning program for each precinct?

A

Captain will designate a person to manage it.

166
Q

15.270

How is a place with mulptile business, like a strip mall, handled under the trespass warning program.

A

Each business wil have to enter it and it is only for their busines, not comman areas (parking lot, halls.)

Property owner can issue one for the common areas, but not for indiviual businesses.

167
Q

15.270

Who decides if the Conditions of Entry sign was property displayed?

A

Investigating officer.

168
Q

15.270

Can an officer proactivly issue a written warning or make an arrest under the Trespass Warning Program?

A

Yes. If:
1. Person is on private property that has a current Trespass Warning and Enfrocement agreement on file, and
2. Condition of entry signs are posted, and
3. Person is engaged in prohibited behavior, and
4. (for arrest) person has been given a tespass warning in Mark43.

169
Q

15.270

Can a proprietor revoke tespass warnings or instruct SPD not to issue warrings to a particualr person?

A

Yes. Can do so by email, mail or in person.

170
Q

15.270

Who enters a persons name who has been trespassed into Mark 43?

A

Pct Operations Admin Specialist

171
Q

15.280

Who is required to maintain a current Breath Test card?

A

Sgt and officers assigned to patrol or traffic, or who regulary wear a uniform while on duty.

172
Q

15.280

How often must a person take a Breath Test recertification?

A

every 3 years

173
Q

15.280

What guidelines do officers follow for DUI/PC investigations?

A

Wash State Patrol guidelines

174
Q

15.280

Can officers request on outside agency to process their DUI stop?

A

No. Officers will complete the investigation. However, a Lt or above may approve the rquest of an outside agnecy.

175
Q

15.280

Which DUI arrests must be booked?

A
  1. Those with pending DUI/PC
  2. Those with a conviction or deferred prosecution within the last ten years, in any state.
  3. Those with prior Veh Homicide or Veh Assualt conviction, in any state.
176
Q

15.280

Are officers required to adminster a breath test for every dui arrest?

A

No. A search warrant for blood can be done.

177
Q

15.280

For a DUI search warrant for blood, how is the person who drew the blood entered on the report?

A

As a Witness.

178
Q

15.280

When does DUI paperwork need to be completed?

A
  1. For a booking, end of shift.
  2. For a non-booking, next day with approval of a supervisor
179
Q

15.280

When is CPS called for a DUI investigation?

A

If passenger is under 16 and DUI suspect is parent, guardin, legal custodian, sibling or half sibling.

180
Q

15.330

Who is called out when there is a serious assualt on an officer?

A

Homicide. However, if the officer used reportable force, FIT will respond instead.

181
Q

15.330

What is a serious assault on an officer?

A

Substantial or great bodily harm or officer loses consciousness from the assault.

182
Q

15.330

When is a Hazard Report required?

A
  1. Any physical or attempted physical assault on the officer.
  2. Threats of violence toward a criminal justice employee or his family.
  3. Specific threats to a dept or multiple employees of a LEO agency.
  4. threats of suicde by cop
  5. threats to criminal justice personnel from other states.
183
Q

15.330

Do witness officers to an assault or threat file a hazard report?

A

No

184
Q

15.330

What is the Lt role for a serious assault on an officer?

A
  1. Screens incident and advised duty captain.
  2. Call FIT or homicide, if necessary.
  3. Advise bureau chief via email
  4. Approves hazard report and submits to data center.
185
Q

How long after the incident must hazard reports be submitted?

A

By end of shift, unless Sgt gives an extension up to 72 hours.

186
Q

15.330

Who must approve hazard reports?

A

Lt or Captain. Must have Lt or Captain signature on it.

187
Q

15.330

Who enters hazard reports?

A

Data Center

188
Q

15.330

How long is a hazard report valid for?

A

Permanently. Unless an officer submits a written request through chain of command to remove it.

189
Q

15.335

what are CAD cautions?

A

Pieces of information linked to addresses that assist responding employees by making them aware of potential concerns related to the location.

190
Q

15.335

Who may submit a Cad caution?

A

Any employee. Needs sgt approval unless requiring minimum officer response. that requires Lt approval.

191
Q

15.335

Whose permission is needed for a CAD caution that requires a mininum officer response?

A

Lt

192
Q

15.335

How long is a cad caution valid for?

A

From one month to three years. Sgt or Lt make this determination.

193
Q

15.335

When are CAD cautions normally used?

A
  1. Ofc safety concerns from persons at the location.
  2. Hazmat, derelict building or other physical concerns.
  3. Location has an increased officer response.
  4. Location is hard to find.
  5. Access to code for the building.
194
Q

15.335

Who evaluates CAD caution submissions?

A

The CSCC analyst. No Response requests will not be considered.

195
Q

15.340

Who assignes officers to quadrants in a robbery response?

A

Communications

196
Q

15.340

What must occur for False Alarm robberies?

A

Officer does not enter until informed by communication that alarm is false.
A building rept meets them outside.
Officer enters and talks to chief dispatcher on the open telephone line.

197
Q

15.350

What is the purpose of an SIR?

A
  1. To provide command staff with rapid notification of significant incidents.
  2. To inform sgt, lt and captains of potential cross-precinct issues
  3. To make information about significant events quickly available.
198
Q

15.350

Who completes the SIR?

A

Followup Sgt (if responding) or patrol Sgt (if no folowup) Watch Lt assigns a sgt to write it.

199
Q

15.350

What type of incident is not documented via an SIR?

A

Sexual assaults

200
Q

15.350

How does the sgt submit an SIR?

A

via SIR application within the Patrol Portal

201
Q

15.370

May officers interview and record sexual assault victims?

A

Yes, to establish elements of the offense. These are not in-depth statements.

202
Q

15.370

Can officers use BWV inside a medical facility when interviewing a sexual assault victim?

A

Yes. Victim interviews are a law enforcement purpose.

203
Q

15.370

Can officers interview sexual assault suspects?

A

Yes

204
Q

15.370

What is documented in the narrative of a sexual assault report?

A
  1. Whether sexual penetration occured
  2. identificaion of the suspect
  3. Whehter there was forcilble compulsion.
205
Q

15.370

When does an indecent exposure arrest become an felony?

A

If there is any prior convictions for any sex crime. Can be an out of state conviction.

206
Q

15.390

All DV calls involving an employee of any law enforcement agency require what?

A

Response by an on duty Lt

207
Q

What is the Sgt responsibility for a Dept-involved DV investigation?

A
  1. Respond in person.
  2. Screen arrest and approve reports
  3. Send Alert Email to DV unit, employees chain of command and Records
  4. Notify Lt of the incident
208
Q

What is the Lt responsibility for a Dept-involved DV investigation?

A
  1. Respond to location
  2. If any outside agency employee is involved, contact that agency.
  3. Review all reports
209
Q

Who does the Lt notify if an SPD employee is arrested for a DV incident?

A
  1. Duty Captain
  2. Arrested employees section and bureau commander
  3. Public affairs unit
  4. OPA Director
  5. Chief of police
210
Q

What does a Lt do if an SPD employee is arrested for DV incident?

A
  1. Inform employee they are suspended.
  2. Take employees duty weapon, badge and ID card and deliver them to employees bureau chief at beginning of next business day.
211
Q

When is a No Contact order issued?

A

Issued by court subsequent to DV arrest. Court serves the order

212
Q

What is a protection order?

A

Order obtained by family or household member assaulted or fears abuse.

213
Q

What is a restraining order?

A

Order usually obtained upon filing for divorce or child custody.

214
Q

What is a vulnerable adult order?

A

Order obtained by a vulnerable adult or interested person on behalf of the adult.

215
Q

What is an anti-harassment order?

A

Order is obtained by a person alarmed, annoyed or harassed by another person.

216
Q

Do No-Contact orders have to be verified prior to enforcement?

A

No. They are issued by the court. All other orders need verfication.

217
Q

What order violations are a mandatory arrest?

A
  1. No Contact order
  2. Protection order
  3. Sexual Assault protection order
  4. Restraining order
  5. Vulnerable adult protection order
  6. Stalking protection order
  7. Child physical/sexual abuse order
  8. Paternity Action order
218
Q

When are order violations a felony?

A
  1. When suspect has two prior convictions for violating that order. Previous convictions need not involve the same victim. or,
  2. Violated the order with any assault or reckless endangerment.
219
Q

What forms does the respondent to a court order NOT receive when getting served?

A
  1. Law Enforcement Info sheet
  2. Motion and Order for waiver of fees
  3. Return of Service sheet
220
Q

What is an Ex Parte order?

A

Temporary order issued by a court pending a formal hearing.

221
Q

How long does an Ex Parte ERPO order last?

A

14 days. Final order can last one year

222
Q

If there are multiple orders to be served, which order takes priority?

A

ERPO

223
Q

How many attempts are made at serving an order?

A

At least three attempts.

224
Q

What must an officer do if he receives an order from an outside agency, presented at a pct or directly from a person?

A

Screen the order with a Sgt.

225
Q

Can a police officer petition for an ERPO?

A

yes

226
Q

What is a “family or household member” when it pertains to a DV incident?

A
  1. Spouses and former spouses
  2. Former and current state registered domestic partners.
  3. Persons with child in common, regardless of marriage or have lived together.
  4. Adult persons related by blood or marriage
  5. Adult persons residing together or who have resided together.
  6. Persons 16 or older who are presently residing together, or who have resided together in the pas and who have/had a dating relationship.
  7. Person 16 or older who had/has a dating relationsihp with another person 16 or older.
  8. Persons with a parent/child relationship.
227
Q

When is a DV mandatory arrest required?

A

Person is 18 or older, and within preceding 4 hours, assaulted a family or household member or committed felony harassment (threats to seriously injure or kill.)

228
Q

Does Victim Support Team have access to MDT or Mark 43?

A

No. Has authority by the Chief to access printed reports though.

229
Q

When responding to a DV call, what must the officer do if there is any indication or report of strangulation, suffocation or neck compression?

A

Request Fire and notify Communications

230
Q

Who is notified for a serious asslt or death of an on-duty officer?

A

Ofc chain of command, media, appropriate follow-up unit and SPOG/SPMA.

231
Q

For SR99 incident command with a wrong way entrance, what is the hierarchy of priorities?

A

SFD has command until incident stabilized. Then SPD has command until scene is clear. WSdot will then have command to conduct infrastructure checks

232
Q

When can officers do a warrantless blood draw for a dui?

A

Officer cannot reach a judge in a reasonable amount of time, or medical personal information the officer that the suspect will soon be medically unavailable.

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