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BIOL 319 > The Skeletal System > Flashcards

The Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

list the functions of the skeletal system

A
  • organ protection
  • mineral storage
  • body movement
  • blood cell production
  • body support
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2
Q

describe this skeletal system function: organ protection

A

bone surrounds and protects vulnerable organs and structures (brain, heart, lungs, etc.)

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3
Q

describe this skeletal system function: mineral storage

A
  • bone serves as a storage location for minerals including calcium and phosphorus (in phosphate)
  • Ca2+, PO43+
  • calcium and phosphate salt makes the bones hard
  • the bones can store and give to blood in a regulated way
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4
Q

describe this skeletal system function: body movement

A
  • bone works with muscles and ligaments to produce body movements
  • muscular system produces the force, skeletal system anchors muscles and is what is actually being moved
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5
Q

describe this skeletal system function: blood cell production

A
  • bone houses red bone marrow which gives rise to all blood cells
  • all bones have blood cell forming tissue (red bone marrow)
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6
Q

describe this skeletal system function: body support

A
  • bone’s dense makeup is well suited for bearing the body’s weight
  • bone is hard and does to bend allowing it to bear weight
  • skeletal system is a scaffold: rigid structure that all soft structures can attach to
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7
Q

what are the two part of the skeleton

A
  • axial skeleton
  • appendicular skeleton
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8
Q

define axial skeleton

A

a vertical axis for the system

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9
Q

define appendicular skeleton

A

bones that form the appendages and the girdles

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10
Q

describe why the hyoid bone is special

A

it is the only bone that doesn’t connect to any other bone

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11
Q

what important structure originates at the hyoid bone

A
  • tongue muscles
  • important for swallowing and talking
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12
Q

what are the parts of the hip

A
  • sacrum
  • pubic bone (ilium, ischium, pubis)
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13
Q

what is the term for a single side of the pelvis

A

os coxa

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14
Q

what is the term for both sides of the pelvis

A

os coxae

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15
Q

what are the three regions of the pelvis

A
  • ilium
  • ischium
  • pubis
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16
Q

when do the ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse to form one solid bone

A

around the age of 10-12

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17
Q

what is the purpose of girdles (pelvic and shoulder)

A

connect appendages to the axial skeleton

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18
Q

what are the components of the shoulder girdle

A
  • clavicle
  • scapula
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19
Q

what is the most often broken bone in the body

A

clavicle

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20
Q

why is the clavicle the most often broken bone in the body

A
  • it is very superficial
  • when you fall on your arms, the clavicle takes a lot of the force
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21
Q

what are the main functions of the skull

A
  • protect the brain
  • house organs of special senses
  • provide place for intake of food and mastication (teeth, mandible, powerful muscles)
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22
Q

what are the two parts of the skull

A
  • cranium
  • facial bones
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23
Q

how many bones are in the cranium and how many are facial bones

A
  • cranium: 8 bones
  • facial bones: 14 bones
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24
Q

define skull

A

collection of bones within the cephalic region

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25
Q

how many bones are in the cephalon

A

22 bones (not including ossicles)

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26
Q

what is the difference between the cephalon and the cranium

A
  • cephalon: whole head made of 22 bones
  • cranium: 8 bones protecting the brain
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27
Q

what are the ossicles

A
  • 6 bones, 3 on each side of the temporal bone
  • make up the middle ear
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28
Q

describe the middle ear

A
  • airspace on each side of the temporal bone
  • each made of 3 ossicles
  • transmits soundwaves from the eardrum to the inner ear
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29
Q

what are the names of the discrete openings in the skull

A
  • foramina
  • fissures
  • canals
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30
Q

what is the purpose of foramina, fissures, and canals

A

provide passage for soft tissue structure (nerves, blood vessels)

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31
Q

which is singular and which is plural: foramina, foramen

A
  • foramina: plural
  • foramen: singular
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32
Q

describe how you would prepare a view of the floor of the cranium

A

cut off the skull cap (calvaria)

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33
Q

define calvaria

A

the skull cap

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34
Q

where do the first 4 cranial nerves all have at least 1 branch that runs through

A

superior orbital fissure

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35
Q

which cranial nerves run through the acoustic canals

A
  • facial nerve 7
  • vestibulocochlear nerve 8
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36
Q

which cranial nerves and structures run through the jugular foramen

A
  • internal jugular vein
  • glossopharyngeal nerve 9
  • vagus nerve 10
  • spinal accessory nerve 11
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37
Q

what structures run through the carotid canal

A

internal carotid artery

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38
Q

what structure runs through the foramen magnum

A

spinal cord

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39
Q

is the spinal cord a nerve

A

no, it is part of the CNS

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40
Q

which foramen run through the sphenoid bone

A
  • spinosum
  • rotundum
  • ovale
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41
Q

are teeth bones

A
  • no
  • they are bone-like structures
  • organs
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42
Q

define the nasal concha

A
  • flat plates of bone on both sides of the nasal cavity
  • superior, middle, and inferior concha on each side
  • lined with mucous membranes
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43
Q

what is the function of the nasal concha

A
  • increase the surface area of the nasal cavity
  • allows for more entrapment of particles
  • easier to warm and humidify air when inhaling
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44
Q

are there any perfect structures in the human body

A

no, evolution happens until a structure has more benefits than downsides

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45
Q

describe sinuses

A
  • airspace within the skull
  • named after the bone that the sinus in embedded in
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46
Q

what is the function of sinuses

A
  • lightens the front of the head
  • resonance chamber for sound
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47
Q

describe the downside of sinuses

A
  • easily infected
  • drainage hole for sinuses to the nasal cavity is usually very small
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48
Q

describe what happens when a sinus gets infected

A
  • the drainage hole shrinks allowing less fluid to exit, building pressure
  • voice may sound weird because sound cannot resonate through the sinus
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49
Q

explain why the maxillary sinus is weird

A

it must drain upwards, against the flow of gravity

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50
Q

describe the shape of the spine

A
  • elongated S shape
  • the spinal column sits on the dorsal side of the body
  • organs sit anterior to the spinal column
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51
Q

why is the S shape of the spine important

A

the curve centers the weight of the body optimally over the hips

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52
Q

describe how the spine is shaped differently at birth and why it changes

A
  • spine is a C shape when born
  • shifts to an S shape when the baby begins walking to match shift in the center of gravity
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53
Q

what is the only vertebrae without a body

A

C1, atlas

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54
Q

what happens to the size of the body of the vertebrae as you move down the spinal column and why

A
  • the body of the vertebrae gets larger as you move from cervical to thoracic to lumbar vertebrae
  • the larger body size is important for the spine to carry the weight above it
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55
Q

what is another name for the first and second cervical vertebrae

A
  • C1, atlas
  • C2, axis
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56
Q

how many cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx vertebrae are there

A
  • 7 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 4 coccyx
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57
Q

describe how the sacral and coccyx vertebrae are different than other vertebrae

A
  • they are unfused early in life
  • they fuse later in life
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58
Q

what does the C1, atlas vertebrae articulate with

A
  • occipital bone
  • holds the head
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59
Q

what are the visible bumps on someone’s back

A

spinous processes of vertebrae

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60
Q

what are the 5 types of bones

A
  • long bones
  • flat bones
  • irregular bones
  • short bones
  • sesamoid bones
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61
Q

describe the characteristics of long bones

A
  • longer than they are wide
  • most of the length is straight and cylindrical
  • have at least 1 bulge at the end of the shaft
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62
Q

examples of long bones

A
  • femur
  • humerus
  • distal phalanx of pinky
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63
Q

describe the characteristics of flat bones

A

mostly or completely flat

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64
Q

examples of flat bones

A
  • sternum
  • occipital bone
  • parietal bones
  • ribs
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65
Q

describe the characteristics of irregular bones

A
  • do not fit into any other categories
  • no specific geometric shape
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66
Q

examples of irregular bones

A
  • sphenoid bone
  • vertebrae
  • ischium
  • ilium
  • pubis
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67
Q

describe the characteristics of short bones

A
  • boxy shaped
  • as long as they are wide
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68
Q

examples of short bones

A

carpals in wrist

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69
Q

describe the characteristics of sesamoid bones

A
  • seed shaped
  • all develop within a tendon
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70
Q

examples of sesamoid bones

A
  • patella
  • some bones in the hands and feet that are variable in umber between people
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71
Q

describe the characteristic that made sesamoid bones different from short bones

A

all sesamoid bones develop within a tendon

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72
Q

what is a synonym of compact bone

A

cortical bone

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73
Q

describe compact/cortical bone

A
  • looks like solid bone
  • the outermost layer of bones, the surface you see
  • composed of multiple osteons
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74
Q

describe osteons

A
  • cylinders going up and down the diaphyseal wall of compact bone
  • anatomical unit of compact bone
  • made of concentric rings/lamellae, osteocytes in lacunae, haversian canal
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75
Q

which is singular and which is plural: lamella, lamellae

A
  • singular: lamella
  • plural: lamellae
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76
Q

which is singular and which is plural: lacuna, lacunae

A
  • singular: lacuna
  • plural: lacunae
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77
Q

define lacunae

A
  • little spaces within an osteon
  • each space contains 1 osteocyte
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78
Q

what is the most prevalent bone cell in the living skeleton

A

osteocyte

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79
Q

define the central/haversian canal

A
  • canal running up and down the diaphyseal wall of bone
  • within an osteon
  • contains an artery, vein, nerve
  • how blood can get to osteocytes
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80
Q

what type of tissue is bone tissue

A

connective tissue

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81
Q

does bone tissue have more cells or more extracellular matrix

A
  • mostly extracellular matric
  • little cells
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82
Q

describe canaliculu

A
  • small canals radiating in all directions from lacunae
  • connect to haversian canals
  • get nutrients to osteocytes
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83
Q

describe interstitial lamellae

A

lamellae between the concentric lamellae of osteons

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84
Q

describe circumferential lamellae

A
  • lamellae around the circumference of the bones
  • closest to the periosteum
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85
Q

describe the perforating/volkmanns canal

A
  • canals running perpendicular to haversian canals
  • start from the periosteum and connect to haversian canals
  • how blood vessels and nerves move from outside the bone to the haversian canals inside the bone
  • can connect 2 haversian canals to each other
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86
Q

define periosteum

A

the connective tissue surrounding all living bone

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87
Q

what are the functions of the periosteum

A
  • scaffolding that allows blood vessels and nerves to move through the bone
  • creates osteoblasts and houses them on the inner surface of the periosteum
  • attachment site for tendons and ligaments
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88
Q

describe bruised bone

A
  • the nerves and blood vessels of the periosteum has been damaged
  • not broken bone
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89
Q

what bones have spongy bone in them

A

all bones

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90
Q

where is spongy bone always located

A

internal to compact bone

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91
Q

why is it called spongy bone

A
  • looks like a dried out sponge
  • dead spongy bone tissues has many holes in it like a sponge
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92
Q

what are synonyms for spongy bone

A
  • cancellous bone
  • trabecular bone
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93
Q

define diploe

A

spongy bone and red bone marrow

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94
Q

define trabecula

A

single beam/strut in spongy bone

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95
Q

how are trabeculae arranged in non-weight bearing bones

A

in random directions

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96
Q

how are trabeculae arranged in weight bearing bones

A
  • arranged along the lines of stress
  • becomes defined as you get older
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97
Q

what is the point of trabeculae arranging along line of stress in spongy bone

A

helps the epiphysis become stronger and able to carry weight

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98
Q

what is in the spaces between trabeculae in spongy bone

A
  • red bone marrow
  • blood vessels
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99
Q

what is similar between a trabecula (spongy bone) and an osteon (compact bone)

A
  • both are made of rings of lamellae
  • both have lacuna containing a single osteocyte
  • both have canaliculi radiating from the lacunae
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100
Q

what is different between a trabecula (spongy bone) and an osteon (compact bone)

A
  • trabeculae don’t have a haversian canal
  • trabeculae are macroscopic (can be seen with the naked eye) while osteons are microscopic
  • trabeculae are covered by a membrane called the endosteum
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101
Q

define endosteum

A

membrane surrounding the outermost lamellae of a trabecula

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102
Q

what is the function of the endosteum

A
  • scaffolding for blood vessels and nerves to travel down/through the trabeculae
  • create osteoblasts
  • have osteoclasts
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103
Q

where are osteoclasts and osteoblasts found in trabeculae

A

within the endosteum lining the trabeculae

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104
Q

define appositional growth in bone

A
  • growth by adding to the free surface of the bone
  • accomplished by osteoblasts
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105
Q

describe osteoclasts in spongy bone

A
  • multinucleated
  • destroy bone
  • exist within the endosteum surrounding trabeculae
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106
Q

describe bone remodeling

A
  • done throughout the day
  • osteoblasts and osteoclasts collaborate
  • osteoclasts break down bone to give calcium to the blood when needed
  • osteoblasts build new bone when calcium is taken in
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107
Q

define hematopoietic tissue

A

red bone marrow

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108
Q

what is in the medullary cavity of long bones when you are first born and what replaces it as you age

A
  • full of red bone marrow when born
  • replaced by yellow bone marrow as you age
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109
Q

what is your skeleton made of as am embryo

A

hyaline cartilage

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110
Q

what are the 2 ways that hyaline cartilage can grow

A
  • appositionally
  • interstitially
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111
Q

what is the 1 way that bone tissue can groq

A

appositionally

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112
Q

describe appositional growth of hyaline cartilage

A
  • growing from the outside surface
  • chondroblasts in the perichondrium build more cartilage
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113
Q

describe interstitial growth of hyaline cartilage

A
  • growing from the inside
  • chondrocytes in lacunae go through mitosis
  • new chondrocytes move through the gelatinous extracellular matrix
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114
Q

why can’t bones grow interstitially

A
  • the extracellular matrix of bone is calcified
  • there would be nowhere for new cells inside the bone to go
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115
Q

define primary ossification

A
  • regulated destruction of diaphyseal cartilage that is replaced by bone
  • endochondral ossification (ossification within cartilage)
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116
Q

when does primary ossification occur

A

fetus at 2-3 months to birth

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117
Q

define secondary ossification

A
  • epiphysis of long bones undergoes ossification
  • lengthening and widening of bone at the epiphyseal/growth plate
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118
Q

what type of bone tissue is the majority of the epiphysis and metaphysis of long bones

A

spongy bone

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119
Q

what happens to the outer layer of cortical bone in the epiphysis

A
  • gets thinner
  • still is there
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120
Q

describe the difference between juvenile and adult bones in terms of the epiphyseal plate/line

A
  • juvenile: has a robust epiphyseal plate where the bone is growing
  • adult: doesn’t have epiphyseal plate, has epiphyseal line where plate used to be
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121
Q

describe the difference between juvenile and adult bones in terms of how the spongy bone in the epiphysis is arranged

A
  • juvenile: trabeculae are unorganized and go in random directions
  • adult: trabeculae are organized along stress lines to be better at weight-bearing
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122
Q

describe the difference between juvenile and adult bones in terms of the contents of the medullary cavity

A
  • juvenile: medullary cavity filled with red bone marrow
  • adult: medullary cavity filled with yellow bone marrow
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123
Q

what is special about the medullary cavity of the proximal femur and humerus in adults

A

the proximal end of the femur and humerus and adults retains some red bone marrow

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124
Q

describe the type of location of bone in the diaphysis of long bones

A
  • mostly compact bone on the outside
  • some spongy bone is on the very innermost surface lining the medullary cavity
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125
Q

when does juvenile bone officially become adult bone

A

when the last epiphyseal plate stops functioning and becomes an epiphyseal line

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126
Q

do all long bones become adult bones at the same time

A
  • no
  • different bones have different average ages that they become adult bones
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127
Q

at what average age are all your bones adult bones

A
  • 21-23
  • females have all adult bone earlier than males
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128
Q

are osteons visible with the naked eye

A

no

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129
Q

what are the layers of the periosteum

A
  • inner layer
  • outer layer
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130
Q

describe the inner layer of the periosteum

A

makes osteoblasts

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131
Q

describe the outer later of the periosteum

A
  • thicker layer
  • where tendons and ligaments attach
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132
Q

list the 4 types of bone cells

A
  • osteoprogenitors
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclasts
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133
Q

define stem cell

A
  • not yet a functional cell
  • destined to become either a particular cell type or to exist as a stem cell
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134
Q

what happens to the daughter cells of stem cells after mitosis

A
  • one becomes a particular cell type
  • one stays as a stem cell
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135
Q

describe how osteoprogenitors, osteoblasts, and osteocytes are all connected

A
  • different cell types that originate from each other
  • osteoprogenitor becomes osteoblast becomes osteocyte
  • 1 cell that transitions through different cell types
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136
Q

define osteoprogenitors

A
  • stem cells for bone
  • when the divide, one cell will become an osteoblast
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137
Q

describe the structure of osteoprogenitors

A

they look flattened

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138
Q

where are osteoprogenitor cells found

A

at the outer edge of the inner layer of the periosteum or endosteum

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139
Q

where are osteoblasts found

A

at the inner edge of the inner layer of the periosteum or endosteum

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140
Q

what do osteoblasts secrete/do

A
  • secrete collagen
  • secrete organic matrix
  • induce formation of inorganic matrix
  • form new bone
  • remodel existing bone
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141
Q

which is created first: organic or inorganic matrix

A

organic matrix

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142
Q

where are osteocytes found

A

in lacunae within bone

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143
Q

what do osteocytes do

A

stabilize and maintain bone matrix

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144
Q

where are osteoclasts found

A

in the periosteum and endosteum

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145
Q

describe the structure of osteoclasts

A
  • large cells
  • multinucleated
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146
Q

what do osteoclasts do

A

reabsorb calcified bone matrix

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147
Q

define howships lacuna

A

the space created between an osteoclast and the bone as the osteoclasts breaks down the bone

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148
Q

describe how osteoclasts are made

A
  • when bone starts producing red bone marrow during early ossification of bone, monocytes are formed
  • monocytes fuse together into larger cells that become osteoclasts
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149
Q

describe exocytosis

A
  • cell packages materials within into vesicles
  • melds the vesicle to the cell membrane
  • dumps contents of vesicle into the interstitial fluid/space
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150
Q

how are most things secreted from cells

A

exocytosis

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151
Q

what mediates the fusion of the vesicular membrane with the cell membrane in exocytosis

A

proteins

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152
Q

what are the two types of endocytosis

A
  • phagocytosis
  • pinocytosis
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153
Q

describe the cells that are capable of phagocytosis

A
  • few cells are capable
  • usually immune cells such as macrophages
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154
Q

describe phagocytosis

A
  • type of endocytosis
  • a cells swallows something from the extracellular space and brings it into the cell
  • large gulp of interstitial fluid
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155
Q

describe the cells that are capable of pinocytosis

A

most cells are capable

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156
Q

describe pinocytosis

A
  • type of endocytosis
  • very common in cells
  • cell takes a small sip of extracellular fluid
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157
Q

what tool must be used to see pinocytosis in action

A

electron microscope

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158
Q

describe transcytosis

A
  • the linkage between endocytosis and exocytosis
  • swallowing something on one side of the cell, moving it across the cell, dumping contents on the other side of the cell
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159
Q

how many red blood cells can fit through a capillary at a time

A

1 RBC

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160
Q

why is it important for capillaries to be one cell wall thick

A

to maximize the transfer of nutrients and wastes with the bloodstream and surrounding cells

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161
Q

what type of cells make up the walls of capillaries

A

endothelium (epithelial cells)

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162
Q

how many cell lengths away do all cells need to be from a capillary to stay alive

A

8 cells away

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163
Q

what does the cytoskeleton in a cell do

A

maintains cell shape

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164
Q

what fibers make up the cytoskeleton

A
  • microfilaments
  • microtubules
  • intermediate filaments
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165
Q

list the fibers in the cytoskeleton in order from smallest to largest

A
  • microfilaments: 8nm
  • intermediate filaments: 10nm
  • microtubules: 25 nm
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166
Q

which fibers in the cytoskeleton act like human muscles and why

A
  • microfilaments and microtubules
  • can rapidly elongate or shorten to generate force
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167
Q

what is another name for microfilaments

A

actin filaments/strands

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168
Q

what are microfilaments made of

A

polymers of the protein actin

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169
Q

where are microfilaments usually found

A

near the internal surface of the cell membrane

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170
Q

describe the function of microfilaments

A
  • rapidly extend and contract
  • change the shape of the cell membrane
  • creates microvilli in cells
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171
Q

which fiber in the cytoskeleton act like the human skeleton and why

A
  • intermediate filaments
  • rigid protein strands that do not contract
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172
Q

what fiber in the cytoskeleton will become keratin in some epidermal cells

A

intermediate filaments

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173
Q

which cytoskeletal fiber drives mitosis

A

microtubules

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174
Q

which cytoskeletal fiber do motor proteins move along

A

microtubules

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175
Q

what do microtubules do during mitosis

A
  • move chromosomes to the center of the cell
  • pull apart sister chromatids
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176
Q

describe pump proteins

A
  • transmembrane proteins in all cell membranes
  • can move material against the concentration gradient
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177
Q

does the movement of materials against the concentration gradient with protein pumps require energy

A

yes

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178
Q

describe proton pumps

A
  • transmembrane proteins that pump hydronium ions (H3O+) against the concentration gradient
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179
Q

what are the two ways that hydronium is often written

A
  • H+
  • H3O+
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180
Q

what is the equation for pH

A

pH = -log(H+)

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181
Q

what happens to pH when there is higher H+

A

higher H+ = lower pH

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182
Q

what happens to pH when there is lower H+

A

lower H+ = higher pH

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183
Q

describe podocytes

A
  • circular rings of extensions on osteoclasts
  • seals the osteoclast to the bone so osteoclasts secretions that dissolve bone don’t go somewhere else
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184
Q

what secretions to osteoclasts produce

A
  • H3O+
  • hydrolytic enzymes
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185
Q

why is H3O+ an osteoclast secretion

A

creates an acidic environment that will dissolve the calcium phosphate salt (hydroxyapatite) of bone

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186
Q

what is the chemical weakness of calcium phosphate salt (hydroxyapatite) in bone

A

dissolves in high acidity

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187
Q

what components of bone do hydrolytic enzymes secreted by osteoclasts dissolve

A

organic molecules in bone such as collagen

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188
Q

describe how osteoclasts use transcytosis

A
  • break down calcium in bone on one side
  • use endocytosis to take up the calcium
  • move the calcium to the other side of the cell facing the extracellular space
  • use exocytosis to secrete the calcium into the bloodstream
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189
Q

what type of fiber in the cytoskeleton makes microvilli

A

actin filaments

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190
Q

why is it important for osteoclasts to have microvilli

A

increase surface area on the bottom of the osteoclasts so it can secrete more materials to dissolve bone

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191
Q

where are osteocytes found in the bone

A

within a lacunae that is surrounded by bone matrix

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192
Q

how are osteocytes connected

A

through canaliculi that connect the lacunae in the bone matrix

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193
Q

describe how canaliculi are formed as osteoblasts become osteocytes

A
  • osteoblasts start laying bone matrix that will surround the cell
  • before the matrix a hardened, osteoblast extend their body and meet with extensions of other cells which creates a gap junction
  • the space surrounding the extensions fills with interstitial fluid
  • the bone matrix hardens around the lacunae and the canaliculi
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194
Q

describe what is inside each canaliculi in bone

A
  • extensions of osteocytes in the canaliculi meet with other cell’s extensions
  • a gap junction is created between cells
  • the empty space surrounding the cell extensions in filled with interstitial fluid
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195
Q

why are gap junctions important for osteocytes

A

so the cells can communicate and trade nutrients/wastes/materials

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196
Q

what are the two major components of the extracellular component of bone matrix

A
  • organic matrix
  • inorganic matrix
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197
Q

which part of the extracellular bone matrix is produced first by osteoblasts

A

organic matrix

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198
Q

what is another name for the organic bone matrix

A

osteoid

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199
Q

what are the components of the organic bone matrix

A
  • ground substance
  • extracellular fibers
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200
Q

what are the components of the ground substance of organic bone matrix

A
  • proteoglycan aggregates
  • hyaluronic acid
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201
Q

is the ground substance of organic bone matrix fibrous

A

no

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202
Q

what type of macromolecule is hyaluronic acid

A

carbohydrate

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203
Q

what does hyaluronic acid do

A

increases viscosity of extracellular fluid

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204
Q

where is hyaluronic acid found in the body

A
  • ground substance of organic bone matrix
  • serous fluid
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205
Q

what are the components of the extracellular fibers of organic bone matrix

A

mainly type 1 collagen fibers

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206
Q

how many types of collagen fibers are there

A

20

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207
Q

describe type 1 collagen

A
  • very strong
  • gives bone tensile strength
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208
Q

what is the main component of the inorganic bone matrix

A

hydroxyapatite

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209
Q

what is hydroxyapatite made of

A

calcium phosphate salt

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210
Q

when is the inorganic bone matrix secreted

A

after the organic bone matrix

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211
Q

describe how osteoblasts help to create hydroxyapatite

A
  • osteoblasts secrete a material that lowers the solubility of hydroxyapatite which causes precipitation
  • once one tiny crystal of hydroxyapatite is formed, it will attract more material to make it grow
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212
Q

what type of feedback is the growth of hydroxyapatite

A
  • positive feedback
  • a small crystal is formed causing more and more crystals to form exponentially until there is no more space left for hydroxyapatite to form
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213
Q

how is an authentic human bone in a lab similar/different to a bone in a living human

A
  • similar in shape and geometry
  • living bone has organic matrix while nonliving bone does not, nonliving bone only has hydroxyapatite so it weighs less and is more fragile
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214
Q

what types of strength does bone have

A
  • compressive strength
  • tensile strength
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215
Q

define synergism

A
  • A+B=A+B+C
  • emergent property
216
Q

describe compressive strength in bone

A
  • originates from hydroxyapatite: hard, rigid, unbending
  • helps bone be protective and unbending under weight
217
Q

describe tensile strength

A
  • originates from collagen fibers in the bone
  • helps bone to resist twisting and bending
218
Q

what does the mixture of hydroxyapatite and collagen diminish

A

brittleness of bone

219
Q

describe the analogous structures in bone to steel cable reinforced concrete

A
  • steel cables: collagen
  • concrete: hydroxyapatite
220
Q

what happens to bone if there is less hydroxyapatite

A

causes the bone to bend easily

221
Q

what happens to bone if there is less collagen

A

becomes very brittle and will break easily

222
Q

what are the two types of ossification

A
  • endochondral ossification
  • intramembranous ossification
223
Q

what is the most common type of ossification

A

endochondral ossification

224
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A

takes place within the hyaline cartilage that will become bone

225
Q

describe intramembranous ossification

A

takes place within the embryonic mesenchyme which will become bone

226
Q

which bones undergo intramembranous ossification

A
  • skull bones
  • clavicle
227
Q

when does intramembranous ossification occur in comparison to endochondral ossification and why

A
  • intramembranous ossification occurs earlier than endochondral ossification
  • the brain develops very earlier after conception to skull bones must have a way to ossify earlier to protect it
228
Q

what are the 2 ways that tissue can grow

A
  • hyperplasia
  • hypertrophy
229
Q

define hyperplasia

A

increasing cell number by mitosis

230
Q

define hypertrophy

A

individual cells increase in volume/size

231
Q

when is a solid hyaline cartilage bone precursor made after conception

A

made within 1-2 months (4-8 weeks) of conception

232
Q

what are the two ways that the hyaline cartilage bone precursor can grow

A
  • appositionally
  • interstitially
233
Q

what surrounds the hyaline cartilage bone precursor and what is it made of

A
  • perichondrium
  • made of connective tissue
234
Q

when after conception does primary ossification occur

A

2-3 months (8-12 weeks)

235
Q

what occurs during primary ossification

A
  • perichondrium differentiates into periosteum in the diaphysis
  • osteoblasts begin laying bone matrix (bone collar)
  • bone becomes longer and wider
  • chondrocytes start to hypertrophy
  • a blood vessel (periosteal bud) enters the bone
  • woven bone starts to form within the diaphysis and later becomes spongy bone
  • osteoclasts will be made and activated to start chewing away the spongy bone in the diaphysis to create the medullary cavity
236
Q

explain why chondrocytes will hypertrophy during primary ossification

A

precursor to apoptosis (good cell death)

237
Q

describe the process of apoptosis in chondrocytes during primary ossification

A
  • chondrocytes in the center of the bone start to hypertrophy
  • cells surround themselves with an ossified matrix and make no canaliculi
  • there is no way for nutrients to get to the cells so they die
238
Q

what is the name of the blood vessel that enters the bone during primary ossification

A

periosteal bud

239
Q

what is the purpose of the periosteal bud during primary ossification

A
  • becomes a place where osteoblasts can travel and get nutrients
  • branches through bone matrix to provide nourishment for proliferation of red bone marrow
240
Q

where do osteoblasts grow the extracellular bone matrix during primary ossification

A

where the chondrocytes died (on top of the chondrocyte graveyard)

241
Q

what type of bone is always made first

A

woven bone

242
Q

how does woven bone compare/contrast to spongy bone

A

looks a lot like spongy bone but it has thicker beams/struts

243
Q

what are the 3 fates of woven bone

A
  • remodeled into compact bone
  • destroyed
  • remodeled into spongy bone
244
Q

what is the fate of woven bone in the center of the diaphysis in primary ossification

A

remodeled into spongy bone

245
Q

describe the zone of continued chondrocyte hypertrophy during primary ossification

A
  • zone of cartilage that surrounds the bone collar as the bone calcifies
  • migrates to the epiphysis as bone matrix is continually made in the diaphysis
  • new bone will replace the dead cartilage which extends the diaphysis
246
Q

when after conception does woven bone become spongy bone

A

close to birth

247
Q

when after conception are osteoclasts activated

A

close to birth

248
Q

what is the main purpose of osteoclasts during the end of primary ossification

A

chew away spongy bone to hollow the medullary cavity

249
Q

what does the medullary cavity fill with during the end of primary ossification

A

red bone marrow

250
Q

what signifies the beginning of secondary ossification

A

a sphere of chondrocyte hypertrophy proliferates in the center of the cartilaginous epiphyses

251
Q

what occurs during secondary ossification - infancy to toddler

A
  • osteoblasts and osteoclasts make woven bone tissue in the epiphyses as cartilage continues to hypertrophy
  • 1/2 of the epiphysis is still cartilage making the bones unable to bear much weight
  • periosteal bud blood vessel enters each epiphysis
252
Q

what occurs during secondary ossification - toddler to 20s

A
  • expansion of bone in epiphyses as chondrocyte hypertrophy continues in a ring around the epiphyses
  • woven bone becomes spongy bone in epiphyses
  • red bone marrow fills the space between trabeculae in the epiphyses
  • cartilage stays at the epiphyseal growth plate where the length of the bone will expand
253
Q

when does bone become mature bone

A

in late teens or early 20s

254
Q

what signifies that a bone is mature

A

the epiphyseal plate has ossified to become the epiphyseal line

255
Q

which bones use both types of ossification: endochondral and intramembranous

A
  • occipital bone
  • clavicle
256
Q

when does the clavicle stop growing

A

at age 30

257
Q

what does bone undergoing intramembranous ossification start out as

A

curved plate of embryonic mesenchyme

258
Q

when does intramembranous ossification occur

A

by week 5 after conception

259
Q

what is the first thing to proliferate in intramembranous ossification

A

ossification centers within the embryonic mesenchyme

260
Q

describe ossification centers in intramembranous ossification

A
  • when mesenchyme cells become osteoblasts
  • osteoblasts grow through fingerlike projections that meld into each other
  • osteoblasts surround themselves with bone matrix
261
Q

what bone is first built in the center of the mesenchyme plate during intramembranous ossification

A

woven bone

262
Q

list the steps of intramembranous ossification

A
  • ossification centers grow within embryonic mesenchyme
  • osteoblasts build woven bone in the center of the mesenchyme plate
  • blood vessels enter the woven bone and create red bone marrow
  • mesenchyme differentiates into the periosteum
  • osteoblasts from the periosteum lay down more bone matrix
  • spongy bone is built in the center and compact bone is built on either side
263
Q

describe what happens to mesenchyme surrounding the beginnings of intramembranous bone before it becomes the periosteum

A
  • as the bone grows, the mesenchyme cells will be pushed closer together and will flatten
  • there will be less extracellular space
264
Q

what type of tissue do x-rays, CAT scans, and MRIs detect

A
  • x-ray: hard tissue
  • CAT scan: soft tissue
  • MRI: soft tissue
265
Q

describe how you can differentiate between the epiphyseal plate and the rest of the bone on an x-ray

A

the epiphyseal plate is less dense than regular bone so it will show up lighter on the x-ray

266
Q

describe why a break of the epiphyseal plate must be carefully corrected with surgery

A

damage could cause stunted growth in that bone

267
Q

does the epiphyseal plate change in thickness as the bone grows

A

no, the growth of cartilage and apoptosis of cartilage occur at the same rate

268
Q

list the 5 zones of the epiphyseal plate from the epiphyseal to teh diaphyseal side

A
  • zone of reserved/resting cartilage
  • zone of proliferation/hyperplasia
  • zone of hypertrophy
  • zone of calcification
  • calcified bone
269
Q

describe the zone of reserved/resting cartilage in the epiphyseal plate

A
  • where stem cells of chondrocytes are
  • as the cells divide, 1 will stay in this zone as a stem cell and 1 will enter the next zone as a chondrocyte
270
Q

describe the zone of proliferation/hyperplasia in the epiphyseal plate

A
  • chondrocytes undergo mitosis
  • causes interstitial growth of cartilage as more chondrocytes fill the interstitial space
  • creates stacks of chondrocytes on top of one another
271
Q

describe the zone of hypertrophy in the epiphyseal plate

A
  • chondrocytes increase in size/volume
  • precursor to apoptosis of chondrocytes
272
Q

describe the zone of calcification in the epiphyseal plate

A
  • chondrocytes undergo apoptosis
  • creates an environment for osteoblasts to lay down bone matrix
273
Q

describe the calcified bone zone in the epiphyseal plate

A
  • osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate up from the diaphyseal region
  • osteoblasts begin to lay bone matrix and create new diaphyseal bone
274
Q

what two things occur as bones grow wider

A
  • widening of the medullary cavity
  • thickening of the diaphyseal wall of compact bone
275
Q

what cells widen the medullary cavity to make bones wider

A

osteoclasts

276
Q

what cells thicken the diaphyseal wall to make bones wider

A

osteoblasts

277
Q

which cell must have a higher activity to make bones wider: osteoblasts or osteoclasts

A
  • osteoblasts must have higher activity than osteoclasts
  • this is necessary to the diaphyseal wall will actually thicken
278
Q

describe what happens to the trabeculae of spongy bone during toddlerhood

A

trabeculae rearrange on stress lines to be better at weight bearing

279
Q

define Wolff’s law

A
  • bones thicken in areas where they are the most stressed
  • more stress on bones (exercise, physical labor) makes bones thicker, stronger, and denser
280
Q

what happens to bone and muscles during long periods of inactivity

A

atrophy

281
Q

what happens to bone and muscles when someone lives in space/zero gravity conditions

A

atrophy

282
Q

why do astronauts exercise in space

A

to keep bones and muscles from atrophying

283
Q

how much weight is 1 femur built to withstand

A

1/2 of your body weight

284
Q

what happens to osteoblast activity as you age

A

lessens

285
Q

where on the femur is compressive stress felt the most

A

medial diaphyseal wall

286
Q

where on the femur is most likely to bend from compressive stress

A

medial diaphyseal wall

287
Q

where is the femur typically the thickest and why

A
  • medial diaphyseal wall
  • area that feels the most compressive stress and it most likely to bend
288
Q

what happens when you compress a mineral

A

it induces an electrical current called piezo electricity

289
Q

describe how piezo electricity can explain how bone detects compressive force

A
  • piezo electricity is induced when minerals are compressed
  • can change the balance between osteoblasts and osteoclasts through paracrine factors
290
Q

what does paracrine mean

A
  • next to secretion
  • secretion moves through interstitial fluid and enters a neighboring cell (1-10 cells away)
291
Q

describe how bone can sense pressure differences and how that can help bones detect compressive force

A
  • the organic matrix of bone is squishy
  • pressure can compress lacunae and osteocytes
  • osteocytes may feel this and secrete something that affects other cells
292
Q

what type of secretion are growth factors

A

paracrine

293
Q

what are nonhormonal factors that affect bone growth

A
  • genetics
  • nutrition
294
Q

describe the distribution of heights

A

bell-shaped distribution

295
Q

what type of phenotype is height

A

polygenic phenotype (multiple genes involved)

296
Q

describe why having a diet that lacks calcium and phosphate is problematic for bone growth

A
  • calcium and phosphate make up the hydroxyapatite in the bone matric
  • calcium and phosphorus can only be obtained through diet
297
Q

describe why having a diet that lacks protein is problematic for bone growth

A
  • proteins are a major component of collagen and the ground substance in bones
  • some amino acids are essential, meaning they must be obtained from the diet
298
Q

what hormone is created during stress that can stunt bone growth

A

cortisol

299
Q

what type of hormone is cortisol

A
  • steroid hormone
  • stress hormone
300
Q

what are steroid hormones

A

hormones derived from cholesterol

301
Q

what stress hormone is released only during acute stress

A

adrenaline

302
Q

what stress hormone is released during acute and chronic stress

A

cortisol

303
Q

where is cortisol produced

A

adrenal cortex

304
Q

why is cortisol secreted during long-term stress situations

A

helps the body physiologically adapt to stressful situations

305
Q

what happens if the body doesn’t secrete enough cortisol

A

you can’t adapt to stressful situations

306
Q

what happens if the body secretes too much cortisol

A

can stunt skeletal growth

307
Q

is cholesterol always bad

A

no, it is only bad if you have too much

308
Q

what happens if you have too much cholesterol

A
  • can narrow arteries and block blood flow
  • causes heart attack or stroke
309
Q

describe why blockage of arteries to the heart and brain is extremely dangerous

A

the heart and brain do not have any redundant (back-up) arteries

310
Q

describe why cholesterol is necessary for life

A
  • maintains the cell membrane of all cells (temperature regulation and membrane flexibility)
  • creates steroid hormones which are needed to live
311
Q

what is a vitamin

A
  • organic molecule
  • supports the biochemistry reactions in the body
  • cannot be made yourself
312
Q

what does vitamin D do

A

promotes absorption of calcium from intestines

313
Q

what is vitamin D

A
  • vitamin
  • hormone
314
Q

describe why vitamin D is considered both a vitamin and a hormone

A
  • was first thought to be only a vitamin (unable to be made by the body)
  • later discovered that it is made by the body, moves through the bloodstream, and binds to intestinal cells
315
Q

what can a lack of vitamin D in kids cause

A
  • rickets
  • stunts growth of bones
316
Q

what does vitamin C do

A

necessary for the synthesis of mature collagen by osteoblasts

317
Q

what disease is caused by inadequate vitamin C intake

A

scurvy

318
Q

describe why vitamin C is essential for all body systems

A
  • vitamin C is needed to make collagen
  • collagen is important for all connective tissue in the body
319
Q

describe why a lack of vitamin C is dangerous for arteries

A
  • vitamin C helps to synthesize mature collagen
  • arteries are fortified with collagen
  • a lack of vitamin C creates a lack of collagen which means arteries are no longer fortified and can easily rupture
320
Q

what are symptoms of a lack of vitamin C

A
  • bloody gums
  • loose teeth, teeth falling out
  • internal hemorrhaging
321
Q

what does vitamin K do

A

necessary for blood clotting

322
Q

describe how you can ~sorta~ make vitamin K yourself

A
  • your own cells can’t make vitamin K
  • bacteria in the colon can make vitamin K and give it to your cells
323
Q

list hormones that influence bone growth

A
  • somatotropin (growth hormone)
  • insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)
  • thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
  • gonadal sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone)
  • calcitriol (vitamin D)
324
Q

what does the phrase necessary and sufficient mean

A
  • a hormone is necessary for a specific function
  • the hormone can produce the function by itself
325
Q

what does the phrase necessary and insufficient mean

A
  • a hormone is necessary for a specific function
  • the hormone cannot produce the function by itself; additional factors are needed to complete the function process
326
Q

is somatotropin (growth hormone) necessary and sufficient or necessary and insufficient

A

necessary and insufficient

327
Q

break down the term somatotropin

A
  • soma = body
  • tropin = activates
  • hormone that activates body growth
328
Q

what organ secretes somatotropin (growth hormone)

A

pituitary gland

329
Q

what is the main target for somatotropin (growth hormone)

A

liver

330
Q

does somatotropin (growth hormone) have direct or indirect effects on bone growth

A

both, but mostly indirect

331
Q

what organ secretes insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)

A

liver (specifically hepatocytes)

332
Q

what is the main target for insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)

A

epiphyseal growth plate

333
Q

describe why the name insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) is it accurate and not accurate

A
  • protein with similar amino acid sequence to insulin
  • does not have insulin-like effects
334
Q

describe the GH-IGF-1 hormone axis

A
  • the pituitary gland secretes GH
  • GH runs through the bloodstream to the liver
  • hepatocytes in the liver secretes IGF-1
  • IGF-1 runs through the bloodstream to the epiphyseal growth plate
335
Q

describe the effects/functions of thyroid hormones

A
  • role in linear bone growth and growth/development of the brain
  • regulates basal metabolic rate and body temperature
  • stimulate and support other hormones
336
Q

what are thyroid hormones made from

A
  • 2 tyrosine amino acids
  • iodine
337
Q

why is tyrosine important

A
  • component of thyroid hormones
  • component of melanin
338
Q

what are symptoms of hypothyroidism

A
  • fatigue
  • weight gain
339
Q

how can hypothyroidism be treated

A

hormone replacement therapy

340
Q

why is hypothyroidism dangerous for young people who are growing

A
  • connections between neurons won’t form
  • stunts skeletal growth
341
Q

describe cretinism

A
  • caused by low T3 and T4 hormone levels during growing years
  • results in stunted skeletal growth and limited neuron connections in the brain
342
Q

what are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A
  • weight loss
  • easily agitated
  • can’t relax or sleep
  • protruding eyes
343
Q

what often causes hyperthyroidism

A

tumor

344
Q

how can hyperthyroidism be treated

A
  • surgical removal of a tumor
  • taking radioactive iodine (I-131)
345
Q

how does taking radioactive iodine (I-131) treat hyperthyroidism

A
  • the iodine will bind to the thyroid gland and kill it
  • will need to take synthetic thyroid hormones
346
Q

where are gonadal sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone) secreted

A

ovaries or testes

347
Q

what type of hormone are gonadal sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone)

A

steroid hormones

348
Q

what do gonadal sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone) do

A
  • cause growth at puberty by stimulating the epiphyseal plates
  • cause the closure of epiphyseal plates
349
Q

describe how testosterone differs from estrogen

A
  • stimulates growth later than females
  • harder driver of growth at the epiphyseal growth plate: longer and more intense growth spurt, makes men taller than women
  • lazier about closing the epiphyseal growth plate: men grow longer and stop growing later than women
350
Q

describe how estrogen differs from testosterone

A
  • produced before male sex hormones are: girls have a growth spurt first
  • more aggressive about closing the epiphyseal growth plate: girls stop growing earlier than boys
351
Q

what is the set point for calcium in the blood

A

9 mg/dl

352
Q

what are symptoms of low calcium levels

A
  • muscles contract too often without regulation
  • can cause full body tetanus which can lead to death
353
Q

what are symptoms of high calcium levels

A
  • muscle weakness
  • lethargy
  • coma
354
Q

which is more critical: low calcium levels or high calcium levels

A

low calcium levels

355
Q

describe the parathyroid glands

A
  • 4 glands
  • lentil-sized and shaped
  • beside the thyroid gland
356
Q

what are the receptors and controllers during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • parathyroid glands
  • kidneys
357
Q

describe how the parathyroid glands are receptors and controllers during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • receptor: cells detect low calcium levels in the blood
  • controller: secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH)
358
Q

describe how the kidneys are receptors, controllers, and effectors during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • receptor: cells receive parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • controller: PTH activates calcitriol that is produced in the kidneys
  • effector: PTH stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb calcium
359
Q

what are the effectors during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • osteoclasts in the bones
  • kidneys
  • small intestine
360
Q

describe how osteoclasts in the bones are effectors during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A

PTH and calcitriol stimulate the formation of osteoclasts in bone which will increase blood calcium levels

361
Q

describe how the small intestine is an effector during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A

calcitriol stimulates calcium uptake in the small intestine

362
Q

what are the effects of parathyroid hormone during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • stimulates osteoclast activity
  • stimulates calcium reabsorption in kidney tubules
363
Q

what are the effects of calcitriol during negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • stimulates osteoclast activity
  • stimulates uptake of calcium in the small intestine
364
Q

are PTH and calcitriol hypercalcemic or hypocalcemic

A

hypercalcemic: increase calcium levels

365
Q

describe how the kidneys filter blood

A
  • filters out all components of the blood
  • reabsorbs what is needed
366
Q

describe what would happen to digested calcium if calcitriol was not present

A

the calcium would not be absorbed in high amounts

367
Q

when does PTH stop being produced during the negative feedback of low calcium levels

A
  • when there is sufficient calcium in the blood
  • the receptors will no longer detect a signal
368
Q

what are the receptors and controllers during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A

thyroid gland

369
Q

describe how the thyroid gland is a receptor and controller during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A

c cells in the thyroid gland detect high calcium levels and secrete calcitonin

370
Q

what are the effectors during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A
  • osteoclasts in the bones
  • kidneys
371
Q

describe how the osteoclasts in bones are an effector during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A

calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity so less calcium is absorbed

372
Q

describe how the kidneys are an effector during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A

calcitonin causes the kidney to allow more calcium to be deposited in the urine (less calcium reabsorbed into the bloodstream)

373
Q

what are the effects of calcitonin during negative feedback of high calcium levels

A
  • inhibits osteoclast activity in the bones
  • stimulates the kidneys to absorb less calcium into the blood
374
Q

is calcitonin hypercalcemic or hypocalcemic

A

hypocalcemic: decreases calcium levels

375
Q

which is more physiologically important: PTH or calcitonin

A

PTH

376
Q

describe why calcitonin is important for people who are growing

A
  • helps to deposit lots of calcium into the bone
  • may help support rapid bone growth
377
Q

describe parathyroid tumors

A
  • overproduce PTH
  • can cause too high levels of calcium in the blood
  • usually not cancerous
378
Q

how many organs and organ systems are necessary to synthesize vitamin D in the body

A
  • 3 organs
  • 3 organ systems
379
Q

what is required for the synthesis of vitamin D in the body

A

UV light produced by the sun

380
Q

what happens if you get too much or too little UV light exposure

A
  • too much: skin cancer
  • too little: no vitamin D production in the body
381
Q

where does the first hydroxylation of vitamin D production take place

A

skin

382
Q

describe the first hydroxylation of vitamin D production

A
  • UV light stimulates the enzyme 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin
  • the enzyme 7-decholesterol activates the attachment of a hydroxyl group to create cholecalciferol which enters the bloodstream
383
Q

where does the second hydroxylation of vitamin D production take place

A

liver

384
Q

describe the second hydroxylation of vitamin D production

A
  • cholecalciferol enters the liver
  • liver enzymes stimulate the attachment of another hydroxyl group to create calcidiol which enters the bloodstream
385
Q

where does the third hydroxylation of vitamin D production take place

A

kidneys

386
Q

describe the third hydroxylation of vitamin D production

A
  • calcidiol enters the kidneys
  • kidney enzymes are stimulated by PTH to attach another hydroxyl group to create calcitriol which enters the bloodstream
387
Q

what is the scientific name for vitamin D

A

calcitriol

388
Q

describe what it means that vitamin D production is PTH dependent

A
  • the kidney enzymes during the third hydroxylation won’t be stimulated unless PTH is present
  • vitamin D will not be formed without PTH
389
Q

what does IGF-1 do once it enters the epiphyseal growth plate

A
  • stimulates cells in the EGP to divide
  • these cells will them produce IGF-1 themselves within the EGP
390
Q

define paracrine factors

A
  • secretions similar to endocrine but they do not enter the blood stream
  • secretions move through interstitial fluid, up to 8 cell lengths
  • stimulate neighboring cells
391
Q

what are common paracrine factors

A

many growth factors

392
Q

is IGF-1 a paracrine factor or a hormone

A
  • hormone as it is produced in the liver and travels through the bloodstream to the epiphyseal growth plate
  • paracrine factor as it is secreted by cells in the epiphyseal growth plate and stimulates neighboring cells
393
Q

what is vitamin D3

A

cholecalciferol

394
Q

what race and gender are more likely to get osteoporosis

A
  • caucasian
  • women
395
Q

how does osteoporosis in men compare to osteoporosis in women

A
  • women are more likely to get osteoporosis
  • in men, osteoporosis generally starts later and is less severe than in women
396
Q

describe what is generally happening during osteoporosis

A

osteoclast activity outpaces osteoblast activity

397
Q

what can exacerbate osteoporosis

A

low vitamin D and calcium levels

398
Q

what ages does Wolff’s law apply to

A
  • any age
  • bones can grow thicker and denser with activity at almost any age
399
Q

define osteopenia

A
  • pro-osteoporosis
  • may become osteoporosis
400
Q

at what ages is osteoblast activity greater than osteoclast activity

A

0-20s

401
Q

at what ages is osteoblast activity equal to osteoblast activity

A

20s-40s

402
Q

at what age is osteoblast activity less than osteoclast activity

A
  • 40s+
  • larger imbalance than normal in people with osteoporosis
403
Q

describe the difference in trabeculae between a bone with and without osteoporosis

A
  • without osteoporosis: trabeculae are thick and solid
  • with osteoporosis: trabeculae are thinner and have holes and craters
404
Q

what type of bone is hit hardest by osteoporosis

A

spongy bone

405
Q

describe what happens to bones with osteoporosis

A
  • weaker
  • more easily broken
  • thinner
  • unable to withstand force
406
Q

what test can diagnose osteoporosis

A

bone density scan

407
Q

when is osteoporosis often detected

A

when someone breaks a bone with little force

408
Q

what is the worst bone to break, especially for older adults

A

hip (breaking the neck of the femur)

409
Q

describe why women are more likely to get osteoporosis than men

A
  • sex steroid (testosterone and estrogen) stimulate osteoblast activity; men lessen testosterone gradually overtime; women drastically lose estrogen levels after menopause (late 40s) when ovaries stop producing it
  • women have less dense/thick skeletons anyway
410
Q

list treatments for osteoporosis

A
  • estrogen replacement therapy
  • selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
  • bisphosphonates
  • exercise (Wolff’s law)
  • vitamin D and calcium supplementation
  • hormone replacement with calcitonin or parathyroid hormone (PTH)
411
Q

what are the risks of estrogen replacement therapy for osteoporosis

A
  • heart attack
  • stroke
  • uterine/mammary cancer
412
Q

what is a possible less dangerous way to administer estrogen to lessen the risks

A
  • through a skin patch
  • transdermal
  • slow introduction of estrogen into the system
413
Q

define selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) as a treatment for osteoporosis

A
  • organic molecule crated in a lab that modulates certain estrogen receptors in osteoblasts
  • different enough from estrogen that it doesn’t have the same cardiovascular risks
414
Q

define bisphosphonates as a treatment for osteoporosis

A
  • lessen osteoclast activity
  • accelerate the apoptosis of osteoclasts to equalize osteoblast and osteoclast activity
415
Q

describe how exercise can be a treatment for osteoporosis

A
  • Wolff’s law: exercise can stimulate bone to grow thicker and denser
  • gentle exercises
416
Q

what are exacerbating factors of osteoporosis

A

low calcium and vitamin D

417
Q

is supplementing vitamin D and calcium a good single treatment for osteoporosis

A
  • no
  • won’t address the main cause
  • will aid in bone density slightly
418
Q

define calcitonin as a treatment for osteoporosis

A

inhibits osteoclasts

419
Q

what type of calcitonin is prescribed for osteoporosis treatment

A
  • salmon calcitonin
  • more powerful in humans than human calcitonin is
420
Q

how is salmon calcitonin administered as a treatment for osteoporosis

A

snort it

421
Q

describe how parathyroid hormone (PTH) can be a treatment for osteoporosis, despite the fact that it normally stimulates osteoclasts

A

when administered in large doses at specific intervals, PTH can have the opposite effect than it usually does

422
Q

what classified someone as having dwarfism

A
  • being less than 4’4”
  • having parents of normal height
423
Q

what are the two types of dwarfism

A
  • pituitary dwarfism
  • achondroplastic dwarfism
424
Q

which type of dwarfism is the most rare

A

pituitary dwarfism

425
Q

which type of dwarfism is the most common

A

achondroplastic dwarfism

426
Q

define pituitary dwarfism

A
  • pituitary secretes too little growth hormone, and therefore too little IGF-1
  • individuals are still proportional, just shorter
427
Q

what is the treatment for pituitary dwarfism

A

injection of authentic human growth hormone

428
Q

define achondroplastic dwarfism

A
  • without chondrocyte hyperplasia
  • unresponsiveness to fibroblast growth factor
  • underperforming epiphyseal growth plates
  • individuals have shortened long bones but a normal sized head and torso
429
Q

what is the treatment for achondroplastic dwarfism

A

none, other than expensive and dangerous limb lengthening surgery

430
Q

define cretinism

A
  • low thyroid hormone during early infancy/toddler stage
  • individuals have a short stature and profound cognitive deficit
431
Q

describe why cretinism causes limited bone growth

A
  • low thyroid hormone
  • thyroid hormone stimulates the GH-IGF-1 hormone axis
  • without this hormone axis, IGF-1 is not being sent to the epiphyseal growth plates and therefore bones aren’t lengthening
432
Q

why does cretinism cause cognitive deficits

A
  • low thyroid hormone
  • thyroid hormone stimulates brain growth and development
433
Q

what is the treatment for cretinism

A

thyroid hormone replacement

434
Q

what is the difference between rickets and osteomalacia

A
  • same disease; named differently for different ages
  • rickets: children
  • osteomalacia: adults
435
Q

what causes rickets and osteomalacia

A

not enough vitamin D or calcium

436
Q

what is the treatment for rickets and osteomalacia

A

supplementation with vitamin D and/or calcium

437
Q

what is the most common cause of rickets and osteomalacia

A

lack of vitamin D

438
Q

describe how a lack of vitamin D can lead to rickets and osteomalacia

A
  • not taking in enough calcium from your diet
  • osteoblasts can make the organic matrix but not hydroxyapatite
  • bones aren’t hard enough and will start to bend under weight
439
Q

why is rickets and osteomalacia very painful

A

bending of bones compresses nerves

440
Q

what causes gigantism and/or acromegaly

A

pituitary adenoma (tumor) making too much growth hormone

441
Q

what are the treatments for gigantism and/or acromegaly

A
  • surgery
  • hormone therapy
442
Q

who had gigantism

A

Robert Wadlow

443
Q

how tall was Robert Wadlow

A

almost 9’

444
Q

when and why did Robert Wadlow die

A
  • died in 20s
  • died from complications with blood flow due to gigantism
445
Q

how would someone develep acromegaly without gigantism

A

pituitary adenoma develops after epiphyseal growth plates close

446
Q

who had acromegaly and gigantism

A

Andre the Giant

447
Q

how tall was Andre the Giant

A

7’4”

448
Q

describe what happens when someone has both gigantism and acromegaly

A
  • bones grow linearly before epiphyseal growth plates close
  • after epiphyseal growth plates close, the head will continue to grow
449
Q

what aspects of the head tend to clearly grow in size in someone with acromegaly

A
  • forehead
  • nose
  • jaw
450
Q

when and why did Andre the Giant die

A
  • died at 45
  • heart disease: overgrown heart with thin walls
451
Q

who was Harvey Cushing

A

father of neurosurgery

452
Q

describe the surgery to treat gigantism and/or acromegaly

A
  • neurosurgery to debulk the pituitary adenoma
  • conducted up through the nose into the brain
453
Q

what 2 hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus control growth hormone production in the pituitary gland

A
  • GH inhibiting hormone (somatostatin)
  • GH releasing hormone
454
Q

what hormone replacement can be given as a treatment for gigantism and/or acromegaly

A

GH inhibiting hormone (somatostatin)

455
Q

what classifies a broken bone

A

any damage deeper than the periosteum

456
Q

define a linear bone fracture

A
  • parallel to the diaphysis
  • vertical
457
Q

define a complete bone fracture

A
  • bone snaps in half
  • two separate pieces are formed
458
Q

define an incomplete bone fracture

A
  • bone doesn’t snap in half
  • entire bone still connected with a break in it
459
Q

define a comminuted bone fracture

A
  • bone is shattered
  • usually requires orthopedic surgery
460
Q

define a transverse bone fracture

A
  • perpendicular to the diaphysis
  • horizontal
461
Q

define an impacted bone fracture

A
  • broken ends of bone are jammed together by force
  • ex: broken hip (proximal neck of femur)
462
Q

define a spiral bone fracture

A
  • breaks wraps around the bone
  • bone twisted
463
Q

define an oblique bone fracture

A
  • angle of fracture between transverse and linear
  • sloped line
464
Q

what are the stages of bone healing after a break

A
  • hematoma formation
  • callus formation
  • callus ossification
  • bone remodeling
465
Q

describe the first stage of bone healing after a break

A
  • hematoma formation
  • accumulation of blood around the break
  • swelling from interstitial fluid accumulation
  • pain as fluid pushes on nerves
466
Q

describe the second stage of bone healing after a break

A
  • callus formation
  • happens over days to weeks
  • fibroblasts and chondroblasts create fibrocartilage covering around the break
467
Q

what type of cartilage creates the callus around a broken bone

A

fibrocartilage

468
Q

define a bone reduction

A
  • bones being set after a break
  • aligned at the ends so it heals well
469
Q

describe the third stage of bone healing after a break

A
  • callus ossification
  • osteoblasts convert fibrocartilage callus to woven bone
470
Q

describe the fourth stage of bone healing after a break

A
  • bone remodeling
  • woven bone callus remodeled into compact bone
  • osteoclasts dissolve the woven bone in the medullary cavity
471
Q

how long can it take for bone to be completely healed following a break

A

4 months

472
Q

what does the root arthro mean

A

joints

473
Q

what are the categories of joints based on mobility

A
  • synarthroses
  • amphiarthroses
  • diarthroses
474
Q

define synarthroses

A

immovable joints

475
Q

define amphiarthroses

A

slightly movable joints

476
Q

define diarthroses

A

freely movable joints

477
Q

what is the singular form of the types of joints based on mobility

A
  • synarthrosis
  • amphiarthrosis
  • diarthrosis
478
Q

what is the plural form of the types of joints based on mobility

A
  • synarthroses
  • amphiarthroses
  • diarthroses
479
Q

what is the adjectival form of the types of joints based on mobility

A
  • synarthrotic
  • amphiarthrotic
  • diarthrotic
480
Q

what are the categories of joints based on structure

A
  • fibrous
  • cartilaginous
  • synovial
481
Q

what are the types of fibrous joints

A
  • sutures
  • syndesmoses
  • gomphoses
482
Q

where are sutures only found

A

skull

483
Q

what tissue type is between flat bones of the skull in suture joints

A

dense irregular connective tissue

484
Q

at what point in time do you have the most surface area of a suture joint

A

at birth

485
Q

define fontanelles

A
  • sutures in the skull of babies
  • areas where dense irregular connective tissue is connecting flat bones of the skull
  • diminish as you grow
486
Q

what does fontanelle literally translate to and why is it given that name

A
  • fountain of blood
  • you can feel a baby’s pulse on the top of their head at the fontanelle location
487
Q

when do suture joints completely disappear

A
  • 4th decade of life
  • 30s and 40s
488
Q

define synostoses

A
  • joints that were once made of connective tissue
  • connective tissue lessens and bones are fused together
  • synarthrotic
489
Q

what are the joints that become synostoses

A
  • suture joints in the skull
  • synchondrosis at the epiphyseal growth plate
  • synchondrosis at the acetabulum
490
Q

what type of mobility to suture joints have

A
  • amphiarthrotic
  • small amount of movement is allowed
491
Q

why is it important for suture joints of the skull to be amphiarthrotic

A

need to move slightly during birth so the baby can move through the birth canal

492
Q

how can you determine the age of a skeleton

A

based on the fusion level of suture joints in the skull

493
Q

define syndesmoses

A
  • fibrous joints
  • bones connected by short ligaments of dense regular connective tissue
  • some classified as synarthrotic while others are amphiarthrotic
494
Q

when would a syndesmosis joint be classified as synarthrotic

A

when the ligament connecting the bones is short, allowing for less movement

495
Q

when would a syndesmosis joint be classified as amphiarthrotic

A

when the ligament connecting the bones is long, allowing for more movement

496
Q

example of a syndesmosis joint

A

radio-ulnar syndesmosis

497
Q

is the radio-ulnar syndesmosis considered synarthrotic or amphiarthrotic

A

amphiarthrotic

498
Q

are amphiarthrotic joints classified by slight movement microscopically or with the naked eye

A

with the naked eye

499
Q

define gomphoses

A
  • fibrous joints
  • peg in socket joints between a tooth and the mandible or maxilla
  • synarthrotic
500
Q

what type of movement do gomphosis joints provide

A

synarthrotic

501
Q

how are teeth connected to the mandible or maxilla in gomphesis joints

A

periodontal ligaments

502
Q

describe periodontal ligaments

A
  • keep tooth in the socket
  • network of ligaments for each tooth
  • partially calcified
  • made of dense regular connective tissue
503
Q

what cranial nerve innervates the teeth

A

trigeminal nerve V

504
Q

what happens if bacteria get between the gumline and the tooth root

A
  • can soften periodontal ligaments
  • make teeth more likely to fall out
505
Q

define crown of the tooth

A

above the gumline

506
Q

define neck of the tooth

A

even with the gumline

507
Q

define root of the tooth

A

under the gumline

508
Q

describe enamel

A
  • white part of the tooth
  • outer covering
  • made of almost pure hydroxyapatite
509
Q

describe why enamel being almost pure hydroxyapatite is good and bad

A
  • makes the teeth extremely hard
  • without the organic matrix, the teeth are very brittle and prone to chipping
510
Q

what is the hardest substance in the human body

A

enamel

511
Q

can tooth enamel regenerate

A
  • no
  • cells producing enamel are gone by the time the tooth erupts
512
Q

what substance is known to damage tooth enamel

A
  • acid
  • causes cavities to develop
513
Q

why is fluoride beneficial to teeth

A

makes the tooth better at resisting degradation by acid

514
Q

define dentin

A
  • part of tooth under the enamel
  • arranged in columns
  • bone-like: hydroxyapatite and collagen
  • softer than enamel
515
Q

what makes dentin

A

osteoblasts

516
Q

can dentin be regenerated

A
  • yes
  • made by osteoblasts, which the body always has
517
Q

define cartilaginous joints

A

bones joined by cartilage without a joint cavity

518
Q

what are the types of cartilaginous joints

A
  • synchondroses
  • symphyses
519
Q

define synchondroses

A
  • cartilaginous joint
  • thin plate of hyaline cartilage unites bones
  • synarthrotic
520
Q

what happens to the cartilage in synchondrosis joints as you age

A

cartilage gets thinner

521
Q

example of synchondrosis joints

A
  • epiphyseal plates
  • first rib and the manubrium
  • acetabulum: ilium + ischium + pubis
522
Q

which synchondrosis joints will fuse to become synostosis joints

A
  • epiphyseal plates
  • acetabulum: ilium + ischium + pubis
523
Q

when does the acetabulum synchondrosis joint fuse to become a synostosis joint

A

age 11

524
Q

define symphyses

A
  • cartilaginous joint
  • bones covered with fibrocartilage pad
  • amphiarthrotic
525
Q

examples of symphysis joints

A
  • intervertebral disks
  • pubic symphysis
526
Q

describe why it’s important for the pubic symphysis to be amphiarthrotic

A
  • bones need to move anteriorly and laterally when a woman is in labor
  • allows the baby’s head to move through
527
Q

describe the fibrocartilage pad in symphysis joints

A
  • large area of fibrocartilage
  • fibrocartilage surrounded by thin layers of hyaline cartilage which articulates with the bone
528
Q

what type of movement do synovial joints provide

A

diarthrotic

529
Q

what is the main importance of synovial joints

A

frictionless movement

530
Q

what types of nerves are in synovial joints

A
  • pain receptors
  • proprioceptors
531
Q

what are the two parts of the joints capsule in synovial joints

A
  • fibrous capsule
  • synovial membrane
532
Q

describe the fibrous capsule of the joint capsule in synovial joints

A
  • outer surface
  • tough, provides structural integrity
  • joins the two bones together
533
Q

describe the synovial membrane of the joint capsule in synovial joints

A
  • inner surface
  • delicate
  • makes synovial fluid
534
Q

why is synovial fluid necessary

A

lessens friction

535
Q

define proprioception

A
  • unconscious and conscious
  • all proprioceptors combine to give the brain information on how the body is positioned/oriented in space
536
Q

where are proprioceptors found

A
  • in the joint capsules of all diarthrotic/synovial joints
  • skeletal muscle

BIOL 319 (15 decks)

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