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IMS > The Immune System > Flashcards

The Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Role of lymph nodes

A

Filter fluids in collecting vessels

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2
Q

4 lymphoid organs

A
  1. Spleen
  2. Lymph nodes
  3. Tonsils
  4. Thymus
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3
Q

What occurs at the arterial end of the capillaries- state the direction of fluid

A

Filtration - fluid moves out

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4
Q

What occurs at the venous end of the capillaries - state the direction of fluid

A

Reabsorption - fluid moves in

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5
Q

How much excess fluid is drained OUT of the blood into the lymphatic system?

A

3L

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6
Q

Why does fluid move out of the capillaries at the arterial end?

A

The hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure

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7
Q

Why does fluid move into the capillaries at the venous end?

A

The osmotic pressure is greater than the hydrostatic pressure

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8
Q

What type of cells are lymph capillaries made from?

A

Endothelial cells

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9
Q

2 unique structural modifications in the capillaries

A
  1. Cells overlap to create valves

2. Gaps in the wall to prevent leakage

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10
Q

3 tunics of lymph collecting vessels

A
  1. Interna
  2. Media
  3. Externa
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11
Q

What do lymphatic vessels in the skin travel with?

A

Superficial veins

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12
Q

What do vessels in the deep lymphatic system travel with?

A

Deep arteries

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13
Q

Which parts of the body drain into the right lymphatic duct?

A
  • right arm
  • right side of brain
  • right side of thorax
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14
Q

where does most of LHS of body drain into ?

A

Thoracic duct

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15
Q

What veins does the lymph enter? (2)

A
  1. Subclavian vein

2. Internal jugular vein

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16
Q

Does the lymph system have a pump?

A

No

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17
Q

What type CT is there in lymphoid tissue?

A

Reticular

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18
Q

Where in the lymphatic system are B cells stored?

A

Nodules

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19
Q

2 distinct regions of the lymph node

A
  1. Inner medulla

2. Outer cortex

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20
Q

Where does lymph enter the lymph nodes?

A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

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21
Q

Where does lymph leave the lymph nodes?

A

efferent lymphatic vessels at the hilus

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22
Q

4 types of tonsils

A
  1. Palatine
  2. lingual
  3. Pharyngeal
  4. Tubal
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23
Q

Where does interstitial fluid collect?

A

Intercellular spaces

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24
Q

Why is lymph slow moving and has a low pressure?

A

The lymphatic system does not have a pump

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25
Q

Which places is lymphoid tissue stored?

A
  1. Most organs

2. Nodules

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26
Q

What is lymphoid tissue?

A

Immune tissue

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27
Q

Where are lymph nodules found?

A

Within lymph nodes

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28
Q

Function of lymph sinuses

A

allow macrophages to enter

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29
Q

Which area of the spleen contains the venous sinus, red cells and splenic cord?

A

Red pulp

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30
Q

What does the white pulp of the spleen contain?

A

Lymphocytes on reticular fibres

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31
Q

What hormones does the thymus secrete to make T cells immunocompetent?

A
  1. thymosin

2. thymopentin

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32
Q

2 areas of the thymus

A
  1. Dark staining cortex

2. Light staining medulla

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33
Q

Which area of the thymus contains densely packed lymphocytes?

A

Dark staining cortex

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34
Q

Role of Thymic corpuscle?

A

converts self-reactive T cells into immunosupressive T cells

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35
Q

Role of tonsils

A

gather inhaled/ingested pathogens

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36
Q

Which tonsil surrounds the auditory tube?

A

Tubul

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37
Q

Which tonsil is at the back of the nasopharynx?

A

Pharyngeal

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38
Q

Which tonsil is under the tongue?

A

Ligual

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39
Q

Where are the palatine tonsils?

A

Either side of the posterior oral cavity

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40
Q

What do viruses need to replicate?

A

A host

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41
Q

Do viruses contain any organelles?

A

No

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42
Q

How to viruses bind to the host cells?

A

Surface proteins that host cells recognise

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43
Q

Name a virus and disease which the virus dormant time can be decades

A

Chicken pox - shingles

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44
Q

What structure can bacteria form to act together?

A

Biofilms

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45
Q

Which type of bacteria have purple staining?

A

Gram +ve

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46
Q

describe the cell wall in gram -ve bacteria

A

Thin peptidoglycan wall

Extra cell membrane - lipopolysaccharide

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47
Q

What is cellulitis an infection of?

A

The skin

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48
Q

Are fungi eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes

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49
Q

Why are fungal infections hard to treat?

A

Because they have the same organelles as human

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50
Q

3 types of fungi

A
  1. Yeast
  2. Mould (pores)
  3. Dimorphic
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51
Q

What is dimorphic fungi?

A

Fungi that can switch between types

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52
Q

Thrush, athletes foot and ringworm are all types of what infection?

A

Mild fungal infection

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53
Q

Parasite that lives outside of the body

A

Ectoparasite

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54
Q

Parasite that lives inside of the body

A

Endoparasite

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55
Q

Parasite that lives inside of another parasite

A

epiparasite

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56
Q

2 classes of human parasites

A
  1. Protazoa

2. Helminths

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57
Q

What is the name of the protazoa that causes diarrhoea?

A

Giardia

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58
Q

Which human cell does malaria enter?

A

RBC

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59
Q

3 types of helminths

A
  1. Trematodes
  2. Nematodes
  3. Cestodes
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60
Q

Name of helminth tapeworms

A

Cestodes

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61
Q

What diseases can cestodes cause:

A
  1. Malnutrition

2. Malabsorption

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62
Q

How does a fluke enter a human body

A

By the skin

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63
Q

What is the smallest infective agent?

A

Prions

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64
Q

How do prions affect proteins

A

causes them to change their folding shape - becomes non-functional

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65
Q

What is microflora?

A

Microorganisms on the surface of the skin - preventing other bacteria from entering

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66
Q

Name 4 ways to recognise antibody binding

A
  1. Enzyme
  2. Collodial gold
  3. Radioactive element
  4. Fluorescent dye
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67
Q

Why is the indirect method using fluorescent dyes for immunohistochemistry not persistant?

A

The antibodies do not stay attached for long

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68
Q

What colour stain is produced with the indirect method of IHC using an enzyme?

A

brown

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69
Q

What antibody is biotinylated in IHC?

A

Secondary antibody

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70
Q

What is used to preserve a antibody staining?

A

Chemical fixatives

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71
Q

Why are chemical fixatives sometimes a problem?

A

Identification of the antibody binding is lost

72
Q

Why is an isotyte antibody used during Immunohistochemistry?

A

To test for a false positive

73
Q

During ELISA, why are the plates washed?

A

to remove unbound antibodies

74
Q

Advantage of competitive ELISA

A

more specific

75
Q

Do bacterial cells have a nuclear membrane?

A

No

76
Q

What are the 70s bacterial ribosomes split into?

A

30s and 50s

77
Q

What are the 80s mammalian ribosomes split into?

A

40s and 60s

78
Q

What is an aerobic organism?

A

requires oxygen to grow

79
Q

What is an anaerobic organism?

A

Doesnt require oxygen for growth

80
Q

What is the name of an organism which can use oxygen for growth but also has anaerobic methods of energy production

A

Facultative

81
Q

What are atypical bacteria?

A

Do not stain either gram +ve or -ve

82
Q

Name 3 types of atypical bacteria

A
  1. Mycoplasmas
  2. Chylamadiae
  3. Rickettsiae
83
Q

How is DNA carried in bacteria?

A

Plasmids in the cytoplasm

84
Q

Term that describes: medicine that inhibits the growth/destroys microorganism

A

Antibiotic

85
Q

Term that describes: destructive/inhibiting growth of bacteria

A

Antibacterial

86
Q

Term that describes: destructive/inhibiting growth of microorganisms

A

Antimicrobial

87
Q

Term that describes: chemical liquid that destroys bacteria

A

Disinfectant

88
Q

Term that describes: drug/substance which kills bacteria

A

Bactericidal

89
Q

Term that describes: Capable of inhibiting the growth of bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

90
Q

Name of 2 types of antibiotics acting on the cell wall

A
  1. beta lactams

2. Glycopeptides

91
Q

Function of beta lactam

A

break cross links in peptidoglycan cell wall

92
Q

Mechanism of action of penicillin

A

work on penicillin-binding-proteins on bacterial cell wall to weaken it and affect cell division

93
Q

How do glcopeptides function?

A

inhibit peptidoglycan formation - prevention of joining dimers

94
Q

Why cant glycopeptides work against gram -ve bacteria?

A

It is too large to penetrate through the lipopolysaccharide wall

95
Q

Name a type of glycopeptide

A

Vancomycin

96
Q

Where do lipopeptide antibiotic work?

A

Cell membrane

97
Q

How do lipopeptide antibiotics work?

A

Depolarise the cell membrane

98
Q

Which antibiotic acts on the 23s subunit of 50s ribosome?

A

Linezoid

99
Q

Mechanism of chlorophenicol, macrolides and lincosamides (antibiotics)

A

Attach to 50s ribosomal unit - prevents AA chain forming

100
Q

Which antibiotic prevents the attachment of mRNA to the ribosome?

A

Aminoglycosides

101
Q

Role of tetracyclin antibiotics

A

Attach to 30s ribosomes - tRNA cannot bind to mRNA

102
Q

3 Antibiotics acting on nucleic acid synthesis

A
  1. Ramfipicin
  2. Quinolones
  3. Metranidazole
103
Q

Role of ramfipicin

A

inhibits RNA polymerase

104
Q

Role of Quinolones

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase - strands cannot reseal

105
Q

Role of metranidazole

A

Attaches to DNA strand - causing breakage in strands

106
Q

How does the antibiotic trimethoprim work?

A

Interferes with a metabolic pathway

107
Q

What does trimethoprim inhibit?

A

dihydrofolate reductase - formation of folic acid

108
Q

What is antibiotic prophylaxis

A

using antibiotics before surgery & chemotherapy to prevent infection

109
Q

What is instrinsic resistance?

A

The entire species is resistant before the antibiotic has been introduced

110
Q

3 types of gene transmission in bacteria

A
  1. conjugation
  2. transduction
  3. transformation
111
Q

Define a nosocomial disease

A

An infection not present or incubating prior to admittance to hospital - usually occuring 48 hours after admittance

112
Q

What pathogen causes Hospital Acquired Pneumonia?

A

Bacteria

113
Q

What is CAUTI

A

Cathetar associated urinary tract infections

114
Q

What type of bacteria is E Coli?

A

Gram negative

115
Q

What does sepsis cause?

A

Injury to own tissues & organs

116
Q

What type of bacteria is MRSA?

A

Gram +ve

117
Q

What 2 classes of antibiotics are MRSA resistant to?

A

Penicillin and cephalosporin

118
Q

How does methicillin kill a bacterial cell, what organelle specifically?

A

It attaches to penicillin binding sites- weakening the cell wall.

119
Q

How is MRSA resistant to all penicillins?

A

Penicillins all contain the beta lactam ring. Resistant strands modify the PBP so penicillins cannot attach.

120
Q

What type of bacteria is C.diff?

A

Gram +ve

121
Q

How is C.diff transmitted?

A
  1. Orally

2. Through faeces

122
Q

what does C.diff form?

A

Spores

123
Q

Which enzyme identifies C.diff?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

124
Q

2 types of toxin tests

A

1) ELISA

2) PCR

125
Q

How can antibiotics be a risk factor for C.diff?

A

They alter gut flora - allowing C.diff to flourish & produce toxins

126
Q

What is conservative treatment?

A

Avoiding invasive treatments - watchful waiting etc.

127
Q

What antibiotics is glycopeptide resistant enterococci resistant to?

A

1) Vancomycin

2) teicoplanin

128
Q

What type of bacteria does daptomycin work against?

A

Gram +ve

129
Q

Define Vmax

A

Maximum velocity (rate) of reaction - at saturating [S]

130
Q

Define Km

A

[S] at which rate if half of Vmax (maximum rate)

131
Q

What Km will an enzyme have with low affinity for substrate?

A

high Km

132
Q

Define necrosis

A

Tissue degeneration by lysosomal enzymes due to disease.

133
Q

What does tissue repair inhibit?

A

Mast cell activation

134
Q

Define dysplasia

A

Loss of normal architecture of cells

135
Q

Define metaplasia

A

When tissues adapt to environmental stimuli by change in cell differentiation

136
Q

What do cells differentiate to and from in the cervix?

A

columnar to squamous

137
Q

What is well differentiated malignancy?

A

cells that closely resemble tissue of origin

138
Q

What is atheroscleorosis?

A

Thickening and inelasticity of artery walls

139
Q

Where are B and T cells produced, developed and matured?

A

Red bone marrow and thymus gland

140
Q

3 secondary lymphatic organs

A
  1. Spleen
  2. Lymph nodes
  3. Lymph nodules
141
Q

Role of physical barriers in the body

A

prevent pathogen reaching epithelia

142
Q

Define haematopoiesis

A

Formation of blood components

143
Q

What are interferons produced by?

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages and fibroblasts which have been infected by a virus

144
Q

3 types of interferons

A
  1. Alpha
  2. Beta
  3. Gamma
145
Q

Which pathogens do interferons work against?

A

Viruses

146
Q

Which antimicrobial protein works by puncturing holes in the cell membrane?

A

Complement cascade

147
Q

What 3 pathogens do M1 (classically activated macrophages) defend against?

A
  1. Viruses
  2. Bacteria
  3. Protazoa
148
Q

What is macrophage plasticity?

A

Macrophages behave differently depending on what protein they express.

149
Q

What does PAMPS stand for?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

150
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The small component of an antigen which only initiates an immune response.

151
Q

What are the 5 types of immunoglobins?

A

GAMED

152
Q

How many polypeptide chains does an antibody have?

A

4

153
Q

What 3 processes occur when the antigen binds at the variable region?

A

1) Neutralisation
2) Agglutination
3) Precipitation

154
Q

In monoclonal antibody technique, what cells are taken from the mice?

A

Spleen

155
Q

Which proteins are involved in complement?

A

C1-C9

156
Q

which 3 factors are involved in complement?

A
  1. Factor B
  2. Facor D
  3. Factor P (Properdin)
157
Q

In terms of complement, which binding protein is involved in the lectin pathway?

A

Mannose binding protein

158
Q

3 pathways of complement

A
  1. Innate - lectin
  2. Innate - alternative
  3. Classical
159
Q

What enzyme produces alpha gal residues?

A

alpha-1,3- galactose transferase

160
Q

What is the name of the type of tolerance which is non-reactivity to an antigen that should cause an immune response?

A

Acquired tolerence

161
Q

Where do Pre T cells develop self-recognition?

A

In the thymus

162
Q

Which antibody isotype encourages mast cell degranulation?

A

IgE

163
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for allergic contact eczema - type 4 hypersensitiivty?

A

T cells

164
Q

Which antibody type induces type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

165
Q

Biological effect of a chemokine in type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Attracts macrophages, neutraphils and monocytes

166
Q

Which hormone relaxes bronchiole smooth muscle

A

Epinephrine/adrenaline

167
Q

Which immune cells phagocyte when the parasite is too large to be engulfed by a phagocyte?

A

Eosinophil

168
Q

2 methods of diagnosis for allergies?

A
  1. Pinprick test

2. ELIZA - blood sample; IgE titre is taken

169
Q

What cells undergo apoptosis in atopic dermatitis?

A

Keratinocytes - skin

170
Q

Which antibody isotype cause type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG

171
Q

2 type 2 hypersensitivity diseases

A
  1. Anaemia

2. Thrombocytopenia

172
Q

In type 2 hypersensitivity, what do IgG antibodies attack?

A

RBC/platelets

173
Q

What antibodies cause type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG

174
Q

In type 3 hypersensitivity why can only phagocytosis act?

A

The antigens are soluble

175
Q

What response does type 3 hypersensitivity bring about?

A

Inflammatory

176
Q

What is destroyed in coeliac disease?

A

Villi in intestine

IMS (14 decks)

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