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Pharmacology > Test 3 Questions > Flashcards

Test 3 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibiotic was developed to combat methicillin and vancomycin Gram (+) bacteria?

a. tobramycin
b. aminoglycosides
c. chloramphenicol
d. linezolid
e. ciprofloxacin

A

d. linezolid

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2
Q

Chloroquine (Aralen) and hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) is associated with which of the following side effects?

a. tinnitus
b. crystalline maculopathy
c. convulsion
d. bull eye maculopathy
e. cystoid macular edema

A

d. bull eye maculopathy

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3
Q

Which antibiotic can cause crystalluria?

a. allopurinol
b. colchinie
c. tetracycline
d. sulfmethoxazole
e. cephalsporin

A

d. sulfmethoxazole

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4
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding dyslipidemia drugs?

a. colesevelam stimulates the production of bile salts from cholesterol
b. ezetimibe inhibits cholesterol absorption in the gastrointestinal track
c. niacin can increase the risk of developing gout
d. atorvastatin can cause myopathy
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

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5
Q

which drug can decrease warfarin concentration?

a. dicloxacillin
b. trimethoprim
c. amiodarone
d. sulfamethoxazole
e. none of the above

A

a. dicloxacillin

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6
Q

which is the drug of choice for treating bacillus anthracis?

a. linezolid
b. moxifloxacin
c. trimethoprim
d. ciprofloxacin
e. none of the above

A

d. ciprofloxacin

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7
Q

which antibiotics is/ are contraindicated during pregnancy

a. tetracycline
b. chloramphenicol (bactrim)
c. sulfamethoxazole
d. doxycycline
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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8
Q

Patient with myasthenia gravis has become frequently complaining of weakness and fatigue. The physician plans to identify whether the patient is responding to an overdose of the medicaiton or a worsening of the disease. a edrophonium (tensilon) test is performed. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing an overdose of the medication?

a. complains of muscle spasm
b. temporarily worsening of the condition
c. no change in the condition
d. improvement of the weakness and fatigue
e. none of the above

A

d. improvement of the weakness and fatigue

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9
Q

Treatment of glaucoma (select 3)
a. apraclonidine (iopidine)
b. timolol (timopic)
c. donepezil (aricept)
d. brimonidine (alphagan-p)
e. atropine
f. phenylephrine

A

a. apraclonidine (iopidine)
b. timolol (timopic)
d. brimonidine (alphagan-p)

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10
Q

Which antibiotics can make your saliva red?

a. vancomycin
b. rapamycin
c. tetracycline
d. refampin
e. none of the above

A

d. refampin

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11
Q

which antibiotic is not associated ototoxicity?

a. tobramycin
b. gentamycin
c. azithromycin
d. ciprofloxacin
e. vancomycin

A

d. ciprofloxacin

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12
Q

which is true of anticoagulants and thrombolytics?

a. heparin can increase platelet count
b. alteplase is safe to use during pregnancy
c. warfarin increasing clotting factors by 60-90%
d. heparin is safe to use during pregnancy
e. none of the above

A

d. heparin is safe to use during pregnancy

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13
Q

which drug or drug class is/ are NOT protein synthesis inhibitors?

a. clindamycin
b. streptogramins
c. tetracycline
d. trimethoprim
e. all of the above

A

d. trimethoprim

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14
Q

which drug is a xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

a. aspirin
b. allopurinol
c. probenecid
d. colchicine
e. none of the above

A

b. allopurinol

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15
Q

which of the following drugs have a risk of glaucoma association (select 3)?

a. bethanechol (duvoid)
b. mirtazapine (remeron)
c. isocarboxazid (marplan)
d. donepezil (aricept)
e. roprinirole (requip)
f. ipratroprium (atrovent)
g. metoprolol (lopressor)

A

c. isocarboxazid (marplan)
d. donepezil (aricept)
f. ipratroprium (atrovent)

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16
Q

haloperidol (haldol), a neuroleptic drug, side effects include all of the following except

a. urinary retention
b. fever
c. sedation
d. miosis
e. orthostatic hypotension

A

a. urinary retention

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17
Q

which drug is a COX1 and COX 2 inhibitor?

a. low dose aspirin
b. celecoxib
c. acetaminophen
d. infliximab
e. none of the above

A

a. low dose aspirin

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18
Q

which of the following agents is associated with approximately 30 % visual disturbances, including decreased vision, photophobia, altered color perception and ocular discomfort?

a. fluconazole (difucan)
b. ketaconazole (nizoral)
c. amphotericin B (funaizone)
d. allyamines (group)
e. voriconazole (vfend)

A

e. voriconazole (vfend)

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19
Q

which drug class is associated with tendonitis and or tendon rupture?
a. fluorquinolines
b. sulfonamides
c. amino glycosides
d. tetracyclines
e. cephalosporin

A

a. fluorquinolines

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20
Q

a nonstimulant treatment for ADHD is

a. amphetamine (adzenys XR)
b. clonidine (catapress)
c. Metoprolol (lopressor)
d. Aripipazole (abilify)
e. prazosin (minipress)

A

b. clonidine (catapress)

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21
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding drugs for blood disorders and stomach ulcers?

a. hydroxyurea is used to treat neutropenia
b. omeprazole should be taken at the same time the patient eats the largest meal of the day
c. cimetidine antagonizes the histamine receptor on parietal cells
d. dixcyclomine increases H+ secretion into the stomach and can lead to mydriasis
e. none of the above

A

c. cimetidine antagonizes the histamine receptor on parietal cells

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22
Q

your patient reports having xanthopsia, which drug are they most likely taking?

a. mannitol
b. spironolactone
c. hydralazine
d. digoxin
e. verapamil

A

d. digoxin

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23
Q

which antibiotic is used to treat rabbit hunters for francisiella tularenisis infections?
a. doxcycline
b. tetracycline
x. linezolid
d. clindamycin
e. gentamycin

A

e. gentamycin

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24
Q

Some CNS depressant drugs act on a system which is critical in maintaining tonic inhibitory control on most other neuronal systems. which of the following systems is the target for those drugs?

a. dopaminergic
b. gabaergic
c. cholinergic
d. nonadrenergic
e. sertonergic

A

b. gabaergic

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25
Q

which diuretic functions at the distal convoluted tubule?

a. mannitol
b. chlorothiazide
c. acetazolamide
d. furosemide
e. spirolactone

A

b. chlorothiazide

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26
Q

which cell wall inhibitor is the drug of choice for treating listeria monocytogenes?

a. pencillin G
b. tetracycline
c. cefazolin
d. ampicillin
e. vancomycin

A

d. ampicillin

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27
Q

which os the following oral-antidiabetics list the side effects of hypoglycemiaa (select 2)

a. thiazolidinediones
b. sulfonylureas
c. alpha-glucoidase
d. biguanides
e. meglitidines

A

b. sulfonylureas
e. meglitidines

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28
Q

all of the follow drug have ocular side effects except

a. fingolimod (gilenya)
b. topiramate (topomax)
c. tamsulosin (flomax)
d. tamoxifen (soltamax)
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

A) MS- macular edema
B) seizure- diplopia, peripheral loss
C) HTN/ benign prostatic hypertrophy floppy iris
D) breast cancer- crystalline keratopathy/ retinopathy, cystoid macular edema

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29
Q

which antibiotic has published anti-inflammatory properties on the ocular surface?

a. dicloxicillin
b. doxycycline
c. tobramycin
d. gentamycin
e. none of the above

A

b. doxycycline

30
Q

which antibiotic is susceptible to bacterial beta-lactamase?

a. clarithromycin
b. azetreonam
c. ampicillin
d. cefoxitin
e. dicloxacillin

A

c. ampicillin

31
Q

which of the following is a broad spectrum anti-fungal agent with many drug interactions that works by binding the ergosterol in the cell membranes, forming channels, and allowing K+ and Mg ++ to leak out?

a. atovaquone- proguanil (malarone)
b. fluconzole (difucan)
c. ketaconazle (nizoral)
d. amphotencin B (fugunal zone)
e. zanamivir (relenza)

A

d. amphotencin B (fugunal zone)

32
Q

which antibiotic can exacerbate myasthenia gravis

a. linezoid
b. ciproflaxin
c. tobramycin
d. clarithromycin
e. none of the above

A

b. ciproflaxin

33
Q

which antibiotic class can alter blood glucose concentrations?

a. fluoroquinclones
b. cindamycin
c. sulfonamides
d. amino glycosides
e. tetracyclines

A

a. fluoroquinclones

34
Q

which antibiotic is most likely to cause kernicterus

a. tetracycline
b. monobactams
c. cefeprine
d. sulfamethoxazole
e. none of the above

A

d. sulfamethoxazole

35
Q

which cell wall inhibitor is a peptide drug?

a. amoxicillin
b. penicillin
c. bactracin
d. imipenem
e. cefazolin

A

c. bactracin

36
Q

which is TRUE regarding folic acid antagonist and fluoroquinolones?

a. sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
b. 2nd generation fluoroquinoloones have more gram - antimicrobial activity than 3rd generation fluoroquinolones
c. polytrim has good antimicrobial activity against gram - alone
d. ciprfloxacin should be avoided with dairy products
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

37
Q

which antibiotic is NOT indicated for treating urinary tract infections?

a. moxifloxacin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. cotrimoxazole
d. trimethoprim
e. none of the above

A

a. moxifloxacin

38
Q

Patient complains of bilateral, painless blurry vision and a change in color perception. Pupils are bilaterally sluggish, and BCVA is reduced in both eyes. Patient’s VF and fundus are presented below. WHich drug is most likely cause?

a. rifampicin (rifadin)
b. pyrazinamide (PZA)
c. Bedaquiline (sirturo)
d. Isoniazid (hyzid)
e. ethambutol (myambutol)

A

e. ethambutol (myambutol)

39
Q

which antibiotics have antimicrobial activity against MRSA infections?

A. Linezoid
B. vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. tetracycline
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

40
Q

which antihypertenzive drug may cause ototoxicity?

a. mannitol
b. acetazolamide
c. chlorothiazide
d. spirolactone
e. furosemide

A

e. furosemide

41
Q

CNS drugs often act on a specific neurotransmitter system. Which of the following statements correctly pairs the system with the drug class that mainly affects it?

a. dopaminergic system- phenothiazines
b. serotonergic system- opioids
c. nonadrenergic system- benzodiazepines
d. GABAergic system- tricyclic antidepressants
e. cholinergic system- MAO inhibitors

A

e. cholinergic system- MAO inhibitors

42
Q

a 24 year old male patient was experiencing minior allergic hyperemia and congestion. and after taking the prescribed drug, he realized an increase in his blood pressure, and later on developed AACG. Which is most likely the drug that was prescribed

a. tirmolol (timoptic)
b. none of the above
c. tropicamide
d. phenylephrine
e. aproclonidine (iopidine)

A

d. phenylephrine

43
Q

which drug is most likley to cause alopecia

a. colchicine
b. clarithromycin
c. clindamycin
d. cotrimoxazole
e. chloramphenicol

A

a. colchicine

44
Q

which molecule is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?

a. urokinase
b. alterplase
c. heparin
d. warfarin
e. none of the above

A

b. alterplase

45
Q

which statement is false regarding bacterial cell wall inhibitors ?

a. cephalosporins often reach high levels in the urine
b. you should prescribe azetronam to patients allergic to penicillin
c. nafcillin is resistent to bacterial beta lactamases
d. amoxicillin is safe in pregnancy
e. ceftaroline is not active against pesudomonas aeruginosa infections

A

b. you should prescribe azetronam to patients allergic to penicillin

46
Q

which drug is a mast cell stabilizer?

a. loratadine
b. cromolyn
c. zileuton
d. promethazine
e. ipratropium

A

b. cromolyn

47
Q

Warfarin inhibits there vitamins?

a. vitamin E
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin C
d. vitamin A
e. all of the above

A

b. Vitamin K

48
Q

Patient presents with extreme unilateral pain 8-9/10 on one stide of his head. VA and EOM, CVF, and pupils are noncontributory. Patient does confirm chicken pox as a child. which of the following drugs should be immediately given?

a. valacyclovir (valtrex)
b. zanamivir (relenza)
c. oseltamivir (tamiflu)
d. rimatadine (flumadine)
e. rifampicin (rifaclin)

A

a. valacyclovir (valtrex)

49
Q

which antibiotic binds directly to the bacterial alanin arm of peptidoglycan chain preventing the activity of bacterial transpeptidases?

a. vanocomycin
b. bacitracin
c. polymyxin b
d. dicloxacillin
e. none of the above

A

a. vanocomycin

50
Q

which antibiotic is the drug of choice for chlamydia infections?

a. amoxicillin
b. clindamycin
c. azithromycin
d. tobramycin
e. none of the above

A

c. azithromycin

51
Q

which antibiotic should you avoid in patient with a sulfa allergy?

a. cotrimoxazole
b. streptogramins
c. tetracycline
d. celecoxib
e. none of the above

A

a. cotrimoxazole

52
Q

which cell wall inhibitor is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile infections?

a. imipenem
b. chloramphenicol
c. vancomycin
d. linzeloid
e. rifampin

A

c. vancomycin

53
Q

which of the following is not a mechanism fr bacterial to develop resistance to drugs?

a. bacteria can alter their metabolic pathway
b. bacteria produce enzymes that degrade the drug
c. increased passive transport of drug into the bacteria
d. bacteria can alter the drug receptor
e. none of the above

A

c. increased passive transport of drug into the bacteria

54
Q

which drug reduces clot side and acts as thrombolytic agent?

a. urokinase
b. heparin
c. rivaroxaban
d. bivalirudin
e. none of the above

A

a. urokinase

54
Q

which antibiotics should be avoided with dairy?

a. cotrimoxazole
b. tetracycline
c. trimethoprim
d. sulfamethoxazole
e. all of the above

A

b. tetracycline

55
Q

Which statement is true about NSAIDs?

a. they increase prostaglandins in the stomach to reduce stomach acid production
b. they can increase leukotine production
c. they can increase blood flow to the kidney’s
d. aspirin can decrease the concentration of warfarin
e. none of the above

A

b. they can increase leukotine production

55
Q

which antihypertensize drug is relatively safe in pregnant or nursing women?

a. irbesartan
b. chlorothiazide
c. aliskiren
d. enalapril
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

55
Q

a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus ou are asked how metformin decreases blood surgar. What is the best response?

a. the medication increases insulin release from the pancreas
b. the medication decreases glucose production in the liver
c. the medication increases insulin resistance of the cells in the body
d. the medication blocks carbohydrate absorption in the intestine
e. two of the above

A

b. the medication decreases glucose production in the liver

55
Q

which of the following is true for cephalosporins?

a. they can lead to vitamin A deficiency
b. ceftazidime has excellent activity against pseudomonas
c. cefazolin has the widest spectrum of activity against gram (-) rods
d. ceftriazone has excellent activity against Staph Aureous
e. none of the above

A

b. ceftazidime has excellent activity against pseudomonas

55
Q

Which is true regarding acetaminophen?

a. it is a potent anti-inflammatory agent
b. it reduces platelet aggregation
c. its toxic metabolite can cause liver damage
d. it inhibits prostaglandin synthesis mostly in the peripheral nervous system
e. none of the above

A

c. its toxic metabolite can cause liver damage

56
Q

which drug accelerates the inactivation of coagulation factors?

a. warfarin
b. thrombin
c. heparin
d. alteplase
e. none of the above

A

c. heparin

57
Q

NOT ON THE DRUG LIST YET

match the drug with the correct mechanism of action

a. ethanercept binds to TNF-a
b. methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist
c. basilxmab binds to IL-2 receptor
d. sirolimus binds to FKBP to reduce T cell production
e. all of the above

A

a. ethanercept binds to TNF-a

58
Q

which is true regarding anti-inflammatory agents?

a. at higher doses aspirin metabolism becomes saturated
b. COX-2 selective inhibitors favors vasodilation and reduced platelet aggregation
c. low dose aspirin can increase the risk of stroke and myocardial infarction
d. aspirin is a reversible Cox inhibitor

A

a. at higher doses aspirin metabolism becomes saturated

59
Q

which statement(s) is/ are true of neonatal conjunctivitis?

a. neisseria gonococci present with hyperpurulent conjunctivitis
b. clinicians should culture to rule out neisseria gonococci ocular infections
c. following birth, neisseria infections often present before chlamidia infections
d. neonatal conjunctivitis is always considered to be an emergency
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

60
Q

which antiinflammatroy agent binds to cyclophil to inhibit calcineruin

a. adalimumab
b. cyclosporine
c. tacrolimus
d. celecoxib
e. none of the above

A

b. cyclosporine

61
Q

a 53 yo HIV positive Caucasion male presented with difficulty with his peripheral vision under scotopic conditions. on examination VA was 6/6 in each eye with normal pupillary reactions. Anterior segment was unremarkable with normal IOP. Fundus attached. Which of the following drugs is most likely the cause?

a artemisinin derivatives (group)
b. didanosine (videx)
c. hydroxychloroquine (plaquenil)
d. interferon (group)
e. atovaquone-proguanvil (malarone)

A

b. didanosine (videx)

62
Q

which drugs can increase Blood pressure?

a. cyclosporin
b. corticosteroids
c. basixmab
d. tacrolimus
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

63
Q

which antiinflammatory agent should be used in caution with glaucoma patients?

a. sirolimus
b. cyclosporin
c. basiliximab
d. dexamethazone
e. none of the above

A

d. dexamethazone

64
Q

which drug is used to treat lyme disease caused by borrelia burdoferi?

a. imipenem
b. ceftazidime
c. doxycycline
d. erythromycin
e. stretogramins

A

c. doxycycline

65
Q

which statement is true regarding conjunctival infections

a. hemophilus influenza infections are more common in adults
b. bacteria responsible for causing conjunctivitis in children often cause otitis media
c. corynebacterium diptheria is a gram negative that rarely causes conjunctiva
d. staphlococcus epidermis rarely causes conjunctiva
e. none of the above

A

b. bacteria responsible for causing conjunctivitis in children often cause otitis media

66
Q

which antibiotic are you least likely to presribe for a gram - infection?

a. ceftriaxone
b. ciprofloxacin
c. cefoxitin
d. dicloxcilin
e. imipenem

A

d. dicloxcilin

67
Q

which statement is false regarding antimicrobial treatment

a. immunosuppressed individuals may require higher antimicrobial doses for effective treatment
b. clincians should never prescibe an antimicrobial agent unless they definitively know the identity of the pathogen
c. purulent infection may inactivate some antimicrobial agents
d. disc diffusion assays determine the effectiveness of antibiotics against an organism
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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