Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Midterm Flashcrads > test 6 > Flashcards

test 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is abnormal behaviour?
(examples)

A
  • Amy hasn’t been to work in two weeks. She has no physical problems but has trouble getting out of bed. She has little appetite and has lost 10 pounds in two weeks. She has no interest in things that she used to enjoy.
  • Mary masturbates in public on a regular basis. She does it so all can see.
  • Terry is a successful accountant in a good marriage. He wears silk panties to work. He dresses up in female attire when having sex with his wife. Both enjoy their lovemaking.
  • Lloyd appears to be in an altered state of consciousness. His eyes don’t focus and he is unresponsive. He is repeating the same statement over and over.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anxiety

A
  • future-oriented
  • mood state
  • feeling that one cannot predict or control upcoming events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

fear

A
  • present-oriented
  • emotional alarm reaction to present danger
  • emergency “fight or flight” response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Criteria for a Panic Attack

A
  • Discrete period of intense fear/discomfort where at least 4 symptoms developed abruptly and reached a peak within 10 minutes

  • palpitations,
  • pounding/racing heart
  • sweating
  • trembling/shaking
  • shortness of breath/smothering sensations
  • feeling of choking
  • chest pain/discomfort
  • nausea or abdominal distress
  • feeling dizzy, unsteady, faint or lightheaded
  • derealization or depersonalization
  • fear of losing control or going crazy
  • fear of dying
  • paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations)
  • qchills or hot flushes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The DSM-IV Anxiety Disorders

A
  • Panic Disorder with/without Agoraphobia
  • Specific Phobia
  • Social Phobia
  • Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q


 Panic Disorder

A
  • recurrent, unexpected panic attacks
  • AND one month of concern about additional attacks
  • OR… worry about the implications of the attack or its consequences
  • OR… a significant change in behaviour related to the attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Agoraphobia

A
  • anxiety about being in places/situations from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing in the event of a panic attack
  • situations are avoided or endured with marked distress or anxiety about having a panic attack OR require the presence of a companion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Typical Agoraphobic Situations

A

Shopping malls
Cars
Trains
Buses
Subways
Wide streets
Tunnels
Restaurants
Theatres
Supermarkets
Stores
Crowds
Planes
Elevators
Escalators
Waiting in line
Being far from home “out of safe zone”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Specific Phobia

A
  • marked and persistent fear that is excessive or unreasonable, cued by a specific object or situation
  • exposure to the phobic stimulus almost invariably provokes an immediate anxiety response (e.g., a panic attack)
  • phobic situation/object is avoided or endured with intense anxiety and distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Specific Phobia - Types

A
  1. Animal
  2. Natural Environment (e.g., heights, water)
  3. Blood-Injection-Injury Type
  4. Situational (e.g., planes, elevators, driving)
  5. Other (e.g., choking, vomiting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Social Phobia

A
  • marked and persistent fear of social or performance situations
  • situations involve exposure to unfamiliar people or to possible evaluation by others
  • individual fears that he/she may do something humiliating or embarrassing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive and related Disorders

A

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) - recurrent and persistent obsessions and/or compulsions

  • symptoms cause marked distress
  • time consuming (more than 1 hour/day)
  • interfere significantly with person’s normal routine
  • Trichotillomanic and Body Dysmorphic Disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

OBSESSIONS

A
  • persistent and intrusive thoughts, impulses, images
  • inappropriate, cause marked anxiety or distress
  • person usually attempts to ignore or suppress them
  • …OR neutralize them with some other thought or action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

COMPULSIONS

A
  • repetitive behaviors or mental acts
  • performed to prevent or reduce anxiety/distress, not to provide pleasure or gratification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Body Dysmorphic Disorder

A
  • Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance, or if a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is excessive
  • Significant distress or impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stressor Related Disorders

A
  • PTSD
  • Adjustment Disorder
  • Reactive Adjustment Disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mood Disorders

A
  • Lifetime prevalence rates of depressive disorders:
    • 13% men
    • 25% women
  • Lifetime prevalence rates of bipolar disorders (not a mood disorder):
    • less than 1% for men and women
  • 15% complete suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mood Episodes

A

Major Depressive Episode
Manic Episode
Hypomanic Episode
Mixed Episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Major Depressive Episode

A
  • Depressed mood
  • Loss of interest (anhedonia)
  • Significant weight loss or gain
  • Insomnia or hypersomnia
  • Psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • Fatigue or loss of energy
  • Worthlessness or guilt
  • Diminished ability to concentrate, indecisiveness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q


2. Manic Episode 


A
  • Abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood
  • Inflated self-esteem and grandiosity
  • Requiring very little sleep
  • Talkativeness
  • Flight of ideas
  • Distractibiltiy
  • Psychomotor agitation
  • Buying sprees, sexual indiscretions, foolish business investments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Hypomanic Episode
A

Symptoms are milder than a Manic Episode

  • Less intense and last at least four days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Mixed Episode
A
  • Both a Major Depressive Episode and a Manic Episode nearly everyday for at least a one week period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A
  • One or more Major Depressive Episodes
  • No history of Manic, Hypomanic or Mixed Episodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dysthymic Disorder

A
  • Less severe but more chronic than Major Depressive Disorder
  • Symptoms are milder but remain unchanged over long periods of time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bipolar I Disorder
(BD)

A
  • One or more Manic or Mixed Episodes
  • Often individuals have also had one or more Major Depressive Episodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bipolar II Disorder
(BD)

A
  • Presence (or history) of one or more Major Depressive Episodes
  • Presence (or history) of at least one Hypomanic Episode
  • There has never been a Manic Episode or a Mixed Episode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cyclothymic Disorder

A
  • Less severe but more chronic than Bipolar Disorder
  • Symptoms of hypomania and depression are milder but remain unchanged over long periods of time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DSM-IV Specifiers

A
  1. Chronic
  2. Psychotic
  3. Melancholic
  4. Atypical
  5. Catatonic
  6. Postpartum Onset
  7. Seasonal Pattern
  8. Rapid Cycling Pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Somatoform & 
Dissociative Disorders

A
  • Somatoform Disorders:
    • Hypochondriasis
    • Somatization Disorder
    • Conversion Disorder
    • Factitious Disorder
    • Body Dysmorphic Disorder
  • Dissociative Identity Disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypochondriasis
DSM-IV Criteria

A
  • Preoccupation with the belief that one has a serious disease
  • The preoccupation persists despite medical evaluation and reassurance
  • Not delusional
  • Distress or impairment
  • Lasts at least 6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Somatization Disorder

A
  • History of many physical complaints beginning before age 30 that result in treatment being sought or significant impairment
  • Each of the following criteria must have been met:
    1. Four pain symptoms
    2. Two gastrointestinal symptoms
    3. One sexual or reproductive symptom
    4. One neurological symptom
  • Symptoms cannot be fully explained by a known medical condition
  • The symptoms are not intentionally produced or feigned

Causes: unclear, anxiety, secondary gain

Treatment: gatekeeper physician, work, treatment for anxiety and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Conversion Disorder

A
  1. One or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory function that suggests a neurological or general medical condition
  2. Preceded by a conflict or stressor
  3. Not intentionally produced
  4. Cannot be fully explained by a medical condition
  5. Significant distress or impairment or warrants medical evaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder

A
  1. The presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states
  2. At least two of these identities recurrently take control of the person’s behaviour
  3. `Inability to recall important personal information that is too excessive to be explained by forgetfulness
  • Host Identity
  • Alternate Identities
  • Switch

Causes: abuse, neglect, iatrogenic, feigned

Treatment: skillful therapist, build a therapeutic alliance, ground rules, reintegration: process trauma & dissociative defenses, post integration therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Eating Disorders

A
  • Females 10 x more likely to develop an eating disorder
  • Around 5% of young women will develop an eating disorder
  • Course and outcome of eating disorders is highly variable
  • Eating disorders are associated with serious complications, and have the highest mortality rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DSM-IV Diagnostic criteria for Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • Low body weight
  • Fear of gaining weight or becoming fat
  • Weight-related self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the low body weight
  • Amenorrhea

RESTRICTING TYPE
BINGE EATING/PURGING TYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DSM-IV: Diagnostic criteria for Bulimia Nervosa

A
  • Binge eating
  • Inappropriate compensatory behavior
  • Both occur, at least 2/ week for 3 months
  • Weight-related self-evaluation

PURGING TYPE
NON PURGING TYPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Physical Complications
(with eating disorders)

A
  • Menstrual Dysfunction
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypotension
  • Tiredness, Lethargy
  • Headaches
  • Hair Loss
  • Dental Problems
  • Electrolyte Abnormalities
  • Parathesias
  • Acute Gastric Dilation
  • Delayed Gastric Emptying
  • Constipation
  • Swollen salivary gland
  • Kidney Dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Psychological Complications
(with eating disorders (bulimia & anorexia))

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Mood swings
  • Food Preoccupation
  • Social Isolation
  • Sleep Disturbances
  • Self-Esteem Deficits
  • Impulsive Behaviors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Schizophrenia

A
  • Delusions and Irrational thought
  • Deterioration of Adaptive Behaviors
  • Hallucinations
  • Disturbed Emotion
  • Paranoid, Catatonic, Disorganized, Undifferentiated
  • Positive vs. Negative symptoms
  • Chronic, resistant to treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Psychological Therapies

A
  • Whereas the biological therapies view mental disorders through the medical model, psychological therapies view the roots of abnormal behavior in mental states
  • Each therapy has its own view as to the cause of mental disorder
  • Each therapy has its own approach to the treatment of mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Insight-Oriented Therapy

A
  • E.g. psychoanalysis, humanistic, gestalt
  • Help person understand the basis of their thinking, behavior, emotions and perceptions
  • Insight into the cause will lead to change
  • Emotion focused therapy or process experiential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Action-Oriented Therapy

A
  • E.g. Cognitive-Behavioral therapy, Rational-Emotive therapy
  • Encourages individuals to change behavior or thinking
  • Multifaceted and individually tailored
  • Strong therapeutic relationship
  • Behavioral techniques and cognitive restructuring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Varieties of Psychological Treatment

A
  • Psychodynamic
  • Humanistic
  • Cognitive-behavioral
  • Biological/Biomedical
  • Group therapy
  • Family and marital therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Psychodynamic Approach

A
  • The psychodynamic approach was created by S. Freud
    • Mental symptoms reflect unconscious conflicts that induce anxiety
    • Insight refers to the situation in a person comes to understand their unconscious conflicts
    • Therapeutic change requires an alliance (relationship) between the patient and therapist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Psychodynamic Techniques

A

goal of psychodynamic therapy is to achieve insight into unconscious conflicts

  • Free Association refers to a technique in which the patient is encouraged to say whatever comes to mind to reveal the unconscious processes of the patient
  • Interpretation: Therapist interprets the thoughts, and feelings of the patient in order to reveal the hidden conflicts and motivations
  • Analysis of transference: Patients bring into therapy their past troubled relationships; these are transferred to the therapist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Humanistic Therapy

A
  • Roger’s Client-centered therapy
  • Therapeutic Climate
  1. Genuineness
  2. Unconditional Positive Regard
  3. Empathy
  • TherapeuticProcess
    • Guidance, clarification, become more comfortable with genuine self
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Behavior Therapies

A
  • Classical conditioning techniques can alter emotional responses
    • Systematic desensitization: Patient is encouraged to confront a feared stimulus (snake) while in a relaxed state
      • Therapist trains relaxation
      • Patient constructs an image hierarchy
      • While relaxing, patient imagines the least fearful of the images in their hierarchy (e.g. being on the planet as a snake)
    • Exposure: Patient is exposed to the stimulus that they fear (locked in a room full of snakes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cognitive Therapies

A
  • Focus of cognitive therapies is on changing dysfunctional thought patterns
  • Rational Emotive Therapy focuses on the hurtful thought patterns of the patient
    • Ellis’s theory suggests that pathology results when persons adopt illogic in response to life situations
    • Therapist notes illogical and self-defeating thoughts and teaches alternative thinking that promotes rational thought
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies

A

Cognitive-behavioral therapies focus on the current behaviors of a person

  • Emphasis is on the present rather than the past
  • Cognitive-Behavioral therapists are very directive
  • Therapy duration is short-term rather than years long
  • Initial focus is on a detailed behavioral analysis: focus is on the problem behavior and the stimuli associated with it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cognitive Restructuring

A
  • Beck or Ellis
  • Irrational beliefs
  • Extreme emotional reactions
  • ABC’s of Rational Emotive Therapy
    A – activating event
    B – belief
    C – consequences (emotional)
    D – disputing beliefs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Research indicates:

A
  • Receiving psychotherapy is considerably more effective than no treatment
  • CBT shows a slight but consistent advantage with regards to effectiveness compared to insight-oriented therapy
  • People who do best in therapy are those who have the least problems
  • personality disorders show less benefit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The Medical Model

A

The Medical Model views abnormal behaviour as reflecting a biological disorder

  • Usually localized within the brain
  • Involving either brain damage or a disruption of the neurotransmitter processes of the brain
  • Person is viewed as a patient, treated by doctors in a mental hospital
  • Therapies tend to be physical in nature
    • Drugs (Pharmacotherapy)
    • Surgical alteration of brain (Psychosurgery)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pharmacotherapy

A
  • Psychotropic medications are drugs that act on the brain to alter mental function
  • Prior to 1956, schizophrenia was virtually untreatable with many patients confined for life in mental hospitals
    • Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) was found to reduce severity of psychotic thought, allowing people to live outside of mental institutions
      • Reduced size of institutions
    • The psychotropic actions of many drugs are often accidentally discoveries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Antipsychotic Medications

A
  • Schizophrenia can be viewed as composed of:
    • Positive Symptoms: Presence of hallucinations
    • Negative Symptoms: Absence of affect

Antipsychotic medications refer to drugs that alleviate schizophrenia
- Antipsychotic medications are more effective for the positive symptoms than for negative symptoms of schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dopamine and Schizophrenia

A
  • The positive symptoms of schizophrenia reflect too much brain dopamine activity
    • Antipsychotic drugs are effective antagonists of dopamine receptors (block the action of dopamine)
    • Drugs such as amphetamine release dopamine from terminals; too much amphetamine exposure can induce a psychotic state in humans
  • Negative schizophrenic symptoms may reflect brain damage enlarged ventricles)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Antidepressant Medications

A
  • Depression reflects a disturbance of mood, sleep, and appetite
  • Psychotropic antidepressant drugs can lift depression (require 3-4 weeks for effect)
    • Tricylic antidepressants: Act by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
    • Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors: MAO degrades transmitters; drugs that inhibit MAO allow the transmitter to work for longer periods
    • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors: Prozac blocks the reuptake of serotonin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Antianxiety Medications

A
  • Anxiety reflects an intense emotional state of dread and apprehension
  • Drugs such as Valium increase the activity of the transmitter GABA to dampen the neural activity of the brain
    • Valium is useful in the short-term treatment of anxiety
  • Antianxiety medications can result in drug dependence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Electroconvulsive Therapy

A

-Antidepressant drugs require 3-4 weeks to take action on mood; the person may be at risk for suicide or is not responding to drug treatment

  • Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) refers to the intentional induction of a brain seizure by shock administered to either or both hemispheres
    • ECT produces immediate improvement in mood (explanation is unknown)
    • Side effects of ECT include memory loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Common Factors in Psychotherapy

A
  • Development of a therapeutic alliance
  • Providing a rationale
  • Opportunity for catharsis or venting
  • Acquisition and practice of new behaviors
  • Beneficial therapist qualities (objective, confidential, professional)
  • Patient positive expectations and hope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Eclecticism

A
  • Involves using different treatments for different clients with different problems
  • Using a reasonable combination of various treatments for the same client (technical eclecticism)
    • all populations can receive different types of group therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Advantages to groups

A
  1. Efficiency
  2. Universality
  3. Empathy
  4. Interaction
  5. Acceptance
  6. Altruism
  7. Modeling
  8. Pressure
  9. Practice
  10. Reality testing
  11. Transference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Suicide Risk Factors
(Diathesis)

A

Diathesis

  • psychological disorder (90%)
  • substance use and abuse (25-50%)
  • family history of suicide
  • family breakdown
  • societal breakdown
  • past suicide attempts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Suicide Risk Factors
(stress)

A
  • changes in relationships, academic/work, or financial situation
  • life event that is shameful or humiliating
  • significant loss
  • homosexuality
  • recent suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Suicide
warning signs

A
  • withdrawal
  • change in eating, sleeping, friends
  • writing and talking about death
  • telling statements
  • agitation followed by calm resignation
  • giving away valued possessions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What to do as a friend
(suicide)

A
  • Take suicide threats seriously
  • Don’t be afraid to discuss suicide
  • Recognize the warning signs and the risk factors
  • Don’t leave the person alone
  • Get help
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What to do as a therapist
(suicide)

A
  • Ask directly about suicide
  • Find out if they have a plan
  • Do they feel like they are in control of their behaviour?
  • Develop a safety plan
  • Make a contract
  • Treat the psychological disorder

Crisis situation – break confidentiality
Grief after suicide…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

abnormal behaviour

A

behaviour that is deviant, maladaptive, or personally distressful over a relatively long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

abnormal behaviour
deviant

A
  • behaviour that does not conform to accepted social standards
  • when atypical behaviour deviates form what is acceptable in a culture, it is often considered abnormal
  • context of behaviour may determine whether it is deviant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

abnormal behaviour
maladaptive

A
  • interferes with a persons ability to function effectively in the world
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

abnormal behaviour
personal distress

A
  • over a long period of time
  • person engaging in behaviour finds it troubling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

biological approach

A
  • attributes psychological disorders to organic, internal causes
  • primary focus on the brain, genetic factors, and neurotransmitter functioning as the source of abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

psychological approach

A
  • emphasizes the contributions of experiences, thoughts, emotions, and personality characteristics in explaining psychological disorders
  • psychologists might focus on influence of childhood experiences or personality traits in the developmental course of psychological disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

medical model

A

view that psychological disorders are medical disease with biological origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how can abnormal behaviour be influenced

A
  • biological factors (genes)
  • psychological factors (childhood experiences)
  • sociocultural factors (gender)
  • often act in combination of one another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

vulnerability-stress hypothesis
(also called the diathesis-stress model)

A

theory suggesting that pre-existing conditions such as genetic characteristics, personality dispositions, or experiences may put a person at risk of developing a psychological disorder

  • study process by: examining the interaction between genetic characteristics and environmental circumstances or
    gene X environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

DSM-5

A

the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders; the major classification of psychological disorders in north america

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

DSM-5 included new diagnoses, such as binge eating disorder and gambling disorder

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

DSM-2 continues to reflect medical model neglecting factors like poverty, unemployment, and trauma

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

autism spectrum disorder

A

range of neurodevelopmental disorders involving impaired social interaction and communication, repetitive behaviour, and restricted interests

  • range of symptoms
  • no single identified cause for disorder
  • genetic and neurological factors
  • in Canada 1 in 66 children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

psychological disorder that a person experiences one or more bodily (somatic) symptoms and experiences excessive thoughts and feelings about these symptoms that interfere with everyday functioning

  1. person experiencing physical symptoms like chronic pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A

a common psychological disorder that the individual exhibits one or more of the following: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsitivty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Seeking help for symptoms you believe you have you should go to:

A

clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, psychological associate

  • 3 professionals are specifically trained to complete proper full assessments and diagnoses of psychological disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

anxiety disorder

A
  • fears are uncontrollable, disproportionate to the actual danger the person might be in
  • disruptive of ordinary life
  • motor tensions (jumpiness, trembling)
  • hyperactivity (dizziness, racing heart)
  • apprehensive expectations and thoughts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

general anxiety disorder

A

an anxiety disorder marked by persistent anxiety for the last six months, where the individual is unable to specify the reasons for the anxiety

  • many with GAD are nervous most of the time and worry a lot
  • may suffer from fatigue, muscle tension, stomach problems, and trouble sleeping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

biopsychosocial factors that play a role in generalized anxiety disorder:

A
  • genetic predisposition
  • deficiency in the neurotransmitter GABA (the brains brake pedal)
  • respiratory system abnormalities
  • problems in regulating sympathetic nervous system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

panic disorder

A

anxiety disorder that the individual experiences recurrent, sudden onset of intense terror, often without warning and with no specific cause

  • share biological characteristics with physical illnesses like asthma, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Panic attacks can produce:

A
  • sever palpitations
  • extreme shortness of breath
  • chest pains
  • trembling
  • setting
  • dizziness
  • feeling of helplessness

many feel like they are having a heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

bio factors of panic attacks

A
  • gentic predisposition
  • action of neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, GABA, serotonin
  • lactate (plays a role in metabolism, is elevated in ppl with panic disorders_
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

specific phobia

A

An anxiety disorder where the person experiences an irrational overwhelming persistence of fear from a particular object or situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  • fear should be learned relatively quickly bc learning to fear things that will hurt us keep us out of harm’s way
  • women are more likey to experience specific phobias
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

social anxiety disorder (SAD)
also called social phobia

A

anxiety disorder, where a person has intense fear of being humiliated or embarrassed in social situations

  • feel like others judge us
  • the lvl of anxiety provoked by these situations can often lead to panic attacks and may cause people to avoid such situations whenever possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

DSM-5 generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, specific phobia, and social anxiety disorder are classified under anxiety disorder

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

psychological disorder where the person has anxiety provoking thoughts that will not go away and/or urgers to perform repetitive, ritualistic behaviours to prevent or produce some further situation

  • common compulsions: excessive checking, cleansing, and counting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

factors that contribute to OCD

A
  • low levels of the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine
  • high levels of glutamate
  • brain engages in hyperactive monitoring of behaviour in those with OCD
  • brain activation during learning may predispose those w OCD to a chronic feeling that something is not quite right
  • brain fails to get the “finished” message
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

ppl with OCD show inability to turn off negative intrusive thoughts by ignoring or effectively dismissing them

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

DSM-5 disorders that are related to OCD:

A

Hoarding disorder: challenging to throw things away, may need them again in the future, trouble organizing, compulsive collecting

Excoriation disorder: skin picking can be to the point of injury

Trichotillomania: hair pulling, head, eyebrows, eyelashes

Body dysmorphic disorder: distressing preoccupation with images or slight flaws of ones apperance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

psychological disorder that develops through exposure to traumatic event, a severely oppressive situation, cruel abuse, or a natural or unnatural disaster

  • not only those that experience trauma but those that witnessed it, and those who only hear about it
  • can occur immediately after or after months or years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

depressive disorders

A

psychological disorders where the person suffers from depression, and an unrelenting lack of pleasure in life

  • mood dysregulation disorder
  • major depressive disorder
  • persistent depressive disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

major depressive disorder (MDD)

A

significant depressive episodes and depressed characteristics, such as lethargy and hopelessness for at least 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

persistent depressive disorders

A

less extreme depressive mood for over tow years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

pessimistic attribution

A

blaming yourslef for negative events and expecting negative events to happen in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

bipolar disorder

A

Extreme mood swings that include one or more episodes of mania, an overexcited unrealistically optimistic state

  • during manic episodes person can feel euphoric and energetic
  • impulsivity that can lead to trouble
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

bipolar I

A

individuals who have extreme manic episodes where they experience hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

bipolar II

A

the milder version where individuals may experience less extreme levels of euphoria called hypomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

dissociative disorder

A

psychological disorders that involve a sudden loss of memory or change in identity

  • person’s way of dealing with extreme stress
  • mentally protects their conscious self from past trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

disocuative amnesia
(dissociative disorder)

A

type of amnesia characterized by extreme memory loss that stems from extensive psychological stress

  • still rembers things like how to sue a phone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

dissociative identity disorder (DID)
(dissociative disorder)

A

most dramatic, least common and most controversial disorder

  • two or more distinct personalities or identities
  • each identity has its own memories, behaviours, and relationships
108
Q

psychosis

A

persons perceptions and thoughts are fundamentally removed form reality

109
Q

schizophrenia

A

sever psychological disorder characterized by highly disorders thought processes, people with schizophrenia may be referred to as psychotic bc they are so far removed from reality

  • may see things that are not there may here voices in head
110
Q

hallucinations

A

sensory experiences that occur in the absence of real stimuli

111
Q

delusions

A

false, unusual and sometimes magical beliefs that are not part of the persons culture

112
Q

thought disorder

A

unusual sometimes bizarre thought process that are characteristics positive symptoms of schizophrenia

113
Q

referential thinking

A

ascribing personal meaning to completly random events

114
Q

movement disorders

A

final positive symptom of schizophrenia, involving unsusual manneriams, body movements, and facial expressions

115
Q

catatonia

A

state of immobility and unresponsiveness lasts for long period of time

116
Q

flat affect

A

display of little or no emotion - common negative symptom of schizophrenia

117
Q

personality disorders

A

chronic maladaptive cognitive-behavioural patterns that are thoroughly integrated into individuals personality

118
Q

antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)

A

lack or remorse or guilt, law breaking, irresponsibility

  • psychopaths are ppl with ASPD
119
Q

borderline personality disorder (BPD)

A

pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relations, self-image, and emotions

  • related to self-harming behaviours
120
Q

suicide involves 2 factors

A
  1. a desire to die
  2. the means and will to complete suicide
121
Q

clinical psychology

A

area of psychology that integrates science and theory to prevent and treat psychological disorders

122
Q

psychotherapy

A

nonmedical process that helps individuals with psychological disorders recognize and overcome their problems

  • talking, interpreting, listening, rewarding and modelling
123
Q

biological therapies
(biomedical therapies)

A

treatments that reduce or eliminate the symptoms of psychological disorders altering aspects of bodily functioning

124
Q

Psychiatrists can prescribe medications
psychologists cannot

125
Q

emperically supported treatment

A

any given psychological disorder treatment decisions should be based on the body of research that has been conducted showing which type of therapy works best

126
Q

evvidence based practice

A

decisions about treatement are made using the best available research and considering the therapist’s clinical judgment and client characteristics, culture, and preferences

127
Q

therapeutic alliance

A

the relationship between the therapist and client

128
Q

psychodynamic therapies

A

stress importance of the unconscious mind, extensive interpretation by the therapist, and role of early childhood experiences in the development of an individuals problems

129
Q

psychoanalysis

A

Freud therapeutic technique for analyzing an individuals unconscious thoughts

130
Q

dream analysis

A

psychoanalytic technique for interpreting a persons dreams

131
Q

transference

A

clients relating to the psychoanalyst i ways that reproduce or relive important relationships in the individuals life

132
Q

humanistic therapies

A

Emphasis on clients self-healing capacities that encourage clients to understand themselves and grow personally

  • conscious rather than unconscious
133
Q

client-centered therapy

A

form of humanistic therapy, therapists provide warm supportive atmosphere to improve clients self-concept and to encourage the client to gain insight into problems also called rogerian therapy or nondirective therapy

134
Q

behaviour therapies

A

treatments bashed on behavioural and social cognitive theories of learning, that use principles of learning to reduce or eliminate maladaptive behaviour

135
Q

systematic desensitization

A

method of behaviour therapy that treats anxiety by teaching the client to associate deep relaxation with increasingly intense anxiety-producing situations

  • exposing someone to a feared situation in a real or imagined way
136
Q

cognative therapy

A

cognitions (thought) are the main source of psychological problems and that attempt to change the individuals feelings and behaviours by changing cognitions

137
Q

cognitive-behaviour therapy (CBT)

A

combination of cognitive therapy, with emphasis on reducing self-defeating thoughts and behaviour therapy with emphasis on changing behaviour

138
Q

integrative therapy

A

combination of techniques from diff therapies based on therapist judgment of what is better for client

139
Q

anxiety drugs

A

tranquilizers, make individuals calmer and less excitable

140
Q

lithium

A

lightest of the solid elements in the periodic table, widely used to treat bipolar disorder

141
Q

antipsychotic drugs

A

powerful drugs that diminish agitated behaviour, reduce tension, decrease hallucinations, produce better sleep , help with schizophrenia

142
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ETC)

A

shock therapy, set off seizues in the brain

143
Q

deep brain stimulation

A

procedure for treatment-resistant depression that involves the implantation of electrodes in the brain that emit signals to alter brains electrical circuitry

144
Q

psychosurgery

A

biological intervention involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue to improve individuals adjustemnt

145
Q

group therapy

A

Brings people together who share psychological disorder in session that are led by mental health professionals

146
Q

cross-cultural competence

A

therapists assessment of their ability to manage cultural issues in therapy and clients perception of those abilities

147
Q

well-being therapy

A

short-term problem focused directive therapy that encourages clients to accentuate the positive

148
Q

The prevalence estimates of both schizophrenia and bipolar disorders are roughly comparable across diverse cultures. This finding lends support to

A. the relativistic view of psychological disorders
B. the stress-vulnerability model of psychological disorders
C. the idiosyncratic view of psychological disorders
D. the pancultural view of psychological disorders

A

D. the pancultural view of psychological disorders

149
Q

A court declares that because of a mental illness, an individual is not responsible for his criminal actions. The individual is

A. insane
B. psychopathic
C. psychotic
D. schizophrenic

150
Q

Wendy works at Opydyne Corporation. At the last business executive meeting she showed up in pajamas and slippers. When her coworkers commented on the inappropriateness of her outfit, Wendy did not seem the least bit disturbed or embarrassed by their comments. In this example, Wendy’s style of dressing would most likely be considered

A. maladaptive
B. personally distressing
C. delusional
D. culturally deviant

A

D. culturally deviant

151
Q

The idea that you can’t be profoundly relaxed and fearful at the same time is basic to

A. behavior modification
B. systematic desensitization
C. successive goal approximations
D. psychodynamic activation

A

B. systematic desensitization

152
Q

The neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that schizophrenia may be caused, in part, by

A. low levels of expressed in emotion in the family of the schizophrenic patient
B. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth
C. genetic factors that interact with environmental stressors during infancy
D. abnormal levels of dopamine and serotonin in the cerebral cortex

A

B. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth

153
Q

Jose has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed a drug that affects both the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in Jose’s nervous system. Based on this information, it is most likely that Jose is being treated for

A. an anxiety disorder
B. a schizophrenic disorder
C. a somatoform disorder
D. depression

A

D. depression

154
Q

Taken as a whole, the results from studies investigating mental illness among the homeless indicate that, compared to the non-homeless, homeless persons are

A. less likely to suffer from mental health problems or substance abuse problems
B. equally likely to suffer from mental health problems
C. more likely to suffer from mental health problems
D. less likely to suffer from mental health problems, but more likely to exhibit substance abuse problems

A

C. more likely to suffer from mental health problems

155
Q

Hiding information or things from your therapist can be evidence for

A. displacement
B. resistance to therapy
C. transference
D. counterconditioning

A

B. resistance to therapy

156
Q

Behavior therapies appear to be particularly effective in the treatment of

A. major depression
B. antisocial personality disorder
C. phobias
D. multiple-personality disorders

A

C. phobias

157
Q

Which of the following was not a problem with state mental hospitals in the United States during the 1950s and 1960s?

A. The hospitals were underfunded.
B. The hospitals were overstaffed.
C. The hospital staff was undertrained.
D. The hospitals were overcrowded.

A

B. The hospitals were overstaffed.

158
Q

Erick is impulsive and unpredictable. His moods seem to be constantly changing and all his interpersonal relationships seem to be very unstable. If Erick has a personality disorder, his symptoms are most consistent with those associated with disorders in

A. the dramatic/impulsive cluster
B. the odd/eccentric cluster
C. the anxious/fearful cluster
D. the neurotic/dissociative cluster

A

A. the dramatic/impulsive cluster

159
Q

A two-category scheme for classification of schizophrenia has been suggested as an alternative to the older four categories. These two categories are based on

A. presence or absence of delusions
B. predominance of positive or negative symptoms
C. early or late age of onset
D. slow or fast developing symptoms

A

B. predominance of positive or negative symptoms

160
Q

Jack thinks constantly about dirt and germs. He washes his hands hundreds of times a day. Jack is most likely suffering from

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. hypochondriasis
C. phobic disorder
D. somatization disorder

A

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder

161
Q

Which of the following therapies are mainly intended to eliminate symptoms rather than alter personality?

A. behavior and drug therapies
B. psychoanalysis and client-centered therapy
C. client-centered therapies and behavior therapies
D. psychoanalysis and drug therapies

A

A. behavior and drug therapies

162
Q

Tony believes that he is Thomas Edison, and he is convinced that his neighbors are spies who are trying to steal his inventions. He believes the neighbors break into his house and search for plans for new inventions when he is not home. Tony’s symptoms are most consistent with those seen in

A. paranoid schizophrenia
B. undifferentiated schizophrenia
C. catatonic schizophrenia
D. disorganized schizophrenia

A

A. paranoid schizophrenia

163
Q

In free association

A. clients relate the events of their dreams as they remember them
B. clients are restricted to talking about their sexual conflicts only
C. clients spontaneously express their thoughts and feelings exactly as they occur
D. therapists openly express their interpretations of clients’ thoughts and feelings

A

C. clients spontaneously express their thoughts and feelings exactly as they occur

164
Q

The side effect associated with taking traditional antipsychotic drugs, that is characterized by chronic tremors and involuntary spastic movements, is

A. infindibular recidivism
B. tardive dyskinesia
C. tachycardia palpitations
D. MAO inhibition

A

B. tardive dyskinesia

165
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Men are more likely than women to enter therapy.
B. People from the lower socioeconomic classes are more likely to enter therapy than those from the upper classes.
C. Many people who need therapy don’t receive it.
D. Only people who have an identifiable mental disorder are eligible for therapy.

A

C. Many people who need therapy don’t receive it.

166
Q

The risks of ECT

A. have been completely eliminated by modern improvements in the procedure
B. may include both short- and long-term intellectual impairment
C. are so severe that the use of ECT has been banned by law
D. are negligible, as long as appropriate precautions are taken

A

B. may include both short- and long-term intellectual impairment

167
Q

With regard to psychological disorders, spontaneous remission refers to a

A. recovery from a disorder that occurs without formal treatment
B. recovery from a disorder that occurs as a result of formal treatment
C. sudden recurrence of a disorder in a client who had apparently been cured
D. failure to recover despite extensive treatment

A

A. recovery from a disorder that occurs without formal treatment

168
Q

Griffin didn’t have time to study for his philosophy midterm so he called the professor and claimed he had strep throat, even though he was not really ill. He was hoping that the professor would allow him to write the midterm one day later. In this case, Griffin’s “faked” illness could be considered

A. a psychosomatic illness
B. conversion disorder
C. panic disorder
D. malingering

A

D. malingering

169
Q

Of the following, which is the most accurate statement regarding eating disorders?

A. Bulimia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than anorexia nervosa.
B. Both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa lead to death in 2-10% of patients.
C. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.
D. While bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa are both serious conditions, neither is a life-threatening condition.

A

C. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.

170
Q

Epidemiology is the study of

A. the distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population
B. treatments for psychological disorders
C. sudden “epidemics” involving specific mental or physical disorders
D. how cultural values affect judgments of abnormality

A

A. the distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population

171
Q

Which of the following therapies would be most likely to employ aversive conditioning?

A. psychoanalysis
B. behavior therapy
C. biomedical therapies
D. client-centered therapy\

A

B. behavior therapy

172
Q

According to the evolutionary view of mental disorders, a dysfunction occurs when

A. an individual’s behavior meets at least three of the diagnostic criteria outlined in the DSM-IV
B. an evolved psychological mechanism does not perform its naturally selected function adequately or effectively
C. a behavior is universally recognized as violating cultural or statistical norms
D. the same disorder is evident in at least three generations of the same family

A

B. an evolved psychological mechanism does not perform its naturally selected function adequately

173
Q

Antipsychotic drugs

A. gradually reduce psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions
B. are effective in about 95 percent of psychotic patients
C. tend to produce an immediate, but short-lasting, effect
D. are often prescribed even for individuals who have no clinical psychotic disorder

A

A. gradually reduce psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions

174
Q

Sophie takes over 40 different vitamins and herbal remedies each day to keep herself in top physical health. Recently she had some severe dizziness, but her family doctor assured her that it was just a minor ear infection that would clear up in a few days. Sophie is concerned because she is sure the ear infection is the sign of something much more serious, such as a brain tumor, and she has made appointments with three different specialists to have more testing done. In this case, Sophie’s symptoms are most consistent with

A. somatization disorder
B. conversion disorder
C. panic disorder
D. hypochondriasis

A

D. hypochondriasis

175
Q

Charlene is talking with her father, and she confesses that she lied about where she had been on the weekend. Her father tells Charlene that he loves her, but that he doesn’t approve of her lying. According to Carl Rogers, Charlene’s father is displaying the quality of

A. empathy
B. validity
C. unconditional positive regard
D. selective abstraction

A

C. unconditional positive regard

176
Q

A major drug used to reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia is

A. Valium
B. Elavil
C. Thorazine
D. lithium

A

C. Thorazine

177
Q

fter several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn’t seem to need any sleep, and he becomes irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Marco’s behavior is consistent with

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. schizophrenia
C. histrionic personality disorder
D. bipolar disorder

A

D. bipolar disorder

178
Q

A physical ailment that results from psychological factors without any accompanying physical basis is referred to as

A. a somatoform disorder
B. a psychosomatic illness
C. an anxiety disorder
D. malingering

A

A. a somatoform disorder

179
Q

The subtype of schizophrenia marked by delusions of persecution and grandeur is

A. hebephrenic
B. disorganized
C. catatonic
D. paranoid

A

D. paranoid

180
Q

An unwanted thought that repeatedly intrudes upon an individual’s consciousness is called

A. a delusion
B. an obsession
C. a compulsion
D. a hallucination

A

B. an obsession

181
Q

Inflated self-esteem, distractibility, heightened emotionality, and grandiose planning are all symptoms associated with

A. fugue states
B. bipolar disorders
C. dissociative disorders
D. obsessive-compulsive disorders

A

B. bipolar disorders

182
Q

Killian lets her husband keep all the financial records for the family, and she expects him to make all the decisions that affect the family. She refuses to make any decisions on her own, and if anything unexpected occurs she calls her husband at work to ask for his advice. If Killian has a personality disorder, her symptoms are most consistent with those associated with disorders in

A. the anxious/fearful cluster
B. the odd/eccentric cluster
C. the dramatic/impulsive cluster
D. the neurotic/dissociative cluster

A

A. the anxious/fearful cluster

183
Q

Thorazine is classed as

A. an antianxiety drug
B. an antipsychotic drug
C. an antidepressant drug
D. a mood-altering drug

A

B. an antipsychotic drug

184
Q

Researchers have found that in schizophrenic patients, as compared to normal control subjects, the thalamus is:

A. larger, and shows more metabolic activity
B. smaller, but shows more metabolic activity
C. larger, but shows less metabolic activity
D. smaller, and shows less metabolic activity

A

D. smaller, and shows less metabolic activity

185
Q

If you feel that your therapy isn’t progressing, you should

A. get a new therapist immediately
B. assume you are not a good candidate for therapy, and drop the idea
C. first consider the possibility of your own resistance to therapy
D. first question your therapist’s competence

A

C. first consider the possibility of your own resistance to therapy

186
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?

A. GABA
B. serotonin
C. dopamine
D. endorphins

A

B. serotonin

187
Q

The two most common problems among those who seek psychotherapy are

A. marital conflicts and a sense of emptiness
B. loneliness and boredom
C. low self-esteem and irrational thinking
D. anxiety and depression

A

D. anxiety and depression

188
Q

Of the following, which is not a closely related pair of terms?

A. psychoanalysis and free association
B. client-centered therapy and clarification
C. behavior therapy and systematic desensitization
D. biomedical therapy and aversion therapy

A

D. biomedical therapy and aversion therapy

189
Q

Therapy that involves pairing a stimulus that leads to an undesirable behavior with an unconditioned stimulus that is unpleasant is

A. biofeedback training
B. systematic desensitization
C. reverse countertransference
D. aversion therapy

A

D. aversion therapy

190
Q

Behavior that does not coincide with cultural norms may be considered to be

A. deviant
B. maladaptive
C. personally distressing
D. insane

A

A. deviant

191
Q

In direct comparisons of the effectiveness of behavior therapy and insight therapy

A. the differences are usually small, but tend to favor behavior therapy
B. the differences are usually small, but tend to favor insight therapy
C. behavior therapy tends to be significantly more effective
D. insight therapy tends to be significantly more effective

A

A. the differences are usually small, but tend to favor behavior therapy

192
Q

DSM-IV uses five “axes” to describe a person’s problem. The actual diagnosis of a disorder is made on

A. Axis I only
B. Axis II only
C. Axis I and II
D. Axis V

A

C. Axis I and II

193
Q

You are watching a television documentary that shows a patient who is undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). If this documentary is depicting psychotherapy in the 1990s, you should conclude that

A. the patient is being treated for severe depression that has not responded to medication
B. the patient is being treated for severe schizophrenia that has not responded to medication
C. the documentary is inaccurate because electroconvulsive shock therapy hasn’t been used since the 1970s
D. the documentary is an “undercover expose,” and the doctor administrating the treatment is in violation of current ethical guidelines

A

A. the patient is being treated for severe depression that has not responded to medication

194
Q

suggestions for improving mental health services for American minority groups have included all of the following except

A. recruitment and training of more ethnic minority therapists
B. pretherapy education programs for minority clients to familiarize them with the process of therapy
C. the provision of free therapeutic services for all ethnic clients
D. giving therapists special training in cultural sensitivity

A

C. the provision of free therapeutic services for all ethnic clients

195
Q

in an effort to make the criteria of mental illness less value-laden, evolutionary psychologists have proposed that mental disorders ought to be viewed as

A. harmful evolutionary dysfunctions
B. diseases that can be treated and possibly cured
C. the manifestation of unconscious instincts and drives
D. culturally maladaptive behaviors learned through social interactions

A

A. harmful evolutionary dysfunctions

196
Q

Taken as a whole, the results from studies investigating mental illness among the homeless suggest that

A. the homeless population is made up primarily of elderly male alcoholics
B. many of the homeless suffer from some form of psychological disorder
C. most of the homeless have family or friends they could go to, if they chose
D. deinstitutionalization has been largely successful in getting mental patients off the streets

A

B. many of the homeless suffer from some form of psychological disorder

197
Q

Dr. Benz always tries to be honest with her clients, and she never becomes defensive, even if the clients ridicule her feedback or her methods of therapy. According to Carl Rogers, Dr. Benz is displaying the quality of

A. empathy in dealing with her clients
B. genuineness in dealing with her clients
C. unconditional positive regard in dealing with her clients
D. validity in dealing with her clients

A

B. genuineness in dealing with her clients

198
Q

Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Based on the physical symptoms listed in your text, you should expect that Fiona will show evidence of

A. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
B. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
C. cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis
D. dental problems and elevated blood pressure

A

B. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias

199
Q

The disorder marked by striking motor disturbances ranging from rigidity to random motor activity and incoherence is termed

A. catatonic schizophrenia
B. multiple personality
C. dissociative disorder
D. paranoid schizophrenia

A

A. catatonic schizophrenia

200
Q

Jack always complains of being sick. He is convinced he is dying. His physicians have all told him that there is nothing wrong with him and he should live well into his 80s. Jack does not believe the physicians and continues to search for a doctor who will confirm that he is sick. Jack’s behavior is most consistent with the symptoms of

A. an anxiety disorder
B. a somatoform disorder
C. a dissociative disorder
D. a schizophrenic disorder

A

B. a somatoform disorder

201
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A. is a neurological disorder marked by involuntary writhing and tic-like movements
B. is a serious side effect of long-term use of antidepressant drugs
C. can be cured with the same medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease
D. can emerge after long-term use of lithium

A

A. is a neurological disorder marked by involuntary writhing and tic-like movements

202
Q

The recovery from a disorder without formal treatment is referred to as

A. a placebo effect
B. reified recovery
C. spontaneous remission
D. countertransference

A

C. spontaneous remission

203
Q

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder than seems to occur only in Western cultures. The discovery of culture-bound disorders, such as anorexia nervosa, lends support to

A. the relativistic view of psychological disorders
B. the pancultural view of psychological disorders
C. the stress-vulnerability model of psychological disorders
D. the idiosyncratic view of psychological disorders

A

A. the relativistic view of psychological disorders

204
Q

Free association and dream analysis were held to be major methods to discover the makeup of

A. the unconscious
B. the conscious
C. irrational thoughts
D. maladaptive behaviors

A

A. the unconscious

205
Q

The use of the anxiety hierarchy in systematic desensitization allows for the

A. gradual approach to the feared object
B. direct confrontation with the feared object
C. use of real objects instead of imagination
D. transfer of treatment to real-life situations

A

A. gradual approach to the feared object

206
Q

Tina has been extremely hyperactive for the past week, and she has been getting by with only 3 hours of sleep each night. Her thoughts seem to be racing out of control and she is convinced that the novel she started last week will become a best seller and win a Pulitzer Prize, even though she has never had any of her writing published in the past. Tina’s symptoms suggest that she is currently experiencing

A. dysthymic disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. a manic episode
D. dissociative fugue

A

C. a manic episode

207
Q

Which of the following behavior therapy techniques would most likely be used to treat a fear of flying?

A. systematic desensitization
B. aversive conditioning
C. modeling
D. biofeedback

A

A. systematic desensitization

208
Q

Several research studies have found an elevated incidence of schizophrenia among individuals whose mothers

A. were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy
B. were exposed to high levels of stress during the second trimester of their pregnancy
C. drank heavily during the second trimester of their pregnancy
D. took narcotic drugs during the second trimester of their pregnancy

A

A. were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy

209
Q

Epidemiological studies of psychological disorders suggest that

A. nearly everyone who needs treatment for psychological disorders receives it
B. epidemics involving psychological disorders are common
C. psychological disorders are more common than many people realize
D. there has been a significant decrease in prevalence rates of mental illness in the United States in recent years

A

C. psychological disorders are more common than many people realize

210
Q

Selena constantly thinks about climbing up the stairs to the roof of her building and jumping into the street below. Selena’s uncontrollable thoughts could be considered as an example of

A. an obsession
B. a compulsion
C. a hallucination
D. a delusion

A

A. an obsession

211
Q

Scarlett has anorexia nervosa and Bridget has bulimia nervosa. Based on the research into these two disorders, you should predict that

A. Scarlett will be more likely to recognize that her eating behavior is pathological
B. both individuals are likely to deny that their eating behavior as pathological
C. both individuals will recognize their eating behavior is pathological, but neither will be willing to seek treatment
D. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behavior is pathological

A

D. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behavior is pathological

212
Q

Carina is 50 years old, and she never seems to be on an even keel. Some days she is excited and happy, other days she is sad and withdrawn. Her symptoms seem fairly mild, but she has had mood swings of this type since she was in her early 20s. Carina’s symptoms are most consistent with those seen in

A. cyclothymic disorder
B. dysthymic disorder
C. undifferentiated schizophrenia
D. dissociative identity disorder

A

A. cyclothymic disorder

213
Q

Which of the following are disorders that occur cross-culturally?

A. generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder
B. hypochondriasis and somatization disorder
C. schizophrenia and bipolar mood disorder
D. bulimia and anorexia nervosa

A

C. schizophrenia and bipolar mood disorder

214
Q

In his investigations of the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Seligman found that people with a pessimistic explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression. These individuals tend to attribute their setbacks to __________, and draw __________ conclusions about their personal inadequacies.

A. situational factors; narrow, specific
B. personal flaws; narrow, specific
C. situational factors; global, far-reaching
D. personal flaws; global, far-reaching

A

D. personal flaws; global, far-reaching

215
Q

Which of the following disorders is seen only in affluent Western cultures?

A. schizophrenia
B. depression
C. bipolar illness
D. anorexia nervosa

A

D. anorexia nervosa

216
Q

Which of the following would Freud consider to be the most direct means of access to the unconscious mind?

A. transference
B. the content of dreams
C. the client’s feelings toward the therapist
D. the client’s attempts to hinder the progress of therapy

A

B. the content of dreams

217
Q

Hamilton has embezzled over 3 million dollars from the bank where he is employed as an executive loan officer. He feels no remorse for his actions, and he is looking forward to an early retirement in some South American country with no extradition agreement. In this example, Hamilton’s embezzling would most likely be considered

A. culturally deviant
B. maladaptive
C. personally distressing
D. legal insanity

A

A. culturally deviant

218
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Behavior therapists have historically placed little emphasis on measuring therapeutic outcomes.
B. Behavior therapies can make important contributions in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, eating disorders, and hyperactivity.
C. Insight therapists generally can measure progress more precisely than behavior therapists because of the nature of their therapeutic goals.
D. The evidence for the effectiveness of insight therapy is stronger than the evidence for the effectiveness of behavior therapy.

A

B. Behavior therapies can make important contributions in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia, eating disorders, and hyperactivity.

219
Q

The “behavior” that is incompatible with anxiety, and that systematic desensitization tries to recondition to phobic cues is

A. an imagined fear
B. an imagined pleasant experience
C. deep muscle relaxation
D. vigorous exercise

A

C. deep muscle relaxation

220
Q

Carolyn worked for the same company for twelve years. Six months ago the company closed down. Carolyn had been feeling extremely depressed over the loss of her job, and she had considered seeing a therapist for help with her depression. However, for the past week she has been feeling much better, and has decided that she doesn’t need professional treatment after all. In this case, Carolyn appears to have experienced

A. spontaneous remission
B. personal insight
C. the placebo effect
D. transference

A

A. spontaneous remission

221
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a somatoform disorder?

A. neuroticism
B. somatization disorder
C. conversion disorder
D. hypochondriasis

A

A. neuroticism

222
Q

Deinstitutionalization means that

A. hospitalization for mental illness has become a thing of the past
B. whenever possible, the mentally ill should be treated at community-based facilities that emphasize outpatient care
C. the environment inside mental hospitals is designed to be less structured and rigid
D. mental hospitals should take increased responsibility for the treatment of all clients, even those who are not seriously ill

A

B. whenever possible, the mentally ill should be treated at community-based facilities that emphasize outpatient care

223
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The therapists’ role is to run their clients’ lives for them.
B. Therapists are only facilitators, not producers, of change.
C. Therapy typically produces immediate, major improvements in clients’ psychological functioning.
D. The best outcomes in therapy are seen when the therapist and the client are the same sex and are similar in age.

A

B. Therapists are only facilitators, not producers, of change.

224
Q

Which of the following academic degrees is not associated with being a psychologist?

A. M.D.
B. Ph.D.
C. Psy.D.
D. Ed.D.

225
Q

In comparison to traditional antipsychotic drugs, atypical antipsychotic drugs

A. yield higher relapse rates while patients are taking the medication, but have much lower relapse rates once patients discontinue their drug regimen
B. yield lower relapse rates for patients following a drug regimen and for patients who have discontinued their drug regimen
C. yield lower relapse rates while patients maintain their drug regimen, but have much higher relapse rates if patients discontinue their drug regimen
D. yield higher relapse rates for patients following a drug regimen and for patients who have discontinued their drug regimen

A

C. yield lower relapse rates while patients maintain their drug regimen, but have much higher relapse rates if patients discontinue their drug regimen

226
Q

The class of disorders marked by extreme and inflexible characteristics that cause subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning are referred to as

A. mood disorders
B. affective disorders
C. conduct disorders
D. personality disorders

A

D. personality disorders

227
Q

About __________ of psychotic patients respond favorably to traditional antipsychotic medication.

A. 10-15%
B. 1-3%
C. 40-50%
D. 70-90%

228
Q

Which of the following shows the most appropriate matching of therapy to psychological problem?

A. lithium treatment for phobic disorder
B. cognitive therapy for panic disorder
C. Xanax for depression
D. systematic desensitization for bipolar mood disorder

A

B. cognitive therapy for panic disorder

229
Q

The evolutionary view of mental disorders argues that objective criteria would

A. increase the impact of cultural factors in the diagnosis of mental disorders
B. result in fewer errors in the diagnosis of major psychological disorders
C. protect against arbitrary labeling of socially disvalued conditions as disorders
D. remove personality disorders from the DSM-IV categorization system

A

C. protect against arbitrary labeling of socially disvalued conditions as disorders

230
Q

To deal with the problems deinstitutionalization has created, most experts advocate

A. returning to the era of mental hospitals as custodial warehouses
B. eliminating shelters for the homeless in urban areas
C. increasing the quality and availability of intermediate care facilities
D. increasing the number of traditional mental hospitals

A

C. increasing the quality and availability of intermediate care facilities

231
Q

What do the avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders have in common?

A. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others
B. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
C. highly impulsive behavior
D. a flair for overdramatizing events

A

B. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear

232
Q

Eclectic therapists

A. commit themselves to just one theoretical approach
B. utilize only the insight approaches to therapy
C. use ideas and techniques from a variety of therapeutic approaches
D. refuse to adjust their techniques to the unique needs of each client

A

C. use ideas and techniques from a variety of therapeutic approaches

233
Q

Which of the following personality traits appears to be related to the likelihood of developing a somatoform disorder?

A. neuroticism
B. extraversion
C. agreeableness
D. conscientiousness

A

A. neuroticism

234
Q

Which of the following statements best represents the approach of a client-centered therapist in treating a chronically anxious client?

A. “Let’s look for ways in which you might actually be benefiting from your anxiety.”
B. “So, you feel that your world is a very scary place to be.”
C. “Let’s see if we can identify the irrational beliefs that are producing your anxiety.”
D. “Do you feel that your mother adequately met your need for emotional support when you were a child?”

A

B. “So, you feel that your world is a very scary place to be.”

235
Q

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is now primarily used to treat patients suffering from

A. anxiety
B. phobias
C. severe mood disorders
D. psychosis

A

C. severe mood disorders

236
Q

Jill will sit in one position for long periods of time, evidencing muscular rigidity. Jill is exhibiting symptoms of

A. paranoid schizophrenia
B. catatonic schizophrenia
C. disorganized schizophrenia
D. undifferentiated schizophrenia

A

B. catatonic schizophrenia

237
Q

Which of the following is not one of the criticisms that has been raised concerning the impact of managed care on mental health care?

A. Delays in providing service result in spontaneous remission of psychological disorders in nearly 25% of cases.
B. Mental health care has seen severe service cuts because the question of what is medically necessary can be subjective.
C. Patients who are denied psychotherapy services are relatively unlikely to complain.
D. Cost containment may cause physicians to prescribe older, less-expensive drugs which are less effective.

A

A. Delays in providing service result in spontaneous remission of psychological disorders in nearly 25% of cases.

238
Q

The trend toward deinstitutionalization mainly came about because large mental institutions

A. were becoming too expensive
B. were actually worsening the condition of many patients
C. were overstaffed
D. were becoming too political

A

B. were actually worsening the condition of many patients

239
Q

Cyndi has just been to a therapist who prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Cyndi should expect to experience a noticeable reduction in her symptoms of schizophrenia

A. only after 1-2 weeks of taking the prescribed amount of the drug
B. within 2-3 hours of taking the drug for the first time
C. within 24 hours of taking the drug for the first time
D. only after 6-8 weeks of taking the prescribed amount of the drug

A

A. only after 1-2 weeks of taking the prescribed amount of the drug

240
Q

A person who checks his alarm clock 20 times before going to sleep is being

A. compulsive
B. obsessive
C. phobic
D. amnesiac

A

A. compulsive

241
Q

Roy alternates between periods in which he remains motionless and seems oblivious to his environment, and periods of hyperactivity and frenzied excitement. Roy would most likely be diagnosed as having

A. paranoid schizophrenia
B. catatonic schizophrenia
C. disorganized schizophrenia
D. undifferentiated schizophrenia

A

B. catatonic schizophrenia

242
Q

Which of the following is not a common stereotype about psychological disorders?

A. Psychological disorders are incurable.
B. Psychological disorders are a function of biophysiological factors.
C. People with psychological disorders are violent and dangerous.
D. People with psychological disorders are very different from normal people.

A

B. Psychological disorders are a function of biophysiological factors.

243
Q

The major difference between a somatization disorder and a conversion disorder is that

A. a somatization disorder involves intentional faking of physical illness, while conversion symptoms are unconsciously created
B. somatization disorders involve a wide variety of organs and symptoms; conversion disorders involve loss of function in a single organ system
C. a somatization disorder involves apparent physical illness, and conversion disorder involves genuine physical illness
D. somatization disorders occur only in adults, while conversion disorders occur only in children

A

B. somatization disorders involve a wide variety of organs and symptoms; conversion disorders involve loss of function in a single organ system

244
Q

Compared to traditional antipsychotic drugs, the newer atypical antipsychotic drugs

A. seem to produce more severe side effects, but they work much more quickly
B. are more effective in treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
C. can be used to treat depression and anxiety, in addition to schizophrenia
D. seem to produce fewer side effects

A

D. seem to produce fewer side effects

245
Q

A person who withdraws socially because of an intense fear of rejection would most likely be diagnosed as __________ personality, while a person who withdraws socially due to a lack of interest in interpersonal intimacy would most likely be diagnosed as __________ personality.

A. a schizoid; a paranoid
B. a dependent; a schizotypal
C. an avoidant; a schizoid
D. an avoidant; a paranoid

A

C. an avoidant; a schizoid

246
Q

Which of the following is not a closely related set of concepts?

A. aversion therapy, ECT, tardive dyskinesia
B. free association, dream analysis, transference
C. genuineness, empathy, unconditional positive regard
D. antipsychotic, antianxiety, antidepressant

A

A. aversion therapy, ECT, tardive dyskinesia

247
Q

According to Freud, the events in dreams

A. have no connection to the client’s real life and thus are irrelevant in therapy
B. are symbolic representations of recent events in the client’s life
C. need to be analyzed by the therapist and interpreted for the client
D. are logical interpretations of random neural activation

A

C. need to be analyzed by the therapist and interpreted for the client

248
Q

Frank witnessed a horrible car accident but cannot remember anything about it. Frank appears to have

A. psychosis-induced repression
B. dissociative fugue
C. dissociative amnesia
D. conversion disorder

A

C. dissociative amnesia

249
Q

A disorder that was extremely rare prior to the last half of the 20th century is

A. manic-depressive disorder
B. schizophrenia
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. anorexia nervosa

A

D. anorexia nervosa

250
Q

Some research studies have found that, compared to control subjects, schizophrenic patients are

A. less likely to have a history of obstetrical complications
B. more likely to have a history of obstetrical complications
C. more likely to have experienced impoverished living conditions during infancy
D. more likely to have developed influenza while they were in preschool

A

B. more likely to have a history of obstetrical complications

251
Q

Psychopharmacotherapy involves the treatment of mental disorders with

A. electroconvulsive shock
B. insight therapy
C. medication
D. surgery

A

C. medication

252
Q

The study of the incidence and distribution of mental or physical disorders within a population defines the discipline known as

A. etiology
B. epidemiology
C. psychobiology
D. demography

A

B. epidemiology

253
Q

The different approaches to psychotherapy

A. overlap so much that there is little basis for differentiating one from another
B. have developed due to tension between competing theories
C. are all equally appropriate for all kinds of psychological problems
D. can be used interchangeably for the majority of psychological disorders

A

B. have developed due to tension between competing theories

254
Q

Which of the following psychologists is most likely to deal with the most severe mental health problems?

A. counseling psychologist
B. clinical psychologist
C. school psychologist
D. research psychologist

A

B. clinical psychologist

255
Q

Hans Eysenck is famous for studying the outcome of insight therapies. Which of the following was not one of his findings?

A. Neurotics who were treated showed about a two-thirds recovery rate.
B. Untreated neurotics showed about a two-thirds recovery rate.
C. Neurotics in therapy showed a significantly higher recovery rate than untreated neurotics.
D. Treatment seemed to produce little difference over nontreatment in recovery of neurotics.

A

C. Neurotics in therapy showed a significantly higher recovery rate than untreated neurotics.

256
Q

Darla was fired from her most recent job. Based on Seligman’s investigations into the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Darla will be most prone to depression if she attributes her firing to

A. her lack of ability to do her job successfully
B. the bad mood that her boss was in on the day she was fired
C. a general downturn in the economy which resulted in massive layoffs
D. her coworker who started a number of false rumors about Darla

A

A. her lack of ability to do her job successfully

257
Q

Dysthymic disorder is to __________ as cyclothymic disorder is to __________.

A. depressive disorder; bipolar disorder
B. bipolar disorder; unipolar mood disorder
C. manic-depressive disorder; depressive disorder
D. bipolar disorder; depressive disorder

A

A. depressive disorder; bipolar disorder

258
Q

Health maintenance organizations (HMOs) can hold down costs by restricting mental health services. According to critics, these restrictions may include all but which of the following?

A. underdiagnosing mental health conditions
B. requiring re-certification of the service providers within the HMO
C. failing to make needed referrals to mental health specialists
D. arbitrarily limiting the length of treatment

A

B. requiring re-certification of the service providers within the HMO

259
Q

Behavior that interferes with an individual’s social or occupational functioning may be considered to be

A. deviant
B. maladaptive
C. personally distressing
D. insane

A

B. maladaptive

260
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Prevalence estimates for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder appear to be roughly comparable across diverse cultures.
B. Prevalence estimates for most diagnostic categories appear to be quite similar across cultures.
C. Disorders that have a strong biological component tend to exhibit greater cross-cultural similarity in prevalence.
D. Environmental factors at work in specific cultures probably foster some disorders more readily than others.

A

B. Prevalence estimates for most diagnostic categories appear to be quite similar across cultures.

261
Q

With regard to a therapist’s sex

A. it is generally better to choose a therapist the same sex as yourself
B. it is generally better to choose a therapist the opposite sex as yourself
C. you should feel free to look for a therapist of one sex or the other if it is personally important to you
D. both men and women report better outcomes when seeing female therapists

A

C. you should feel free to look for a therapist of one sex or the other if it is personally important to you

262
Q

the key symptoms of depression in Western cultures are often cognitive symptoms, such as guilt and self-blame. The key symptoms of depression in non-Western cultures are often somatic symptoms, such as headaches and fatigue. The fact that the same disorder can manifest itself in different ways in Western and non-Western cultures lends support to the

A. relativistic view of psychological disorders
B. pancultural view of psychological disorders
C. stress-vulnerability model of psychological disorders
D. idiosyncratic view of psychological disorders

A

A. relativistic view of psychological disorders

263
Q

Client: “I’ve had a bad week. I’m really down.” Therapist: “You’ve had some unpleasant experiences lately and are feeling quite depressed as a result.” The therapist’s statement in this interaction is intended to communicate __________ to the client

A. genuineness
B. unconditional positive regard
C. empathy
D. disapproval.

A

C. empathy

264
Q

Beth is so terrified of snakes that even walking on sidewalks covered with earthworms after a rain storm makes her feel anxious. Her behavioral therapist has been helping Beth overcome her fear by having her work through an anxiety hierarchy while she maintains a state of deep relaxation. In this case, her therapist is using

A. hypnotherapy to help Beth overcome her fear of snakes
B. systematic desensitization to help Beth overcome her fear of snakes
C. aversion therapy to help Beth overcome her fear of snakes
D. biofeedback to help Beth overcome her fear of snakes

A

B. systematic desensitization to help Beth overcome her fear of snakes

265
Q

The transferring of treatment of mental illness from inpatient institutions to community-based facilities is referred to as

A. mainstreaming
B. exit-transfer therapy
C. decentralization
D. deinstitutionalization

A

D. deinstitutionalization

266
Q

Of the individuals who develop either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, approximately __________ are females.

A. 90-95%
B. 70-75%
C. 50-55%
D. 20-25%

267
Q

Placebo effects occur when

A. people’s expectations lead them to experience some change, even though they receive a fake or ineffective treatment
B. people recover from a mental or physical illness without any form of intervention
C. people who originally score extremely high or low on some trait are measured a second time, and their new score falls closer to the average
D. people who originally score near the average on some trait are measured a second time, and their new score falls at the extreme high or low end of the scale

A

A. people’s expectations lead them to experience some change, even though they receive a fake or ineffective treatment

Midterm Flashcrads (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions