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BIOL 319 > Lab 1: Histology and Integumentary System > Flashcards

Lab 1: Histology and Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

define histology

A

the study of tissues

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2
Q

define tissues

A

a group a similarly structured cells that work together to accomplish a specific function

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3
Q

what are the four major tissue categories

A
  • epithelial
  • connective
  • muscle
  • nervous
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4
Q

how are specimens for histology prepared

A
  • fixed/preserved
  • thinly sectioned
  • stained to improve contrast
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5
Q

what is the difference between acid stains and basic stains

A
  • acid stains have negatively charged dyes
  • basic stains have positively charged dyes
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6
Q

what do dyes bind to

A

oppositely charged macromolecules

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7
Q

define artifact

A
  • a minor distortion in sectioned tissues that is only present due to the many steps needed to produce a histology slide
  • should not be confused with the actual structure of preserved tissue
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8
Q

what does epithelial tissue do

A
  • lines and covers organs, as well as their internal passageways
  • creates boundaries between different environments
  • forms glands
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9
Q

what are the strong intercellular connections between epithelial cells formed by

A
  • tight junctions
  • desmosomes
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10
Q

describe tight junctions

A
  • connections between adjacent cells
  • prevents fluid from moving between the cells
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11
Q

describe desmosomes

A
  • connections between adjacent cells
  • contains proteins
  • allows cells to mechanically hold on to each other, providing mutual reinforcement
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12
Q

what are the functions of epithelia

A
  • filtration
  • absorption
  • protection
  • secretion
  • excretion
  • sensory reception
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13
Q

define the free/apical surface of epithelium

A

surface where cells are exposed to external environment or internal passageway/cavity

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14
Q

how do cells on the free/apical surface of epithelium obtain nutrients

A

diffusion of substances from connective tissue underlying the epithelia

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15
Q

define the basal lamina of epithelium

A
  • where epithelium is attached to the body
  • located between the epithelium and the connective tissue layer
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16
Q

what is the composition of basal lamina of epithilium

A
  • glycoprotein secretions from the epithelial cells
  • collagen fibers
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17
Q

what is the function of the basal lamina

A
  • filter at the base of the epithelium
  • forms a scaffold for wound repair
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18
Q

how are epithelia named

A
  • shape
  • number of cell layers
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19
Q

define simple epithelium

A

epithelium with only one layer of epithelial cells

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20
Q

what are the functions of simple epithelia

A
  • diffusion
  • absorption
  • filtration
  • secretion
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21
Q

what is the function of goblet cells

A

protect epithelia at the free surface by secreting mucus that coats the cell

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22
Q

describe the two different attachments on epithelial cells on the apical surface

A
  • microvilli: increase surface area for absorption
  • cilia: motile hair-like projections that sweep substances across the apical surface
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23
Q

define stratified epithelia

A

epithelium with more than one layer of epithelial cells

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24
Q

where is stratified epithelia found

A
  • areas exposed to abrasion and friction
  • body surface, upper digestive tract
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25
Q

what is the main function of stratified epithelia

A

protection

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26
Q

when stratified epithelium contains more than one type/shape of epithelial cell, how do you determine the classification of the tissue

A

the type of epithelial cell at the free surface determines the classification of the tissue

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27
Q

describe how stratified epithelia regenerates

A

regenerates from basal cells that divide and then move out to replace older cells near the apical border

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28
Q

what is the most common stratified epithelium

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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29
Q

what happens to cells on the apical surface of stratified epithelium and why

A

they often atrophy and flatten because they are furthest from the blood supply

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30
Q

how many layers thick is stratified cuboidal epithelium typically

A

two cells thick

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31
Q

where is stratified cuboidal epithelium found

A
  • ducts of sweat glands
  • mammary glands
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32
Q

where is stratified columnar epithelium found

A
  • parts of the male urethra
  • the pharynx
  • lining of some glandular ducts
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33
Q

describe a squamous-shaped cell

A
  • flattened shape
  • nucleus appears flattened
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34
Q

describe a cuboidal-shaped cell

A
  • cube shaped
  • round nucleus
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35
Q

describe a columnar-shaped cell

A
  • rectangle shaped, like a column
  • oblong or round nucleus
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36
Q

what are the 6 characteristics that distinguish epithelial tissue from other tissue types

A
  • regeneration
  • polarity
  • cellularity and specialized contacts
  • supported by connective tissue
  • avascularity
  • innervated
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37
Q

why is cellular regeneration important for epithelial cells

A

many epithelia are subjected to friction or exposed to hostile/caustic substances

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38
Q

describe the concept of polarity in epithelial tissue

A
  • there are differences in structure and function between the apical and basal surface of epithelia
  • apical surfaces also differ: microvilli, smooth, cilia
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39
Q

describe a brush border

A
  • microvilli on the apical surface of epithelial tissue are so dense they appear fuzzy
  • often seen in secretory or absorbing tissues
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40
Q

how are epithelial cells attached to connective tissue

A

basement membrane

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41
Q

describe the basement membrane

A
  • attaches epithelial tissue to connective tissue
  • helps epithelia resist tearing and stretching
  • reinforces structural integrity
  • creates a boundary
  • made up of basal lamina and reticular lamina
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42
Q

describe reticular lamina

A
  • made of collagen fibers
  • secreted by connective tissue
  • part of the basement membrane
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43
Q

describe the significance of the basement membrane in cancer

A

cancers of the epithelial tissue cannot become metastatic until they develop a mechanism to break through the basement membrane

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44
Q

what is the only type of epithelia that is vascular

A

glandular epithelial tissue

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45
Q

define innervated

A

supplied by nerve fibers for regulation

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46
Q

what tissue has the highest regeneration capacity and what has the lowest

A
  • highest regeneration: epithelial tissue
  • lowest regeneration: nervous tissue
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47
Q

describe simple squamous epithelium

A
  • thin and often permeable
  • single layer of flattened cells with disc shaped nuclei and sparse cytoplasm
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48
Q

what is the function of simple squamous epithelium

A
  • filtration and diffusion
  • not protective
  • secretes lubricating substances in serosae (tissue lining of a body cavity or outer lining of an organ)
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49
Q

locations of simple squamous epithelia

A
  • kidney glomeruli
  • air sacs of lungs
  • lining of heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels
  • lining of ventral body cavity
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50
Q

what are the two specific types of simple squamous epithelia

A
  • endothelium
  • mesothelium
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51
Q

describe endothelium

A
  • simple squamous epithelia
  • provides slick and friction-reducing lining in hollow organs that transmit body fluids (lymph, blood)
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52
Q

describe mesothelium

A
  • simple squamous epithelia
  • found in serous membranes lining the ventral body cavity and covering its organs
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53
Q

describe simple cuboidal epithelium

A
  • single layer of cube-like cells
  • large, spherical central nuclei
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54
Q

what is the function of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

secretion and absorption

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55
Q

locations of simple cuboidal epithelium

A
  • kidney tubules
  • ducts and secretory portions of small glands
  • ovary surface
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56
Q

describe simple columnar epithelium

A
  • single layer of tall cells
  • round to oval nuclei
  • some cells have cilia
  • layer may contain mucus-secreting unicellular glands (goblet cells)
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57
Q

function of simple columnar epithelium

A
  • absorption
  • secretion of mucus, enzymes, and other substances
  • ciliated type propels mucus or reproductive cells by ciliary action
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58
Q

locations of simple columnar epithelium

A
  • non-ciliated type lines most of the digestive tract (stomach to anal canal), gallbladder, and excretory ducts of some glands
  • ciliated variety lines small bronchi, uterine tubes, and some regions of the uterus
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59
Q

describe keratinized epithelial cells

A

cells manufacture the protein keratin which toughens the cells as they die creating a dry protective barrier against abrasion, chemical exposure, and friction

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60
Q

describe stratified squamous epitheium

A
  • thick membrane composed of several layers
  • basal cells are cuboidal or columnar and metabolically active white surface cells are squamous
  • surface cells in the keratinized type are full of keratin and dead
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61
Q

function of stratified squamous epithelium

A

protect underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion

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62
Q

locations of stratified squamous epithelium

A
  • keratinized: epidermis of the skin
  • non-keratinized: moist linings of the esophagus, mouth, and vagina
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63
Q

describe pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A
  • single layer of cells of differing heights
  • some cells don’t reach the free surface, but all cells touch the basal lamina
  • nuclei seen at different levels
  • may contain mucus-secreting cells (goblet cells)
  • may bear cilia
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64
Q

function of pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A
  • secretion, particularly of mucus
  • propulsion of mucus by ciliary action
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65
Q

locations of pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A
  • non-ciliated: male’s sperm-carrying ducts and ducts of large glands
  • ciliated: lining nasal cavity, trachea, and bronchi
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66
Q

describe transitional epithelium

A
  • resembles both stratified squamous and stratified cuboidal
  • basal cells are cuboidal or columnar, surface cells dome-shaped or squamous-like
  • not all cells touch the basal lamina
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67
Q

function of transitional epithelium

A

stretches readily and permits distension of certain hollow organs

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68
Q

locations of transitional epithelium

A
  • organs that must stretch and shrink
  • lines uterus, urinary bladder, and part of the urethra
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69
Q

what are the main functions of connective tissue

A
  • provides the body with structural support and means of joining structural components to one another
  • protection
  • storing energy reserves
  • insulating the body
  • transporting substances throughout the body
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70
Q

what creates all connective tissues

A

mesenchyme, an embryonic tissue

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71
Q

describe the general composition of connective tissue

A
  • mostly non-cellular
  • cells sparsely spread throughout extracellular matrix
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72
Q

describe the general composition of the extracellular matrix in connective tissue

A

protein fibers and a ground substance secreted by cells in connective tissue

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73
Q

describe collagen fibers in the ground substance of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue

A
  • strongest of the fibers
  • made of the protein collagen
  • made of many cross-linked fibrils
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74
Q

describe elastic fibers in the ground substance of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue

A
  • made of the protein elastin
  • forms in branching network int he extracellular matrix to provide strength and recoil
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75
Q

describe reticular fibers in the ground substance of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue

A
  • short and fine
  • made of the protein collagen
  • form fuzzy nets with more give than that of collagen fibers
  • less secreted as we age, leading to brittle bones and wrinkly skin
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76
Q

what are the three groups of connective tissue

A
  • connective tissue proper
  • fluid connective tissue
  • supporting connective tissue
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77
Q

describe general characteristics of connective tissue proper

A
  • thick liquid matrix
  • variety of cell types
  • divided into two groups: loose and dense
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78
Q

what do fibroblasts do in connective tissue proper

A

stationary cells that secrete proteins to form fibers

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79
Q

what do macrophages do in connective tissue proper

A
  • patrol tissues and are mobilized during an infection or injury
  • migrate to the site of the disturbance and phagocytize damaged tissue cells and microbes
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80
Q

what do mast cells do in connective tissue proper

A
  • detect foreign microorganisms and initiate immune response
  • release histamine that causes inflammatory response
  • secrete enzymes such as heparin and proteases
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81
Q

what do adipocytes do in connective tissue proper

A

fat cells containing vacuoles for lipid storage

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82
Q

what are the three groups of loose connective tissues

A
  • areolar
  • adipose
  • reticular
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83
Q

what are the two types of fibers that make up dense connective tissue

A
  • protein fibers assembled into thick bundles of collagen
  • elastic fibers with widely scattered cells
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84
Q

what are the two types of dense connective tissue

A
  • dense regular
  • dense irregular
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85
Q

describe the fiber arrangement in dense regular vs irregular connective tissue

A
  • regular: protein fibers arranged in parallel bands
  • irregular: fibers interwoven running in many directions
86
Q

where is dense irregular connective tissue found

A
  • where tension is exerted from many different directions
  • capsules of some organs and joints
  • dermis of the skin
  • submucosa of digestive tract
87
Q

describe the two types of fluid connective tissue

A
  • blood: erythrocytes and leukocytes
  • lymph
88
Q

what are the two types of supporting connective tissue

A
  • bone
  • cartilage
89
Q

what is the solid matrix of bone composed of

A

calcium phosphate salt, aka hydroxyapatite

90
Q

what are the general functions of bone

A
  • support and protect the body
  • provides cavities for synthesis of blood cells and storing fat
91
Q

why is bone more rigid than cartilage

A

bone has more collagen fibers and a matrix filled with hydroxyapatite

92
Q

which is highly vascularized and innervated: bone or cartilage

A

bone

93
Q

describe cartilage

A
  • rubbery
  • avascular
  • non-innervated
  • gelatinous matrix
  • fibers for structural support
  • can withstand both compression and tension because it is tough but flexible
94
Q

define perichondrium

A
  • membrane surrounding all supporting connective tissue in cartilage
  • produces chondroblasts
95
Q

what do chondroblasts do

A
  • secrete fibers and the ground substance of cartilage matrix
96
Q

how does cartilage receive nutrients

A

diffusion from the perichondrium

97
Q

describe how chondroblasts become chondrocytes

A
  • chondroblasts are produced by the perichondrium
  • chondroblasts become trapped in small spaces of the matrix called lacunae
  • then become chondrocytes that maintain mature tissue
98
Q

what are the three types of cartilage

A
  • hyaline
  • elastic
  • fibrocartilage
99
Q

describe areolar tissue

A
  • loose connective tissue
  • gel-like matrix with all three fiber types
  • flexible
  • includes fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and some white blood cells
  • collagen and elastic fibers are clearly visible in the matrix
100
Q

functions of areolar tissue

A
  • fills spaces between structures for support and protection
  • wraps and cushions organs
  • macrophages phagocytize bacteria
  • mast cells cause inflammation
  • holds and conveys tissue fluid
101
Q

locations of areolar tissue

A

widely distributed under the skin

102
Q

describe adipose tissue

A
  • loose connective tissue
  • similar matrix to areolar tissue
  • closely packed adipocytes
  • nucleus pushed to the side by large fat vacuole
103
Q

functions of adipose tissue

A
  • reserve food fuel
  • insulates against heat loss
  • supports and protects organs
104
Q

locations of adipose tissue

A
  • under the skin in subcutaneous tissue
  • around kidneys and eyeballs
  • within abdomen
  • in breasts
105
Q

describe reticular tissue

A
  • loose connective tissue
  • forms internal supporting framework for soft organs
  • composed of network of reticular fibers interspersed with reticulocytes
106
Q

functions of reticular tissue

A

fibers form soft internal skeleton that supports other cell types including white blood cells, mast cells, and macrophages

107
Q

locations of reticular tissue

A

lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen)

108
Q

describe dense regular connective tissue

A
  • consists mostly of collagen with some elastic fibers organized into parallel thick bands
  • fibroblasts widely interspersed
  • poorly vascularized
109
Q

functions of dense regular connective tissue

A
  • attaches muscles to bones or muscles
  • attaches bone to bone
  • withstands great tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction
110
Q

locations of dense regular connective tissue

A
  • tendons
  • most ligaments
  • aponeuroses
111
Q

define fascia

A
  • flat layers of dense regular connective tissue
  • protect and isolate muscles from surrounding structures and allow muscle movement
112
Q

describe dense regular elastic tissue

A

dense regular connective tissue with high proportion of elastic fibers

113
Q

functions of dense regular elastic tissue

A
  • allows recoil of tissue following stretching
  • maintains pulsatile flow of blood throw arteries
  • aids passive recoil of lungs following respiration
114
Q

locations of dense regular elastic tissue

A
  • walls of large arteries
  • ligaments associated with the vertebral column
  • walls of bronchial tubes
115
Q

describe blood

A

composed mostly of formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes) suspended in plasma

116
Q

functions of blood

A

transport of respiratory gases, nutrients, wastes, and other substances

117
Q

location of blood

A

contained within blood vessels

118
Q

what are the specific functions of the three formed elements in blood

A
  • erythrocytes: transport blood gases
  • leukocytes: protect the body from infection
  • thrombocytes: form a plug to reduce bleeding
119
Q

what is the most common cartilage in the body

A

hyaline cartilage

120
Q

what makes hyaline cartilage different from other cartilages

A
  • the apparent lack of fibers in the matrix
  • there are elastic and collagen fibers but they do not stain
121
Q

describe hyaline cartilage

A
  • amorphous but firm matrix
  • collagen fibers form imperceptible network
  • chondroblasts produce the matrix and when mature (chondrocytes) lie in lacunae
122
Q

function of hyaline cartilage

A
  • springy absorption of compression at joints
  • supports and reinforces
  • resilient cushioning properties
  • resists compressive stress
123
Q

location of hyaline cartilage

A
  • embryonic skeleton
  • ends of long bones in joint cavities
  • costal cartilages of the ribs
  • cartilages of the nose, trachea, and larynx
124
Q

describe elastic cartilage

A
  • similar to hyaline cartilage
  • more elastic fibers in matrix that are visible
125
Q

function of elastic cartilage

A

maintains shape of a structure while allowing great flexibility

126
Q

location of elastic cartilage

A
  • supports external ear (pinna)
  • epiglottis
127
Q

describe fibrocartilage

A
  • matrix similar but less firm than that in hyaline cartilage
  • thick collagen fibers predominate and visible
128
Q

function of fibrocartilage

A
  • tensile strength
  • cushions joints by absorbing compressive shock
  • limits bone movement
129
Q

location of fibrocartilage

A
  • intervertebral discs
  • pubis symphysis
  • discs of knee joint
130
Q

describe skeletal muscle tissue

A
  • composed of long cells called muscle fibers which are composed of myoblasts
  • multinucleate cells
  • striated due to organization of intercontractile proteins called myofilaments (actin and myosin)
131
Q

function of skeletal muscle tissue

A
  • voluntary movement
  • locomotion
  • manipulation in the environment
  • facial expressions
132
Q

location of skeletal muscle tissue

A
  • in skeletal muscles attached to bones
  • occasionally in muscles attached to skin
133
Q

describe cardiac muscle tissue

A
  • branching
  • striated
  • uninucleate cells
  • cells connect at specialized junctions called intercalated discs which are desmosome rich
134
Q

function of cardiac muscle tissue

A
  • involuntary movement
  • propels blood into circulation as it contracts
135
Q

location of cardiac muscle tissue

A

the walls of the heart

136
Q

describe smooth muscle tissue

A
  • spindle-shaped cells with central nuclei
  • no striations
  • cells arranged closely to form sheets
137
Q

function of smooth muscle tissue

A
  • involuntary movement
  • propels substances or objects along internal passageways
138
Q

location of smooth muscle tissue

A

mostly in the walls of hollow organs

139
Q

what are the two types of cells that make up the nervous system

A
  • neurons
  • glial cells
140
Q

define nerve/neural tissue

A

collective of neurons and glial cells

141
Q

describe the distinct regions of a typical neuron

A
  • central nucleus surrounded by the cell body/soma that contains most of the organelles
  • dendrites radiate out from the soma and receive signals from other cells which they send to the soma
  • axon connects to the soma and sends signals to other cells
142
Q

describe nervous tissue

A
  • neurons are branching cells
  • cell processes can be long
  • other non-irritable supporting cells around the neuron
143
Q

function of nervous tissue

A

transmit electrical signals from sensory receptors and to effectors (muscles and glands)

144
Q

location of nervous tissue

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
  • nerves
145
Q

define periosteum

A
  • membrane surrounding bone supporting tissue
  • contains osteoblasts for bone growth and repair
146
Q

describe the function of osteoblasts

A
  • bone growth and repair
  • secrete organic components of the matrix
  • become osteocytes when in the lacunae
147
Q

what is the bulk of compact bone composed of

A

repeating structural units called osteons

148
Q

what are osteons composed of

A

rings of concentric lamellae surrounding a central (haversian) canal that contains blood vessels and nerves

149
Q

define canaliculi

A
  • small channels in the lamellae that provide passageways through the solid matrix for diffusion of nutrients and wastes with the blood
  • radiate from the central canal of the osteon
150
Q

what are the main functions of bones

A
  • provide structural support for the body
  • provide point of attachment to skeletal muscles
  • protect internal organs
151
Q

what cells help calcium in bones to be stored and released as needed

A
  • osteoblasts: constantly resynthesizing bone
  • osteoclasts: constantly reabsorbing bone
152
Q

what are the two ways that bone ossifies

A
  • intramembranous bone
  • endochondral bone
153
Q

which bones are intramembranous bones

A
  • cranial bones
  • the clavicle
154
Q

what do intramembranous bones develop from

A

fibrous membranes and endochondral bone

155
Q

what does endochondral bone develop from

A

hyaline cartilage

156
Q

describe the purpose and location of a Volkmann’s canal/perforating canal

A
  • carries nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels from the periosteum
  • perpendicular to the osteon
  • connects with the central/Haversian canal
157
Q

what is the difference between concentric lamellae and interstitial lamellae

A
  • concentric lamellae makes up each osteon
  • interstitial lamellae fills the space between osteons
158
Q

what is included in the integumentary system

A
  • the skin
  • sweat and oil glands
  • hair
  • nails
159
Q

what’s the largest organ in the body

A

the skin

160
Q

what are the functions of the integumentary system

A
  • protective barrier that is flexible but resistant to everyday abrasions and indiscriminate water loss
  • regulates body temperature
  • houses sensory receptors
  • ensures water homeostasis
  • protects the body from the environment
  • manufactures vitamin D3
161
Q

what are the two main tissue layers of the integument

A
  • superficial and avascular epidermis
  • deep and vascularized dermis
162
Q

what type of tissue does the epidermis consist of

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

163
Q

what cell type are most cells in the epidermis

A

keratinocytes that produce keratin

164
Q

where are keratinocytes produced

A

produced by the basal layer of the epidermis and migrate out

165
Q

what is the lifespan of a keratinocyte

A

25-45 days

166
Q

what determines whether skin is thick or thin

A

the thickness of the epidermis

167
Q

what are the five layers of the epidermis starting from the apical layer

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
168
Q

describe the stratum corneum

A
  • horny layer
  • most superficial layer of epidermis
  • 20-30 layers of dead squamous anucleate cells
  • 2/3 of epidermis thickness
  • contains keratin
169
Q

what are the functions of the stratum corneum

A
  • keratin and thick plasma membranes protects the skin against abrasions
  • glycolipids between cells waterproofs skin
170
Q

describe the stratum lucidem

A
  • clear layer
  • just deep to the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis
  • thin and transparent layer of cells
  • found in thick skin areas (palm of hand, sole of feet)
171
Q

what is the function of the stratum lucidem

A

protect the underlying strata in areas subject to abrasion

172
Q

describe tonofilaments including their location

A
  • parallel arrays of filaments created when keratohyalin granules cling to the keratin filaments within the dying cells
  • located in the stratum corneum and stratum lucidem of the epidermis
173
Q

describe the stratum granulosum

A
  • granular layer
  • deep to the stratum corneum (or stratum lucidem if present)
  • 4 to 6 layers of darks cells that synthesize keratohyaline and lamellar granules
  • where keratinization occurs
174
Q

what is the purpose of lamellar granules in the stratum granulosum

A
  • released into the extracellular space
  • contain a water-resistant glycolipid
175
Q

what is the purpose of keratinization in the stratum granulosum

A
  • increase durability
  • reduce water loss from the integument
176
Q

describe the stratum spinosum

A
  • prickly layer
  • deep to the strum granulosum in the epidermis
  • 5 to 7 cells that form cell attachments via desmosomes
  • keratinocytes in this layer appear to have spines (prickly appearance) but this is an artifact of preparation of cells
  • melanin granules and dendritic cells
177
Q

why do keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum appear to have spines or a prickly appearance

A

artifact of preparation of cells

178
Q

describe the stratum basale

A
  • basal layer
  • deepest epidermal layer
  • attached to the dermis
  • single layer of stem cells constantly undergoing mitosis
  • melanocytes producing melanin
179
Q

what happens to the daughter cells produced by mitosis in the stratum basale of the epidermis

A
  • one daughter cell is pushed into the stratum spinosum
  • other daughter cell stays in the stratum basale
180
Q

describe what melanocytes and melanin do (life cycle of melanin)

A
  • found in the stratum basale of the epidermis
  • produce the pigment melanin which is packaged into melanosomes and secreted from the tips of the melanocyte
  • melanin is taken up by keratinocytes and sits on the superficial sun exposed side of the nucleus to protect DNA from sun exposure
181
Q

describe the dermis

A
  • layer of irregularly arranged flexible and strong connective tissue
  • supports and nourishes the epidermis
  • supply of nerve fibers, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels
182
Q

what are the two layers of the dermis

A
  • papillary layer
  • reticular layer
183
Q

describe the papillary layer

A
  • superficial layer of the dermis
  • consists of areolar tissue that contains collagen and elastic fibers
  • folds called dermal papillae
  • houses phagocytes
184
Q

describe dermal papillae

A
  • folds in the papillary layer of the dermis
  • form dermal ridges that make fingerprints
  • often contain Meissner’s corpuscles, free nerve endings, or capillary loops
185
Q

describe Meissner’s corpuscles

A
  • found in the dermal papillae of the papillary layer of the dermis
  • touch receptors
186
Q

describe the reticular layer

A
  • deep layer of the dermis
  • thick layer containing thick collagen fibers in dense irregular connective tissue
  • pockets of adipose cells
  • where hair follicles and glands originate
187
Q

what lays between the dermis and hypodermis

A

cutaneous plexus of blood vessels

188
Q

what is excreted in sweat

A
  • water
  • small amounts of sodium chloride, ammonia, urea, and uric acid
189
Q

define exteroceptors

A
  • found in the skin
  • respond to stimuli from outside the body
190
Q

what are the three major types of hair found in humans

A
  • terminal
  • vellus
  • intermediate
191
Q

define terminal hairs

A
  • thick, coarse, heavy, dark
  • on the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes
192
Q

define vellus hairs

A
  • lightly pigmented
  • distributed over much of the skin as fine peach fuzz
193
Q

define intermediate hairs

A

the hair on the arms and legs

194
Q

what is the deepest part of the hair root called

A

hair bulb

195
Q

what is contained in the hair papilla within the hair bulb

A
  • nerves
  • blood vessels
  • the beginning of the hair matrix
196
Q

define hair matrix

A

the living and proliferative part of the hair

197
Q

what is the hair follicle wall (not the hair shaft) made of

A
  • outermost peripheral connective tissue sheath
  • a glassy membrane of thickened basal lamina
  • innermost epithelial root sheath (divided into thick and thin layers)
198
Q

what are the three parts of the hair shaft

A
  • outermost cuticle containing a single layer of overlapping cells to separate adjacent cells so the hairs do not mat and hard keratin
  • outer cortex containing flattened cells filled with hard keratin
  • inner medulla containing soft keratin and big cells
199
Q

describe what shape of the hair shaft will make hair kinky, wavy, and straight

A
  • kinky: flat hair shaft
  • wavy: oval hair shaft
  • straight: round
200
Q

when is the hair medulla absent

A

in fine hairs

201
Q

what extra pigment is in red hair

A

pheomelanin

202
Q

describe the arrector pili muscle

A
  • smooth muscle
  • attached to each hair follicle
  • contract when cold or experiencing heightened emotional state (goose bumps)
  • move sebum from hair follicles to skin surface for lubrication when they contract
203
Q

describe exocrine glands

A
  • secrete substances onto a body surface or into a body cavity
  • do not release hormones into the circulation
  • produce saliva, oil, sweat, mucus, bile, digestive enzymes from the pancreas
204
Q

how to unicellular and multicellular exocrine glands differ

A
  • unicellular: release secretions by exocytosis directly onto the epithelial surface
  • multicellular: secretion passes through a duct on its way to the surface
205
Q

what are the three types of exocrine gland cells

A
  • merocrine
  • apocrine
  • holocrine
206
Q

describe merocrine cells/glands

A
  • in exocrine glands
  • secretions exerted via exocytosis from secretory cells onto an epithelial-walled ducts or ducts then onto body surface
  • ex: salivary gland
207
Q

describe apocrine cells/glands

A
  • in exocrine glands
  • secretions bud off through the plasma membrane producing membrane-bound vesicles in the lumen
  • ex: mammary gland
208
Q

describe holocrine cells/glands

A
  • in exocrine glands
  • secretions produced in the cytoplasm of the cell and released by the rupture of the plasma membrane
  • destroys the cell and results in secretion of the product into the lumen
  • ex: sebaceous gland
209
Q

describe apocrine sweat glands

A
  • larger and in less locations (axillary and public) than eccrine sweat glands
  • activated by sex steroids during puberty
  • contain lipids and proteins not found in eccrine sweat glands, may contain pheromones
210
Q

describe eccrine sweat glands

A
  • smaller and in more locations than apocrine sweat glands
  • exist throughout the dermis
  • stop bacterial growth by creating the acid mantle
  • vital for thermoregulation

BIOL 319 (13 decks)

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