The Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

what structures are a part of the central nervous system

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
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2
Q

what is the function of the central nervous system

A
  • take in sensory (afferent) information
  • make decisions about the information
  • send motor (efferent) signals to control muscles/glands of the body
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3
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

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4
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves are there

A

12

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5
Q

what are the two motor divisions of the nervous system

A
  • autonomic nervous system
  • somatic nervous system
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6
Q

describe the somatic nervous system

A
  • sends commands to skeletal muscles
  • conscious and voluntary control
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7
Q

what are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous sytem

A
  • sympathetic division
  • parasympathetic division
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8
Q

what are the effectors of the autonomic nervous system

A
  • cardiac muscle
  • smooth muscle
  • glands
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9
Q

what are the effectors of the somatic nervous system

A

skeletal muscle

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10
Q

describe the sympathetic nervous system

A
  • division of the autonomic nervous system
  • responsible for fight or flight reactions
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11
Q

describe fight or flight responses

A
  • increased heart rate
  • pupil dilation
  • sweating
  • blood flowing to internal organs (feeling a chill)
  • adrenal glands activated
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12
Q

describe the parasympathetic nervous system

A
  • division of the autonomic nervous system
  • responsible for regulating resting and digesting functions
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13
Q

are you always in either the sympathetic nervous system or parasympathetic nervous system

A

no, usually both systems are being activated at varying levels depending on the circumstances

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14
Q

when are you entirely relying on the parasympathetic nervous system and not the sympathetic nervous system

A

sleeping

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15
Q

is it better to be more on the sympathetic or parasympathetic side of the autonomic nervous system

A

better to be more in the parasympathetic division

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16
Q

what are the 3 neuron types

A
  • multipolar neuron
  • bipolar neuron
  • pseudo-unipolar neuron
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17
Q

which neuron type is the most common

A

multipolar neuron

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18
Q

describe multipolar neurons

A
  • have many dendrites (up to thousands)
  • have only one axon
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19
Q

define the trigger zone on a neuron

A

where an action potential will begin

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20
Q

where is the trigger zone located on a multipolar neuron

A

where the cell body meets the axon

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21
Q

describe bipolar neurons

A
  • have only one dendrite
  • have only one axon
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22
Q

where is the trigger zone located on a bipolar neuron

A

where the cell body meets the axon

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23
Q

where are bipolar neurons found

A
  • retina
  • cranial nerve I (olfactory)
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24
Q

describe pseudo-unipolar neurons

A
  • appear to have no dendrites and one axon
  • cell body only connects to the axon
  • sensory receptors on a portion of the axon
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25
Q

where is the trigger zone located on a pseudo-unipolar axon

A

at the end of the sensory recepting portion of the axon

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26
Q

what is the general function of all glial cells

A

support the functioning of neurons

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27
Q

how many neurons are in the brain

A

100 billion

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28
Q

how many glial cells are there compared to neurons

A

50-100x more glial cells than neurons

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29
Q

what are the glial cell types in the CNS

A
  • astrocytes
  • ependymal cells
  • microglia
  • oligodendrocytes
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30
Q

what are the glial cell types in the PNS

A
  • Shwann cells
  • satellite cells
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31
Q

what are the most abundant glial cell type

A

astrocytes

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32
Q

what are the functions of astrocytes

A
  • surround neurons to anchor them in place
  • wrap around capillaries with perivascular feet to regulate what can leave the capillary and enter the interstitial fluid (blood-brain barrier)
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33
Q

where are ependymal cells found

A
  • CNS
  • lining ventricles of the brian
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34
Q

what is the function of ependymal cells

A

circulate cerebrospinal fluid in brain ventricles

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35
Q

what type of cell in the skin are microglial cells analogous to

A

dendritic cells (immune cells)

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36
Q

what are the functions of microglial cells

A
  • attack pathogens found
  • remove damaged/dead cells through phagocytosis
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37
Q

what is the function of oligodendrocytes

A

wrap around axons (myelination) to speed the travel of action potentials in the CNS

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38
Q

how many axons does each oligodendrocyte myeliante

A

multiple

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39
Q

what is the function of schwann cells

A

wrap around axons (myelination) to speed the travel of action potentials in the PNS

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40
Q

how many axons does each schwann cell myelinate

A

one

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41
Q

what type of neuron detects light touch in the hands

A

pseudo-unipolar neuron

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42
Q

which root of the spinal cord does sensory information pass through

A

dorsal root

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43
Q

which root of the spinal cord does motor information pass through

A

ventral root

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44
Q

where in the spinal cord do somatic motor neurons (controlling skeletal muscle) start

A

ventral horn of the gray matter in the spinal cord

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45
Q

where in the spinal cord do autonomic motor neurons (controlling cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands) start

A

lateral horn of the gray matter in the spinal cord

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46
Q

what CNS structure makes decision when a damaging stimulus is detected

A
  • spinal cord recognizes and reacts to damaging stimuli
  • brain is not needed because it would take more time to react
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47
Q

how many somatic motor neurons are needed from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle

A

one

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48
Q

how many autonomic motor neurons re needed from the spinal cord to cardiac muscle/smooth muscle/glands

A

two

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49
Q

define the autonomic ganglion

A
  • collection of cell bodies outside of the CNS
  • where the synapse is between a motor neuron from the spinal cord and a motor neuron going to the effector
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50
Q

what do all autonomic responses go through

A

autonomic ganglion

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51
Q

what is the resting membrane potential of neurons

A

-70 mv

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52
Q

what are most neurotransmitters made from

A

amino acids

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53
Q

why are neurotransmitters made from amino acids

A
  • can be easily made
  • can be easily destroyed
  • can be vacuumed back into the axon that released them
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54
Q

what do neurotransmitters being released and binding to gated channels cause in the cell membrane

A
  • depolarization
    OR
  • hyperpoalrization
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55
Q

define depolarization

A
  • movement of resting membrane potential towards zero
  • exciting, making it more likely that an action potential will fire
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56
Q

what is the threshold for depolarization and when an action potential will occur

A

-55 mv

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57
Q

define hyperpolarization

A
  • movement of resting membrane potential farther from zero
  • inhibiting, making it less likely that an action potential will fire
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58
Q

define GABA

A
  • gamma aminobutyric acid
  • inhibiting neurotransmitter
  • causing hyperpolarization
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59
Q

can an action potential be stopped once it hits the trigger zone

A

no

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60
Q

describe summation in nuerons

A

multiple axons firing to get the depolarization wave to reach the trigger zone at a level that will create an action potential at the trigger zone

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61
Q

describe how GABA causes hyperpolarization

A
  • release of GABA will cause Cl- to enter the neuron
  • a negative ion entering the neuron will cause hyperpolarization
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62
Q

define the refractory period in neurons

A
  • time when another action potential cannot be fired until the first action potential has finished
  • must wait for the membrane to be repolarized
  • takes about 1 millisecond
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63
Q

can action potentials summate in axons

A
  • no
  • refractory period
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64
Q

what are the two parts of the refractory period of a neuron

A
  • absolute
  • relative
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65
Q

describe the absolute division of the refractory period of a neuron

A
  • occurs first during the depolarization and repolarization phases
  • nothing will happen if another action potential is fired
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66
Q

describe the relative division of the refractory period of a neuron

A
  • occurs after the absolute division
  • during hyperpolarization until the resting membrane potential reaches -70 mv
  • another action potential firing will cause a weak reaction
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67
Q

describe why an action potential won’t split into 2 going in opposite directions while traveling down an axon

A

the refractory period will be in the area right behind the action potential so the action potential cannot start moving backwards

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68
Q

define telencephalon

A

cerebrum

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69
Q

what surrounds the cerebrum

A

cerebral cortex

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70
Q

define cerebral cortex

A
  • surrounds the cerebrum
  • made of gray matter
  • neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
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71
Q

describe the separation of the cerebrum

A
  • divided into 2 hemispheres: left and right
  • separated by the longitudinal fissure
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72
Q

define matencephalon

A

cerebellum

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73
Q

what does cerebellum literally translate to

A

little cerebrum

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74
Q

what are the functions of the cerebellum

A
  • coordination of movements
  • some autopilot functions communicating with the frontal lobe
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75
Q

describe the autopilot function of the cerebellum

A
  • compares what the body is currently doing with what the brain wants it to do
  • makes adjustments to get the body to do what the brain wants
76
Q

what are the components of the diencephalon

A
  • thalamus
  • hypothalamus
  • epithalamus
77
Q

what does diencephalon literally translate to

A

in between brain

78
Q

where is the diencephalon located

A

between the cerebrum and the midbrain

79
Q

what are the components of the brain stem

A
  • midbrain
  • pons
  • medulla oblongata
80
Q

define sulcus

A

crevices in the brain

81
Q

what is the plural of sulcus

A

sulci

82
Q

define gyrus

A

bulge of cerebral cortex between sulci

83
Q

what is the plural of gyrus

A

gyri

84
Q

define central sulcus

A
  • important landmark
  • between the frontal and parietal lobes
85
Q

what do brain lobes usually have the same name as

A

the bone that covers them

86
Q

which brain lobe does not have the same name as the bone that covers it

A

insula

87
Q

where is the insula brain lobe located

A
  • insulated from view
  • under temporal lobe
88
Q

what does corpus callosum literally translate to

A

colossal body

89
Q

describe the location of the corpus callosum

A
  • connects the two cerebral hemispheres
  • floor of the longitudinal fissure
90
Q

what is the corpus callosum made of

A

white matter: tracts of axons running parallel

91
Q

define axonal tract

A
  • nerve-like bundle of axons running parallel
  • different from a nerve in that it is confined to the CNS
92
Q

what does the corpus callosum do

A
  • connects the cerebral hemispheres
  • sends information between hemispheres
93
Q

what is the floor of the longitudianl fissure

A

corpus callosum

94
Q

what does the epithalamus do

A

contains the pineal glands which makes melatonin

95
Q

what does the thalamus do

A
  • relay station for all sensory information entering the brain except olfaction
  • directs sensory signals
96
Q

what is the only sensory information that does not run through the thalamus

A
  • olfaction
  • goes straight to the insula
97
Q

what does the hypothalamus do

A
  • thermostat of the body
  • hunger and thirst
  • sex drive
  • fight or flight
  • regulates hormones of the pituitary gland
98
Q

what does the midbrain do

A

responsible for the startle reflex

99
Q

what is the most complicated reflex

A

startle reflex

100
Q

what does pons literally translate to

A

bridge

101
Q

what function do the pons and medulla oblongata share

A

controlling the rate and depth of breathing

102
Q

what is the function of the medulla oblongata

A

adjusts vaso-motor tone by regulating smooth muscle lining blood vessels

103
Q

what tells the cerebrum how the body is currently positioned

A

stretch receptors in skeletal muscles

104
Q

when does the cerebellum not work as well at its autopilot functions

A

when someone is inebriated (drunk)

105
Q

define basal nuclei

A

gray matter areas in the brain

106
Q

what is the function of basal nuclei

A

modulating voluntary movement and muscle tone

107
Q

what disease is caused by basal nuclei not working correctly or dying

A

Parkinson’s disease

108
Q

what are the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • can’t regulate movements and muscle tone
  • shuffling gait, drooping face
109
Q

are all areas of the brain entirely specialized to one specific function

A
  • no, most areas of the brain have multiple responsibilities
  • some areas are more specialized but not exclusively
110
Q

what does the prefrontal area of the brian do

A
  • makes decisions about somatic movement
  • sends signals to the premotor area
111
Q

what does the premotor area of the brain do

A
  • receives motor signals from the prefrontal area
  • middle management
  • sends signals to the primary motor cortex
112
Q

what is the precentral gyrus

A
  • gyrus that that anterior to the central sulcus
  • aka the primary motor cortex
113
Q

what does the primary motor cortex do

A
  • receives motor signals from the premotor area
  • produces movement
  • projects axonal fibers to the spinal cord to synapse with neurons that will move skeletal muscles
114
Q

what are the lateralized areas of the brain

A
  • broca area (motor speech area)
  • wernicke area (sensory speech area)
115
Q

where are the broca area and wernicke area usually found

A

lateralized: only on the left side of the brain

116
Q

what is another name for the motor speech area of the brain

A

broca area

117
Q

what does the broca area (motor speech area) do

A

movement of speech muscles

118
Q

what happens if there is trauma/damage to the broca area (motor speech area)

A

difficulty speaking

119
Q

where is the broca area (motor speech area) located

A

lateral frontal cortex on the left hemisphere

120
Q

what is the postcentral gyrus

A
  • gyrus that is posterior to the central sulcus
  • aka the primary somatic sensory cortex
121
Q

what does the primary somatic sensory cortex do

A
  • receives sensory information form the thalamus
  • sensory information received is from the body (somatic, NOT special senses)
122
Q

what does the somatic sensory association area do

A
  • receives information from the primary somatic sensory cortex
  • matches the stimuli to memory to decode the stimulus
  • determines what you are feeling
123
Q

what is another name for the sensory speech area of the brain

A

wernicke area

124
Q

what does the wernicke area (sensory speech area) of the brain do

A
  • understanding of speech and language being read
  • receives information from the auditory and/or visual cortexes
  • decodes words to uncover meaning
125
Q

what happens if there is trauma/damage to the wernicke area (sensory speech area) of the brain

A

difficulty understanding speech and language

126
Q

what does the visual cortex do

A
  • receives visual information from the thalamus
  • puts together an image that the brain can interpret
  • sends information to the visual association area
127
Q

what does the visual association area do

A
  • receives image information from the visual cortex
  • decodes the image to determine what you are looking at
128
Q

describe the pyramidal tracts of the brain

A

tracts of neurons that send information between the cerebral cortex and the spinal cord

129
Q

define decussation of the pyramids

A
  • crossover of the pyramidal tracts in the brain
  • why sensory and motor information happens on the opposite side of the brain and body
130
Q

what does homunculus literally translate to

A

little man

131
Q

which motor areas are controlled by the medial side of the primary motor cortex

A
  • lower limbs
  • trunk
  • upper limbs (not hands)
132
Q

which motor areas are controlled by the lateral side of the primary motor cortex

A
  • hands
  • face
  • mouth
133
Q

how much of the motor neuron area in the primary motor cortex controls muscles of the hands, face, and mouth

A

50%

134
Q

why does most of the primary motor cortex control muscles of the hands, face, and mouth

A
  • places that are very demanding in terms of control of movement; requiring precision
  • humans have a dependency on facial expression for communication
  • humans have a dependency on hand movements to do things
135
Q

which areas of sensory stimulus are sent to the medial side of the primary somatic sensory cortex

A
  • lower limbs
  • trunk
  • upper limbs (not hands)
136
Q

which areas of sensory stimulus are sent to the lateral side of the primary somatic sensory cortex

A
  • hands
  • face
  • mouth
137
Q

how much of the sensory neuron area in the primary somatic sensory cortex receives information from the hands, face, and mouth

A

50%

138
Q

why does most of the primary somatic sensory cortex receive information from the hands, face, and mouth

A
  • humans move in the direction of their head
  • special senses are in the head
  • touching and feeling with the hands is important for human functions
139
Q

describe why it is good and bad that the delicate brain is in the hard skull

A
  • good: protection
  • bad: brain could hit against skull and be damaged
140
Q

what is the primary function of the meninges

A

prevent the brain from banging against the skull and becoming damaged

141
Q

what are the 3 layers of the meninges from superficial to deep

A
  • dura mater
  • arachnoid mater
  • pia mater
142
Q

define dura mater

A
  • outermost meningeal layer
  • most durable
  • thickets
143
Q

define arachnoid mater

A
  • middle layer
  • less durable than dura mater
144
Q

define pia mater

A
  • innermost layer
  • least durable layer
  • directly attached to the brain and not removable
145
Q

define subarachnoid space

A
  • space between the pia mater and arachnoid mater
  • contains cerebrospinal fluid to absorb shock to lessen brain movement/damage
146
Q

what is contained within brain ventricles

A

cerebrospinal fluid

147
Q

list the ventricles of the brain in order of the movement of cerebrospinal fluid

A
  • lateral ventricle
  • third ventricle
  • fourth ventricle
148
Q

what connects the lateral ventricle and the third ventricle

A

interventricular foramen

149
Q

what connects the third ventricle and the fourth ventricle

A

cerebral aqueduct

150
Q

where does cerebrospinal fluid go after exiting the fourth ventricle

A

leaks into subarachnoid space in the brain and spinal cord

151
Q

how many layers of the eye are there

A

3

152
Q

list the 3 layers of the eye from superficial to deep

A
  • sclera
  • choroid layer
  • retina
153
Q

describe the sclera

A
  • outermost layer of the eye
  • very tough and fibrous
  • the white of the eye
  • melds into the cornea at the anterior end
154
Q

describe the cornea

A
  • at the anterior side of the eye
  • major refractor and focuser of light
  • sends light to the lens of the eye
155
Q

what does the lens do in the eye

A

focuses light on the retina

156
Q

describe the choroid layer

A
  • middle layer of the eye
  • very dense in blood supply
  • enriches nutrient and oxygen supply to the other layers of the eye
157
Q

describe the retina

A
  • innermost layer of the eye
  • transducer of light information to action potential information
  • contains photoreceptive cells: rods and cones
158
Q

define trasnducer

A

taking in sensory information and converting it to an electrical signal

159
Q

how does the cornea get nutrients and release waste without a direct blood supply

A

through tears (lacrimal gland secretions)

160
Q

how many chambers of the eye are there

A

2

161
Q

what are the 2 chambers of the eye

A
  • anterior chamber
  • posterior chamber
162
Q

describe the anterior chamber of the eye

A
  • smaller chamber
  • between the cornea and the lens
  • contains aqueous humor
163
Q

describe the posterior chamber of the eye

A
  • larger chamber
  • between the lens and the retina
  • contains aqueous and vitreous humor
164
Q

describe the texture of vitreous humor

A
  • very viscous
  • gelatinous
  • goopy
165
Q

describe the iris

A
  • sphincter muscles made of smooth muscle
  • constrict or dilate the pupil
166
Q

describe the shape of the lens

A
  • convex
  • thicker in the middle and tapers towards the edges
167
Q

what muscle controls the tension on the lens

A

ciliary body

168
Q

describe the ciliary body

A
  • circular muscle
  • controls tension on the lens of the eye
  • made of smooth muscle
169
Q

how is the ciliary body connected to the lens

A

through suspensory ligaments

170
Q

describe why the ciliary body is imporatn

A

allows you to keep adjustable focus on objects less than 12 feet away

171
Q

what are the 2 types of photoceptor cells in the eye

A
  • rods
  • cones
172
Q

what are the 3 types of cones

A
  • red
  • blue
  • green
173
Q

what wavelengths of light can rods pick up on

A

400-700 nm

174
Q

do rods impart color vision

A

no

175
Q

what wavelengths of light can blue cones pick up on

A

400-575 nm

176
Q

what wavelengths of light can green cones pick up on

A

460-650 nm

177
Q

what wavelengths of light can red cones pick up on

A

485-700 nm

178
Q

at what wavelength of light are blue and green cones stimulated at about the same extent

A

475 nm

179
Q

list the layers of cells that light travels through as it enters the eye

A
  • ganglion cells (multipolar neurons)
  • bipolar neurons
  • rods and cones
180
Q

what happens to light particles after they hit the back of the retina

A

they travel back forward until they hit the optic nerve

181
Q

what makes up the optic nerve

A

axons of ganglion cells converging

182
Q

which are more sensitive to light intensity: rods or cones

A

rods

183
Q

describe the vision that is generated when rods are stimulated

A
  • blurry
  • gray-scale (no color)
184
Q

in what light intensity are rods stimulated

A
  • low-level light
  • will become overstimulated in higher intensity light
185
Q

in what light intensity are cones stimulated

A

higher light intensity

186
Q

describe the vision that is generated when cones are stimulated

A
  • crisp
  • clear
  • color vision