Lab 2: Osteology: The Axial Skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

how many bones do we have at birth

A

about 300

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2
Q

how many bones do we have in adulthood

A

206-213

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3
Q

what are the two major divisions of the skeleton

A
  • axial skeleton
  • appendicular skeleton
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4
Q

how many bones are in the axial skeleton

A

80

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5
Q

how many bones are in the appendicular skeleton

A

126

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6
Q

what are the 5 major functions of the skeletal system

A
  • support
  • movement
  • protection
  • storage of minerals
  • production of blood cells
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7
Q

what are the major bones of the cranium

A
  • frontal
  • parietal
  • temporal
  • occipital
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
  • maxilla
  • mandible
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8
Q

what are the two different types of bones that differ based on texture

A
  • compact bone
  • spongy bone
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9
Q

describe compact bone

A

look smooth and homogenous

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10
Q

describe spongy bone

A

composed of small trabeculae (tiny beams and struts) of bone and lots of open spaces

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11
Q

what are the four classifications of bones based on gross anatomy

A
  • long bones
  • short bones
  • flat bones
  • irregular bones
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12
Q

describe long bones

A
  • longer than they are wide
  • generally consist of a shaft with heads at either end
  • primarily composed of compact bone
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13
Q

describe short bones

A
  • roughly cube-shaped
  • contain more spongy bone than compact bone
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14
Q

describe flat bones

A
  • flattened along a major aspect of their geometry, can be curved
  • two wafer-like layers of compact bone between a layer of spongy bone
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15
Q

describe irregular bones

A

do not fit into other categories due to irregular morphology

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16
Q

define periosteum

A
  • encapsulates bones
  • tough and fibrous membrane
  • appears shiny and glossy
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17
Q

describe the two layers of the periosteum

A
  • outer fibrous layer where muscle tendons and bone ligaments attach
  • inner cellular layer that produces osteoblasts for bone growth and repair
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18
Q

define diaphysis

A

long central shaft of long bones

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19
Q

define epiphysis

A

ends of long bones

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20
Q

define proximal epiphysis

A

end of the long bone closest to the trunk of the body

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21
Q

define distal epiphysis

A

end of the long bone furthest away from the trunk of the body

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22
Q

define articular cartilage

A
  • layer of hyaline cartilage
  • covers epiphysis where it articulates with another bone
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23
Q

what is the wall of the diaphysis made of

A

compact bone

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24
Q

define marrow (medullary) cavity

A
  • hollow interior of diaphysis
  • contains yellow marrow with high concentration of lipids
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25
Q

define endosteum

A

membrane lining the marrow/medullary cavity

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26
Q

define metaphysis

A

area between the diaphysis and epiphysis

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27
Q

define epiphyseal line

A
  • separates epiphysis from diaphysis
  • replaces epiphyseal plate during the transition from the juvenile stage to adulthood
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28
Q

when does bone growth stop

A

when the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate disappears and is replaced by the bone epiphyseal line

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29
Q

do flat bones have a marrow/medullary cavity

A

no

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30
Q

describe the naming of the bone layers of flat bones

A
  • cortex: compact bone layers collectively
  • internal and external tables: compact bone layers individually
  • diploe: spongy bone between the tables
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31
Q

where is red marrow found in flat bones

A

spongy bone in the middle called the diploe

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32
Q

define bone markings

A

reveal where bones form joints with other bones; where muscles, tendons and ligaments were attached; where blood vessels and nerves pass

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33
Q

what are the two major categories of bone marking

A
  • projections
  • depressions
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34
Q

define projections

A
  • processes that grow out from the bone
  • serve as sites of muscle attachment or to help form joints
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35
Q

define depressions

A
  • indentations or openings in the bone
  • serve as conduits for nerves and blood vessels
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36
Q

describe this bone marking: tuberosity

A
  • projection
  • large rounded projection
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37
Q

describe this bone marking: crest

A
  • projection
  • narrow ridge of a bone, usually prominent
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38
Q

describe this bone marking: trochanter

A
  • projection
  • very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process
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39
Q

describe this bone marking: line

A
  • projection
  • narrow ridge of a bone, less prominent than a crest
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40
Q

describe this bone marking: tubercule

A
  • projection
  • small rounded projection or process
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41
Q

describe this bone marking: epicondyle

A
  • projection
  • raised area on or above a condyle
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42
Q

describe this bone marking: spine

A
  • projection
  • sharp, slender, often pointed projection
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43
Q

describe this bone marking: process

A
  • projection
  • any bony prominence
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44
Q

describe this bone marking: head

A
  • surface that forms joint
  • body expansion carried on a narrow neck
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45
Q

describe this bone marking: facet

A
  • surface that forms joint
  • smooth, nearly flat articular surface
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46
Q

describe this bone marking: condyle

A
  • surface that forms joint
  • rounded articular projection, often articulates with a corresponding fossa
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47
Q

describe this bone marking: ramus

A
  • surface that forms joint
  • arm-like bar of bone
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48
Q

describe this bone marking: foramen

A
  • depression
  • round or oval opening through a bone
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49
Q

describe this bone marking: groove

A
  • depression
  • furrow
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50
Q

describe this bone marking: fissure

A
  • depression
  • narrow, slit-like opening
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51
Q

describe this bone marking: notch

A
  • depression
  • indentation at the edge of a structure
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52
Q

describe this bone marking: fossa

A
  • depression
  • shallow basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface
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53
Q

describe this bone marking: meatus

A
  • depression
  • canal-like passageway
54
Q

describe this bone marking: sinus

A
  • depression
  • bone cavity, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane
55
Q

how many bones are in the skull and associated bones (cranium, face, associated bones)

A

29

56
Q

how many bones are in the cranium

A

8

57
Q

how many bones are in the face

A

14

58
Q

how many bones are in the associated bones of the skull

A

7

59
Q

what are the 8 bones of the cranium

A
  • occipital
  • frontal
  • 2 temporal
  • 2 parietal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
60
Q

what are the 14 bones of the face

A
  • 2 palatine
  • 2 maxillary
  • 2 nasal
  • 2 zygomatic
  • 2 inferior nasal conchae
  • 2 lacrimal
  • vomer
  • mandible
61
Q

what are the 7 associated bones of the skull

A
  • 6 auditory ossicles
  • hyoid
62
Q

how many bones are in the thoracic cage (sternum and ribs)

A

25

63
Q

how many ribs do we have

A

24

64
Q

how many bones are in the vertebral column (vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx)

A

26

65
Q

how many vertebrae do we have

A

24

66
Q

how many vertebrae are cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

A
  • cervical: 7
  • thoracic: 12
  • lumbar: 5
67
Q

which bones make up the hard palate (roof of mouth)

A
  • palatine process of maxilla
  • horizontal plate of palatine bone
68
Q

what passes through this foramen: olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate

A

olfactory nerve I

69
Q

what passes through this foramen: optic canal

A

optic nerve II

70
Q

what passes through this foramen: superior orbital fissure

A
  • oculomotor nerve III
  • trochlear nerve IV
  • trigeminal nerve V
  • abducens nerve VI
71
Q

what passes through this foramen: foramen rotundum

A

trigeminal nerve V

72
Q

what passes through this foramen: foramen ovale

A

trigeminal nerve V

73
Q

what passes through this foramen: foramen lacerum

A

no structure passes through because it is covered by a membrane in adults

74
Q

what passes through this foramen: foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery

75
Q

what passes through this foramen: carotid canal

A

internal carotid artery

76
Q

what passes through this foramen: internal auditory meatus

A
  • facial nerve VII
  • vestibulocochlear nerve VIII
77
Q

what passes through this foramen: jugular foramen

A
  • internal jugular vein
  • glossopharyngeal nerve IX
  • vagus nerve X
  • spinal accessory nerve XI
78
Q

what passes through this foramen: hypoglossal canal

A

hypoglossal nerve XII

79
Q

what passes through this foramen: supraorbital foramen

A

supraorbital artery and nerve

80
Q

what passes through this foramen: inferior orbital fissure

A
  • zygomatic nerve
  • blood vessels
81
Q

what passes through this foramen: infraorbital foramen

A

infraorbital nerve

82
Q

what passes through this foramen: mental foramen

A
  • blood vessels
  • trigeminal nerve V
83
Q

what passes through this foramen: foramen magnum

A

spinal cord

84
Q

what passes through this foramen: stylomastoid foramen

A

facial nerve VII

85
Q

what passes through this foramen: mandibular foramen

A

alveolar nerve

86
Q

what passes through this foramen: transverse foramen of cervical vertebrae

A

vertebral arteries

87
Q

what passes through this foramen: costal groove

A

neurovascular bundle

88
Q

what is the number order of the cranial nerves

A
  • I. olfactory nerve
  • II. optic nerve
  • III. oculomotor nerve
  • IV. trochlear nerve
  • V. trigeminal nerve
  • VI. abducens nerve
  • VII. facial nerve
  • VIII. vestibulocochlear nerve
  • IX. glossopharyngeal nerve
  • X. vagus nerve
  • XI. spinal accessory nerve
  • XII. hypoglossal nerve
89
Q

what is a mnemonic to remember the order of cranial nerves

A

Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet AH

90
Q

what is a mnemonic to remember the composition of cranial nerves

A

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most

91
Q

describe why the hyoid bone is unique

A
  • it does not articulate with any other bone
  • origin and insertion site for many muscles
92
Q

what are the 5 types of vertebrae

A
  • cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
  • sacral
  • coccygeal
93
Q

which vertebrae are unfused

A
  • cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
94
Q

are the articulations between cervical vertebrae more or less confined as those in other portions of the vertebral column and explain why

A
  • less confined
  • allows for a wide range of motion in the head and neck
95
Q

what runs through the transverse foramen of cervical vertebrae

A
  • vertebral arteries that form the basilar artery
  • deliver blood to the brain
96
Q

where do thoracic vertebrae articulate and what does this do

A
  • with the ribs
  • limits flexion in the thorax
97
Q

how are the articular processes of the thoracic vertebrae directed and what does this do

A
  • directed anterior and posterior
  • limits flexion and extension
98
Q

how are the articular processes of the lumbar vertebrae directed and what does this do

A
  • directed medially and laterally
  • limits rotation
99
Q

when does the spinal cord proper stop

A

lumbar vertebrae 1

100
Q

define cauda equina

A
  • the place where the spinal cord proper stops and hanging roots begins
  • at L1
101
Q

where is a spinal tap performed and why

A
  • between L3 and L4
  • to avoid hitting the spinal cord
102
Q

how many fused vertebrae make up the sacrum

A

5

103
Q

what does the sacral foramina trasnmit

A

blood vessels and spinal nerves to the lower body

104
Q

how many fused vertebrae make up the coccyx

A

4

105
Q

what are the four natural curvatures of the spinal cord

A
  • cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
  • sacral
106
Q

describe the structure of cervical vertebrae 3-6

A
  • kidney bean shaped body
  • spinous process is horizontal and bifid
  • vertebral foramen is central
  • transverse foramen on either side of the body
107
Q

does the hyoid bone articulate with the cervical vertebrae

A

no

108
Q

what is another name for the first cervical vertebrae (C1)

A

atlas

109
Q

describe how the atlas (C1) is different from other cervical vertebrae

A
  • has no body
  • large vertebral foramen
  • articulates with the skull
  • no spinous process
110
Q

what is another name for the second cervical vertebrae (C2)

A

axis

111
Q

describe how the axis (C2) is different from other cervical vertebrae

A
  • has a dens that articulates with the atlas
  • does not have same body as C3-6
112
Q

describe the function of the axis (C2)

A
  • provide the atlas (C1) with a pivot point for when the head is turned laterally and medially
  • allows rotation of the head
113
Q

define the atlanto-axial joint

A
  • where the dens of the axis (C2) fits inside the atlas (C1)
  • allows rotation of the head
114
Q

describe the structure of the thoracic vertebrae

A
  • spinous process directed anteriorly
  • larger body
  • has facets for articulating with the tubercules of the ribs and the head of the ribs
115
Q

what are the largest vertebrae in the body

A

lumbar vertebrae

116
Q

describe the structure of the lumbar vertebrae

A
  • largest in the body
  • horizontal spinous process
  • smaller vertebral foramen
117
Q

what is the function of the sacrum

A

provide a stable anchoring point for the bones of the pelvic girdle

118
Q

what is the function of the coccyx

A

attachment point for several ligaments and muscles of the pelvic floor

119
Q

what does the thoracic cage include

A
  • sternum
  • 12 pairs of ribs
120
Q

how many ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae and how many articulate with the sternum

A
  • 12 pairs articulate with thoracic vertebrae
  • 10 pair articulate with sternum
121
Q

what are the three elements of the sternum

A
  • superior manubrium
  • sternal body
  • xiphoid process
122
Q

define the sternal angle

A

where the manubrium articulates with the sternal body

123
Q

define the clavicular notch

A

where the manubrium articulates with the clavicle

124
Q

what is the xiphoid process made of before it ossifies in late adulthood

A

hyaline cartilage

125
Q

what could happen if someone incorrectly performs CPR

A

the xiphoid process of the sternum could snap off and puncture a lung

126
Q

define costal cartilage

A
  • attaches the ribs to the sternum
  • somewhat flexible to allow for expansion of the rib cage during inhalation
127
Q

define true ribs

A
  • first 7 pairs
  • their costal cartilage attaches directly to the sternum
128
Q

define false ribs

A
  • rib pairs 8-12
  • their coastal cartilage does not connect to the sternum directly
129
Q

define floating ribs

A
  • rib pairs 11 and 12
  • subset of false ribs
  • do not articulate with the sternum
  • serve little use other than protection of the kidneys
130
Q

describe the structure of a rib

A
  • head at the end
  • tubercule close to the head
  • costal groove on the inferior border of the inner face of the rib
131
Q

why is it important for injections to not hit the costal groove

A
  • contains a neurovascular bundle (vein, artery, nerve)
  • would cause much pain
132
Q

where should injections between the ribs be done

A

superior border of the inferior rib