TEST 3 GI Flashcards

1
Q

function of GI tract

A

digestion, motility, secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system

A

extrinsic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

stimulation inhibits activity

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a general increase in activity of the entire enteric nervous system

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

parasympathetic in cardiac system

A

tells you to slow down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The motor impulses for the oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing are carried in the

A

trigeminal (V)
glossopharyngeal (IX)
vagus (X)
and hypoglossal (XII) cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Impulses for the esophageal phase are carried by

A

vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when you stimulate the vagus nerve

A

heart rate goes down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

inhibiting acid secretions

A

D cells, end in statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mucus, protects stomach lining

A

goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gastric acid

A

parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pepsinogen- protease precursor

A

chief cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gastrin- stimulates acid secretions

A

G cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

produces hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

A

parietal cells; intrinsic factor helps with production of vitamin b 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

if pancreas is sick what enzyme levels will be looks at

A

lipase, amylase, protease levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

who is immune to h. pyloric infections

A

elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stimulate gastric acid secretion

A

gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

potent growth hormone–releasing activity and has a stimulatory effect on food intake and digestive function, while reducing energy expenditure.

A

ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

inhibits acid secretions and stimulates mucus production

A

prostaglandin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inhibits the protection of prostaglandin E

A

NSAIDS-can cause ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dismantling of foods into their constituent parts, a process that requires hydrolysis, enzyme cleavage, and fat emulsification

A

digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

breakdown of a compound that involves a chemical reaction with water

A

hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the use of enzymes to cut substances into smaller components.

A

enzyme clevage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

breakdown of large globules of dietary fat into smaller particles.

A

emulsification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

process of moving nutrients and other materials from the external environment in the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph of the internal environment.

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

represents a loss of appetite.

A

anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ill-defined and unpleasant subjective sensation.

A

nausea-symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

is a forceful discharge of stomach contents

A

vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

achalasia

A

deinnervation of the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

results from damage to nerves in the food tube (esophagus),

A

achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

if they’re having epigastric pain what does that indicate

A

dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

mimics angia pectoris

A

esophageal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

sharp or well organized.

A

somatic abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

diffuse or poorly located

A

visceral abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

visceral pain is usually due to

A

something with an organ ; its deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

distant from the source but in same dermatome.

A

referred pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

RUQ or mid epigastric pain is indicative of

A

something with the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most common cause of constipation

A

low-residue diet (low-fiber) and lack of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

normal bowel movements

A

3 per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

manifestations of lactose intolerance

A

abdominal cramping
bloating
diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

does dysphagia hurt

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

painful swallowing

A

odynophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

regurgitation of undigested food

A

diverticuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a tear that does not penetrate the wall of the esophagus.

A

An esophageal laceration (Mallory-Weiss syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

first signs of esophageal laceration (Mallory-Weiss syndrome)

A

Hematemesis
-blood in vomit
lower chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
esophageal laceration (Mallory-Weiss syndrome) 
3 b's
A

bleeding
bright red emesis
blood tinged stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

defect in the diaphragm that allows a portion of the stomach to protrude (herniation) through the diaphragmatic opening into the thorax.

A

hiatal hernia

49
Q

90% of hiatal hernias are what

A

sliding

50
Q

path of hiatal hernia

A

increased intra abdominal pressure ; obesity and smoking

51
Q

manifestations of GERD

A

upper abdominal pain within 1 hour of eating
chest pains
pain when lying down

52
Q

usually the first course of action because they provide quick relief of symptoms. These include products such as Maalox, Mylanta, Rolaids, and Tums.

A

antacids- treatment for gerd

53
Q

what do antacids do

A

neutralize acids

54
Q

These do not act as quickly as antacids but they do provide longer relief. Popular H2 receptor blockers include Pepcid AC and Zantac.

A

h2 receptor blocker =treatment for gerd

55
Q

difference between h2 receptor blocker and proton pump inhibitors

A

h2 provides longer relief but ppi have healing capabilities

56
Q

ending in zole

A

proton pump inhibitor

57
Q

These drugs are designed to prevent acid production and release in the stomach and intestines, thereby reducing the risk of acid reflux and esophageal damage.

A

ppi

58
Q

esophageal cancer

A

usually in the neck region the squamous cells are effected

59
Q

where does adenocarcinoma effect

A

towards the bottom of esophagus

60
Q

gastritis can occur from what two things

A

aspirin and alc

61
Q

common precursor of gastritis and peptic ulcers

A

h pylori gastritis

62
Q

ulceration, in the protective mucosal lining of the lower esophagus, stomach, or duodenum

A

peptic ulcer

63
Q

Two major risk factors for peptic ulcer disease

A

NSAIDS and h. pyloric

64
Q

gastric ulcers

A

heartburn

pain after meals-food doesn’t relieve pain

65
Q

duodenum ulcers

A
right upper gastric pain
radiates to their back
food will relive pain 
melena -dark bloody stool
initially food helps, but pain after 30 min-2 hours of eating (empties out of stomach and into duod)
66
Q

major complications of peptic ulcers

A

perforations and bleeding

67
Q

chronic disease the lasts greater than 3 months functional disorder. dont know why. alternates with diarrhea and constipation

A

irritable bowel syndrome

68
Q

most common in women and patient is most likely to have anxiety and depression

A

ibs

69
Q

chronic inflammatory condition of the bowel

A

crohns disease

70
Q

effects any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus ; inflammatory lesions

A

crohns

71
Q

skip lesions in crohns look like what

A

cobblestone in appearance

72
Q

abdominal pain depending on location
diarrhea
affected area

A

manifestations of crohns

73
Q

between 5-10 stools per day; diarrhea

A

crohns disease

74
Q

chronic disease that effects the mucus membrane of the colon and/or rectum

A

ulcerative colitis

75
Q

hallmark symptom of ulcerative colitis

A

10-20 per day associated with bloody diarrhea and lower abdominal pain

76
Q

associated with increased cancer risk after 8-10 years of disease

A

ulcerative colitis

77
Q

out pouching of the walls of the colon

A

diverticulitis

78
Q

low fiber diet

A

diverticulitis

79
Q

lower left sided abdominal pain

A

diverticulitis

80
Q

fluid in the peritoneal cavity

A

peritonitis

81
Q

swallowing gum

A

appendicitis

82
Q
begins with vague periembolicus pain 
then shifts to RLQ-MCBURNYS POINT 
rebound tenderness
elevated wbc 1600
rovsing sign-pain roves from the left side to right
A

appendicitis

83
Q
chronic diarrhea
joint pain
seizures
tooth enamel loss
numbness
A

celiac disease/sprue

84
Q

immune disease in which people can’t eat gluten because it will damage their small intestine.

A

celiac disease

85
Q

gluten is in

A

proteins-wheat,rye,barley

86
Q

loss of nutrients and vitamins which can eventually effect the brain

A

malabsorption syndrome

87
Q

rapid gastric emptying; osmotic shift in vessels

A

dumping syndrome

88
Q

dumping syndrome usually follows what

A

gastric bypass surgery

89
Q

sugar just goes straight through them so what should they not have with meals

A

fluids; dumping syndrome

90
Q

what does the liver do

A

responsible for glycogenesis and glycolgenolysis, protein metabolism, fat metabolism,

91
Q

manifestations of liver disease

A

impaired protein synthesis
accumulation of toxins and hormones
inadequate bile and urine synthesis
release of marker enzymes in the blood

92
Q

what tests are drawn if liver is dysfunctional (markers elevated if liver is injured)

A

AST

ALT

93
Q

liver is sick so it doesn’t take up the bilirubin and doesn’t get rid of it

A

jaundice

94
Q

most common hepatitis

A

b

95
Q

fecal-oral route
abrupt
last 2-7 weeks

A

hep A

96
Q

insidious
transmission of blood and body fluids
6-4 months
mom to baby, sexual contact, through needles

A

hep B

97
Q

insidious
most common for needles/drug users
through blood transfusions
2-12 months

A

hep c

98
Q

stages of hep

A

prodromal-2 wks after exposure and ends w appearance of jaundice.
icteric-jaundice 1-2 wks after prodromal phase
dark urine, clay colored stools
recovery-resolution of jaundice,liver funx return

99
Q

dark urine-break down of rbc

clay colored stools

A

jaundice

100
Q

clinical syndrome resulting in severe impairment or necrosis of liver cells and potential liver failure. Results from HBV, toxic reactions to drugs (APAP), and congenital metabolic disorders

A

fulminant hep ; tylenol can kill liver

101
Q

irreversible inflammatory disease; leading cause of death in the us

A

cirrhosis; fat accumulation

102
Q

accumulation of protein-containing (ascitic) fluid within the abdomen.

A

ascites

103
Q

increased venous pressure in the portal circulation

A

portal hypertension

104
Q

large veins
splenomeagly
in esophagus
biggest complication is esophageal varices which can rupture

A

portal hypertension

105
Q

increase of ammonia in the brain tissue

A

hepatic encephalopathy

106
Q

treatment for hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose - helps get rid of ammonia

107
Q

Most Common Clinical Manifestation of Portal hypertension

A

esophageal varices

108
Q

stones

A

Cholelithiasis

109
Q

inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

110
Q

gall stones form when what crystallizes

A

calcium and cholesterol

111
Q
Colicky pain (biliary colic)
Epigastric and RUQ pains
Pain that radiates to the mid upper back
Jaundice
Nausea and vomiting
Heartburn
Intolerance to fat-containing foods
Clay-colored stools
A

cholecytitis

112
Q

positive murphy sign

A

cholecystitis

113
Q
Indigestion
Leukocytosis / Fever
Jaundice
Pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant (may be referred to the right shoulder)
RUQ tenderness and abdominal rigidity
A

cholecystitis

114
Q

Severe symptoms or none at all
Attacks of pain 3 to 6 hours after a heavy meal
With total obstruction symptoms of blockage occurs
Obstructive jaundice
Clay colored stools
Pruritis
Steatorrhea

A

cholelithiasis

115
Q

sudden severe epigastric pain

radiates to the back

A

acute pancreatitis

116
Q

LU abdominal pain radiating to the back
vomiting
flagulence
diabetes

A

chronic pancreatitis

117
Q

2 signs in pancreatitis

A

cullens sign

greys turner sign

118
Q

triggers of pancreatitis

A

alcohol and gallstones