The Human Organism Flashcards

1
Q

define anatomy

A

the scientific study of the structure of the body

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2
Q

what is included in structure when referring to anatomy

A
  • size
  • shape
  • volume
  • materials
  • connections
  • orientation
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3
Q

list the different levels of learning anatomy

A
  • gross (systemic and regional)
  • histology
  • cytology
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4
Q

define gross anatomy

A
  • large body structures that can be seen with the naked eye
  • can be learnt systemically or regionally
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5
Q

define systemic gross anatomy

A

learning anatomy through systems of grouped structures (body systems)

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6
Q

how many body systems are there

A

12

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7
Q

define regional gross anatomy

A

learning anatomy of all systems existing in a specific region (body cavity)

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8
Q

what appraoch to learning anatomy is traditionally used in med schools

A

regional

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9
Q

what equipment is needed to study histology

A

light microscope

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10
Q

define histology

A
  • study of tissues (groups of identical cells)
  • identifying tissues by their structure
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11
Q

what is the highest magnification from a light microscope

A

1000x

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12
Q

what was invented in the 1930s to 1950s that allows researchers to view the internal structure of cells with millions of times of magnification

A

electron microscope

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13
Q

define cytology

A

the study of the cell and its intracellular ultrastructure

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14
Q

define physiology

A

the scientific study of the function of the body

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15
Q

what is included in function when referring to physiology

A
  • how does it work
  • how does it do its job
  • what are the steps
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16
Q

what is the significance of the name of the course: integrated human anatomy and physiology

A
  • integrated
  • anatomy and physiology are related and taught at the same time
  • structure matches function, function depends on structure
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17
Q

what are the 6 levels that anatomy and physiology can be studied at

A
  • chemical
  • cell
  • tissue
  • organ
  • organ system
  • organism
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18
Q

what are the main elements that compose the human body

A
  • COHN
  • # 1 = oxygen
  • # 2 = carbon
  • # 3 = hydrogen
  • # 4 = nitrogen
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19
Q

what percent of humans are water

A

67%

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20
Q

what main elements are macromolecules made of

A
  • O
  • C
  • H
  • N
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21
Q

what are some other elements other than COHN that compose the human body

A
  • Ca
  • P
  • K
  • S
  • Na
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22
Q

what are the four macromolecules

A
  • nucleic acids
  • carbohydrates
  • proteins
  • lipids
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23
Q

describe a smooth muscle cell

A
  • small
  • single nucleus
  • spindle shaped
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24
Q

where is smooth muscle tissue found

A

lining internal organs (ex: urinary bladder)

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25
Q

what are the 4 layers of the urinary bladder

A
  • epithelium
  • elastic connective tissue
  • smooth muscle tissue
  • connective tissue (stronger than elastic)
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26
Q

define organ

A
  • composed of at least 2 types of tissue types
  • structure that can perform its own unique function
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27
Q

define organ system

A
  • organ relating to each other anatomically and/or physiologically
  • function together to achieve an outcome
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28
Q

describe the function of the urinary/excretory system

A
  • kidneys filter excess ions and toxins out of the blood and make urine
  • ureters bring urine to the bladder with tubes made of smooth muscle that keeps urine flowing in one direction
  • bladder holds urine until its ready to be expelled
  • urethra brings urine to the outside of the body
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29
Q

are organ systems completely independent of each other

A
  • no
  • each system depends on other systems to create an organism
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30
Q

which two body systems regulate all 12 body systems

A
  • nervous system
  • endocrine system
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31
Q

describe the endocrine system

A
  • made of glands that produce hormones
  • regulates physiology of tissues and organs
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32
Q

describe the nervous system

A
  • receives impulses from stimulus
  • sends impulse directly to the target tissue
    for a reaction
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33
Q

describe the speed of the nervous and endocrine system

A
  • nervous system: very fast
  • endocrine system: slower than nervous system
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34
Q

what is the fastest response time from the endocrine system

A
  • multiple seconds
  • can be up to hours or days
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35
Q

describe why regulation is important

A

things must be controlled in the body for it to work correctly and keep you alive and healthy

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36
Q

define homeostasis

A

many physiological variables must be kept within well-defined narrow limits enforced by physiological control systems

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37
Q

what are diseases caused by

A

failure to maintain homeostasis

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38
Q

list examples of variables that need homeostasis

A
  • pH of blood and other fluids
  • body temperature
  • blood glucose
  • blood gases
  • blood pressure
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39
Q

what is the set point for blood pH

A

7.4

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40
Q

what is the set point for body temperature (F and C)

A
  • 98.6 F
  • 37 C
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41
Q

what hormone regulates blood glucose

A

insulin

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42
Q

what does insulin do

A
  • keeps blood glucose from going too high after a meal
  • maintains glucose levels despite varying food intake throughout the day
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43
Q

what are the blood gases

A
  • CO2
  • O2
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44
Q

describe the significance of Claude Bernard

A
  • 19th century French researcher
  • first described that animals need a constant internal environment (milieu)
  • aka homeostasis
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45
Q

describe the significance of Walter Canon

A
  • MD and Harvard professor
  • did rigorous and expansive experiments on animals regarding control systems keeping multiple variables within a range (homeostasis)
  • coined the term homeostasis
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46
Q

what are famously homeostatically regulated

A

electrolytes

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47
Q

is the regulation of the concentration of electrolytes inside and outside the cell the same or different

A

different concentration limits for electrolytes that are intracellular vs extracellular

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48
Q

what is an example of an electrolyte having different concentration limits intracellularly vs extracellularly

A

sodium (Na+) is more concentrated outside of the cell than inside of the cell

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49
Q

define ion

A

an atom of an element with more/less electrons than protons

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50
Q

list common electrolytes in the body

A
  • calcium (Ca2+)
  • sodium (Na+)
  • chloride (Cl-)
  • potassium (K+)
  • phosphate (PO43-)
  • bicarbonate (HCO3-)
  • magnesium (Mg2+)
  • sulfate (SO42-)
  • hydronium (H+)
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51
Q

what type of ion is a calcium ion

A
  • Ca2+
  • divalent cation
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52
Q

what type of ion is a sodium ion

A
  • Na+
  • monovalent cation
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53
Q

what type of ion is a chloride ion

A
  • Cl-
  • monovalent anion
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54
Q

what type of ion is a potassium ion

A
  • K+
  • monovalent cation
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55
Q

what type of ion is a phosphate ion

A
  • PO43-
  • molecular ion
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56
Q

what type of ion is a bicarbonate ion

A
  • HCO3-
  • molecular ion
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57
Q

what type of ion is a magnesium ion

A
  • Mg2+
  • divalent cation
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58
Q

what type of ion is a hydronium ion

A
  • H3O+ (H+)
  • molecular ion
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59
Q

what type of ion is a sulfate ion

A
  • SO42-
  • molecular ion
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60
Q

what is the full and shortened notation of a hydronium ion

A
  • H3O+
  • H+
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61
Q

what is the general function of bicarbonate ions

A
  • equilibrium of acids and bases in the blood
  • controls CO2 levels
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62
Q

describe negative feedback

A
  • impulses from regulatory systems diminish the value of a variable back toward the set point
  • if the signal gets too high, it is pushed back down; if the signal gets too low, it is pushed back up
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63
Q

define the signal in negative feedback

A
  • the variable right now - the set point for that variable (absolute value)
  • aka deviation
  • always positive
  • is a function of the variable
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64
Q

what is the signal if your temperature is 99.6 F and the set point is 98.6 F

A
  • signal = current variable - set point
  • signal = 99.6 - 98.6 = 1
  • signal = 1 degree
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65
Q

define set point

A

the ideal average value for a given variable

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66
Q

describe why negative feedback is called negative feedback

A
  • the signal is always positive and is always working to go back to 0 (moving in negative direction)
  • the components of negative feedback work to diminish (negatively affect) the deviation (signal, always positive)
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67
Q

list the components of negative feedback

A
  • the variable in question
  • the signal (current value, set point)
  • receptor
  • controller
  • effector
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68
Q

does negative feedback kick in anytime the signal is not 0

A
  • not always
  • there is usually a minimum value the signal must be to invoke negative feedback
  • range around the set point
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69
Q

what are the physical components of negative feedback

A
  • receptor
  • controller
  • effector
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70
Q

describe the receptor in negative feedback

A
  • receives/measures the value of a variable
  • specific to one variable
  • has a close relationship with the controller
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71
Q

describe the controller in negative feedback

A
  • the brains of the operation
  • receives information from the receptor
  • has the set point for a specific variable memorized
  • calculates the signal ad decides if a reaction should happen
  • sends a command to the correct effector
72
Q

describe the effector in negative feedback

A
  • receives direction from the controller and does what it says
  • decreases the signal
73
Q

describe the receptor, controller, and effector in terms of the temperature in your house

A
  • receptor: thermometer
  • controller: thermostat
  • effector: air conditioning, heater
74
Q

how high does your temperature usually get before negative feedback is invoked

A

99.9 F

75
Q

what are the receptors for body temperature

A
  • nerve endings in the integumentary system that react only to temperature change and detect changes in the temperature of the environment
  • receptors in the hypothalamus of the brain that learn the temperature of the blood running through the hypothalamus
76
Q

what is the volume of the hypothalamus

A

end of pinky

77
Q

what components of negative feedback for body temperature are in the hypothalamus

A
  • receptors
  • controller
78
Q

define nuclei in the brain

A

groups of many neurons that have the same job

79
Q

what are the controllers for body temperature

A

2 nuclei (groups of neurons) in the hypothalamus

80
Q

what structure in the brain is the hypothalamus connected to

A

pituitary gland

81
Q

what are the effectors for body temerpature

A
  • tiny nerve endings stimulating eccrine sweat glands
  • blood vessels near the surface of the skin
82
Q

describe what the effectors do when you get too hot

A
  • tiny nerve endings stimulate eccrine sweat glands to sweat (evaporative cooling)
  • smooth muscle (sphincters) in blood vessels near the surface of the skin will dilate (radiative cooling)
83
Q

describe what the effectors do when you get too cold

A
  • hypothalamus tells sphincter muscles in blood vessels near the surface of the skin to constrict
  • vibrating of skeletal muscles generates heat (shivering)
84
Q

how does muscle exert force

A

by contracting

85
Q

is shivering voluntary or involuntary

A

involuntary

86
Q

what tells skeletal muscles to contract rapidly causing shivering

A

hypothalamus

87
Q

what is the first law of thermodynamics

A

energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another

88
Q

what is the second law of thermodynamics

A
  • there is never a perfect transfer or energy from one form to another
  • some energy is always lost to another form, usually heat
89
Q

describe how shivering makes you warm in terms of the laws of thermodynamics

A
  • 1st law: ATP has energy in the phosphate bonds -> when the bonds are broken, chemical energy is released -> contraction/movement of muscle is transforming chemical energy into kinetic energy
  • 2nd law: during the transfer from chemical energy to kinetic energy, some energy is lost in the form of heat which warms you up
90
Q

when might set points be adjusted

A
  • depending on physiological needs
  • ex: exercise can alter the set point of blood pressure, infection can alter the set point of body temperature
91
Q

why does the set point for blood pressure increase during exercise

A
  • the body needs a higher blood pressure because muscles have an increased demand for energy
  • a higher blood pressure gets more O2 and nutrients to the muscles
92
Q

define systolic blood pressure

A
  • the pressure during contraction of the heart
  • top number
93
Q

define diastolic blood pressure

A
  • the pressure during relaxation of the heart
  • bottom number
94
Q

what happens to the set point of blood pressure after exercise ends

A

it should go back to the resting set point quickly

95
Q

what can increase the set point for body temperature

A

infection

96
Q

describe how the immune response to an infection raises the set point of body temperature

A
  • white blood cells encounter pathogens and secrete a hormone called pyrogens
  • pyrogens send a signal to the hypothalamus that causes the set point of body temperature to increase
97
Q

what might you experience right as you start to spike a fever

A

chills

98
Q

why do you experience chills when you first get a fever

A
  • the body is trying to warm itself up to the new higher set point
  • the room temperature is proportionally lower to the body temperature set point so you feel cold
99
Q

why is a fever physiologically useful

A
  • helps to stop bacteria
  • can kill bacteria or stall them as they try to acclimate to the new temperature
  • gives the immune system time to eliminate the pathogens
100
Q

describe how the set point returns to normal after an infection

A
  • white blood cells stop secreting pyrogens when the interaction with pathogens stops
  • the hypothalamus is not receiving the hormone signal, so it returns the set point to normal
101
Q

what might you experience as your fever ends and why

A
  • cold sweat
  • the body is warmer than the new set point so you sweat to cool the body
102
Q

what is the crucial difference between negative and positive feedback

A
  • positive feedback increases the signal exponentially
  • negative feedback works to decrease the signal
103
Q

what is an example of positive feedback

A
  • labor
  • losing blood
104
Q

what is the variable in the positive feedback cycle of labor

A

variable: force of uterine contractions

105
Q

how strong is the first contraction and what happens to the subsequent contractions

A
  • 1st contraction is weak
  • positive feedback circuit makes contractions get stronger exponentially
106
Q

describe what is means that positive feedback is goal-oriented

A

the positive feedback circuit stops once the goal has been achieved

107
Q

what are the receptors in the positive feedback circuit of labor

A

muscle cells that are specialized mechanoreceptors in the uterus that detect stretching

108
Q

do the receptor muscle cells in the uterus during labor contract

A

no

109
Q

where are the stretch receptor muscle cells concentrated in the uterus

A

near the cervix

110
Q

what do the stretch receptor muscle cells in the uterus do during labor

A
  • detect stretching of the uterus
  • stimulate nerve impulses (action potentials) that move to the hypothalamus
111
Q

describe action potentials

A
  • wave-like change in voltage of nerve cells
  • moves down the axon of a nerve cell
  • action-oreinted
112
Q

what is another phrase for voltage

A

electrical potential

113
Q

what is the controller for the positive feedback circuit during labor

A
  • hypothalamus
  • pituitary gland
114
Q

describe the roll of the hypothalamus as a controller in the positive feedback circuit of labor

A
  • synthesizer
  • nuclei in the hypothalamus receive action potentials from muscles in the uterus
  • the neurons in the hypothalamus secrete oxytocin
  • the neurons in the hypothalamus send the oxytocin to the pituitary gland
115
Q

describe the roll of the pituitary gland as a controller in the positive feedback circuit of labor

A
  • secretor
  • receives oxytocin from the hypothalamus
  • releases oxytocin into the blood stream
116
Q

what is the target tissue for the hormone oxytocin that is released during the positive feedback circuit of labor

A
  • mammary tissue
  • uterine smooth muscle
117
Q

what is the effector in the positive feedback circuit of labor

A

uterine smooth muscle

118
Q

describe what the effector in the positive feedback circuit of labor do

A
  • receives oxytocin through the bloodstream
  • oxytocin causes uterine contractions
  • all the cells are linked by gap junctions so only a few cells need to be stimulated by the hormone for all the cells to contract simultaneously
119
Q

describe why labor is positive feedback

A
  • contractions (the signal) get stronger exponentially until the baby is delivered
  • as the baby moves down the uterine, more stretch receptors are stimulated until the baby is delivered
120
Q

describe how the positive feedback circuit of labor ends

A
  • birth of the baby
  • receptors do not have the stimulus so the positive feedback cycle stops
121
Q

what happens to leftover oxytocin from the positive feedback circuit of labor when the baby is delivered

A

slowly dies in the bloodstream

122
Q

what is an example of deleterious/vicious positive feedback

A

losing blood, shock

123
Q

what arteries supply blood to the heart tissue itself

A

coronary arteries

124
Q

what happens when there is a large wound causing you to lose blood

A

blood pressure drops

125
Q

why does blood pressure drop when there is a large wound causing you to lose blood

A

the heart is unable to give blood to the organs, including itself

126
Q

describe how losing blood from a wound is positive feedback

A
  • the wound causes you to lose blood which lowers blood pressure
  • a lower blood pressure means the heart can’t get enough blood to itself
  • the heart weakens with less nutrients from blood
  • blood pressure gets lower because the heart is weaker
  • etc, etc
127
Q

what does the dorsal body cavity contain

A
  • cranial cavity: brain
  • vertebral cavity: spinal cord
128
Q

what does the ventral body cavity contain

A
  • thoracic cavity
  • abdominal cavity
  • pelvic cavity
129
Q

what does the thoracic cavity contain

A
  • mediastinum
  • pleural cavities
130
Q

what are the two parts of the mediastinum

A
  • superior mediastinum
  • inferior mediastinum aka the pericardial cavity
131
Q

what is in the superior mediastinum

A
  • thyroid
  • aorta
  • esophagus
  • trachea
132
Q

where in the body is blood pressure the highest

A

aorta

133
Q

where in the body are homeostatic receptors for blood pressure located and why

A
  • aorta
  • location of the highest blood pressure
134
Q

what is in the inferior mediastinum (pericardial cavity)

A

heart

135
Q

what is in the pleural cavities

A

lungs

136
Q

what is in the abdominla cavity

A
  • liver
  • stomach
  • spleen
  • pancreas
  • gallbladder
  • small intestine
  • colon/large intestine
  • kidneys
137
Q

what is in the pelvic cavity

A
  • urinary bladder
  • reproductive organs
  • rectum
138
Q

what cavities does the diaphragm divide

A
  • thoracic cavity
  • abdominal cavity
139
Q

what is the shape of the diaphragm when relaxed (after exhale)

A

dome-shaped

140
Q

what is the shape of the diaphragm when contracted (during inhale)

A

flattened

141
Q

describe what the diaphragm does

A
  • contracts down when inhaling
  • increase the size of the thoracic cavity, lungs can expand with air
  • increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity, therefore decreasing the pressure so air moves into the lungs
142
Q

what are the two parts of a serous membrane

A
  • inner serous membrane near the organ: visceral serous membrane
  • outer serous membrane away from the organ: parietal serous membrane
143
Q

what organs have serous membranes covering them

A
  • heart
  • each lung
  • digestive tract
144
Q

how many serous membranes surround the digestive tract (stomach, small intestine, most of large intestine)

A

one

145
Q

what is between the serous membranes

A
  • serous fluid
  • viscous and slippery, like raw egg white
146
Q

what is the function of serous membranes

A
  • reduces friction between the organ and its surroundings
  • serous membranes surround organs thar are moving all the time (contracting and relaxing) which could create a lot of friction, but the friction is reduced by the serous membrane
147
Q

what is the downside of serous membranes

A

they are very delicate structures so they can easily break causing issues

148
Q

what is cardiac tamponade

A
  • a potentially fatal condition
  • fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardial cavity which compresses the heart
  • causes the heart to be unable to fill with blood during relaxation, therefore it cannot pump blood
149
Q

what causes cardiac tamponade

A
  • rupture of the heart wall following myocardial infarction
  • rupture of blood vessels in the pericardium after a tumor has invaded the area
  • damage to pericardium due to radiation therapy
  • trauma
150
Q

what is the second largest organ

A

liver

151
Q

what body system is the spleen a part of

A

lymphatic system

152
Q

what does the gallbladder do

A
  • fills with bile that is made in the liver
  • secretes bile when you eat a fatty meal
153
Q

what does bile do

A
  • makes the gallbladder appear dark green
  • emulsifies fat making absorption more efficient
154
Q

where does most of the absorption occur in the digestive tract

A

small intestine

155
Q

what does the large intestine do

A
  • water absorption
  • bacteria in the large intestine produce vitamin K
156
Q

what are the parts of the large intestine

A
  • cecum
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
157
Q

where does the small intestine join the large intestine

A

cecum

158
Q

where does the appendix project from

A

cecum

159
Q

what is the name of the serous membrane that surrounds the digestive system

A

peritoneum

160
Q

what is peritonitis and what causes it

A
  • inflammation of the peritoneum (serous membrane surrounding digestive tract)
  • often caused by appendicitis
161
Q

what are 3 things that cause swelling

A
  • infection
  • trauma
  • autoimmune disease
162
Q

why is it important to know positional terms and planes of orientation

A

to be able to communicate with other healthcare providers efficiently and effectively

163
Q

what are synonyms for superior

A
  • cephalic
  • cranial
164
Q

what is a synonym for inferior

A

caudal

165
Q

what is a synonym for anterior

A

ventral

166
Q

what is a synonym for posterior

A

dorsal

167
Q

define the sagittal plane

A

divides the body into left and right sides

168
Q

define the coronal/frontal plane

A

divides the body into anterior and posterior sides

169
Q

define the transverse plane

A

divides the body into superior and inferior sides

170
Q

what is the term for the thumb region

A

pollex

171
Q

what is the term for the big toe region

A

hallux

172
Q

define hernia

A

when soft material that is usually encapsulated by a fibrous wall protrudes out of the wall due to weakening or tearing of the wall

173
Q

define inguinal hernia

A
  • a hernia in the inguinal (groin) area
  • contents of hernia are usually small intestines
  • more common in men than women
174
Q

how are hernias fixed

A

surgically

175
Q

why are inguinal hernias more common in men than women

A
  • men’s testicles descend from a spot in the inguinal area
  • after they descend there is a weaker spot of the wall where the testicles descended from that may tear causing an inguinal hernia