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NURSING PATHO > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

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1
Q

depolarization of atria

A

P

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2
Q

depolarization of ventricles

A

QRS

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3
Q

repolarization of ventricles

A

ST

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4
Q

de and repolarization of ventricles

A

QR interval

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5
Q

Impulse travel through AVN

A

PR segment

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6
Q

Atrial depolarization and travel time

A

PR interval

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7
Q

Slow repolarization of the Purkrnje fibers

A

U waev

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8
Q

Total ventricular activity

A

QT interval

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9
Q

occurs when the heart contracts to pump blood out

A

systole

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10
Q

occurs when the heart relaxes after contraction

A

diastole

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11
Q

angiotension ii is a what

A

vasoconstriction

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12
Q

MONABATH- used for MI

A

Morphine
Oxygen
Nitroglycerin
ASA

Beta-blockers
ACE-I
Thrombolytics
Heparin

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13
Q

treating congestive heart failure

A 
Upright position 
Nitrates
Lasix- urinate less pressure in body 
Oxygen
Ace I
Digoxin

Fluids - decrease
Afterload- decrease
Sodium restriction
Test - ABGs

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14
Q

ABG (partial blood gases)

A

ph 7.35-7.45
PCO2-35-45

HCO3- 22-26

PaO2- >80

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15
Q

anaerobic metabolism is what

A

breakdown of glucose without oxygen

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16
Q

what is the by product of anaerobic metabolism

A

lactic acid

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17
Q

normal wbc count

A

4,000-12,000

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18
Q

normal platelet range

A

150,000 to 350,000

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19
Q

Controls the reabsorption of water by the kidneys

A

ADH

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20
Q

synthesized by cells in the nuclei of the hypothalamus and then transported to the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored.

A

adh

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21
Q

adh levels are controlled by

A

extracellular fluid (ECF) volume and osmolality

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22
Q

adh pulls the water out of the cells to give to other places so it makes the urine

A

concentrated

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23
Q

less than 400 ml in a 24 hour period

A

oliguria

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24
Q

Not enough ADH or kidney/tubules are not responding; Deficiency of ADH or a decreased renal response to ADH

A

diabetes ins

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25
Q

how much urine do diabetes in excrete per day

A

3-20L a day

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26
Q

dehydration can be measured by

A

osmolarity and severity

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27
Q

one of the markers used to measure dehydration

A

Serum sodium marker of osmolarity

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28
Q

(130-150 mEq/L)

A

isonatremic

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29
Q

(< 130 mEq/L)

A

hyponatremic

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30
Q

(>150 mEq/L)

A

hypernatremic

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31
Q

sodium in the blood is = to the sodium I am losing

A

isotonic

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32
Q

more sodium than water is lost. Because the serum sodium is low, intravascular water shifts to the extravascular space, exaggerating intravascular volume depletion for a given amount of total body water loss.

A

hyponatremic

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33
Q

Relatively less sodium than water is lost. dehydration occurs when the lost fluid contains less sodium than the blood (loss of hypotonic fluid).

A

hypernatremic

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34
Q

severe hyponatremia

A

intractable seizures

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35
Q

hypernatremia dehydration

A

cerebral edema- more water than sodium so swelling occurs

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36
Q

holding onto fluid

A

SI ADH - concentrated

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37
Q

Urine osmolarity will be concentrated because its not mixing
Serum osmolarity be diluted because its mixing-hyponatremic

A

SI ADH

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38
Q

which occurs because of a defect in the synthesis or release of ADH
Inflammatory, autoimmune, vascular disease

A

neurogenic DI

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39
Q

kidneys do not respond to ADH

A

nephrogenic DI

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40
Q

Complaints of intense thirst
Craving for ice water
Polyuria

A

DI

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41
Q

treatment for DI

A

DDAVP

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42
Q

The syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) results from a failure of the negative feedback system that regulates the release and inhibition of ADH.

A

SIADH

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43
Q 
INCREASE ADH
DECREASE URINE
HYPERTENSION 
INCREASE HR
DILUTIONAL HYPONATREMIA 
URINE OSMOLARITY HIGH
SERUM OSMOLARITY LOW
A

SIADH

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44
Q 
INCREASE URINE 
DECREASE ADH
HYPOTENSION
DECREASE HR
DECREASE OSMOLARITY 
DILUTIONAL HYPERNATREMIA 
SERUM OSMOLARITY HIGH
URINE OSMOLARITY LOW
A

DI ADH

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45
Q 
Lung tumors
Chest lesions
CNS disorders
Tumors, particularly bronchogenic carcinomas and cancers of the lymphoid tissue, prostate, and pancreas
Positive-pressure ventilation
A

SI ADH

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46
Q

treatment for SIADH

A

give them fluids

diuretic-lasix

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47
Q

Break of a bone in the base of theskull

A

basilar skull fracture

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48
Q

bruising behind the ears
bruising around the eyes
blood behind the ear drum.

A

basilar skull fracture

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49
Q

how to test for cerebral spinal fluid

A

halo test

check for glucose -csf has glucose in it

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50
Q

what should you not do if your patient has a basilar skull fracture

A

insert a nasogastric tube; tube can go through the skull and go up to the brain

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51
Q

170-171

A

look at

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52
Q

The greater the concentration of the substance dissolved

A

the higher the osmolality

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53
Q

acute failure of the circulatory system to supply the peripheral tissues and organs of the body with an adequate blood supply, resulting in cellular hypoxia

A

circulatory shock; not enough oxygen/nutritents; inflammatory mechanism

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54
Q

hypotension and hypoperfusion are present

A

shock

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55
Q

why is anaerobic not good for a patient experiencing shock

A

lactic acid is produced and there is not oxygen in the cells;

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56
Q

lactic acid level greater than WHAT is not good

A

2

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57
Q

sodium potassium pump

A

NA outside the cell

K inside the cell

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58
Q

when the na/k pump isn’t working properly, the sodium ends up inside the cell. what follows sodium?

A

water; edema.. lots of fluid

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59
Q

compensatory mechanisms for shock

A 
raas system (LOOK UPP)
sympathetic nervous system
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60
Q

receptor that works with epiphinerphine and norephinerphine

A

adrenergic receptors

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61
Q

(vasoconstriction)located arteries

A

alpha cells in adrenergic

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62
Q

Increase HR and myocardial contraction

A

B1 cells

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63
Q

Vasodilatation skeletal muscle

A

B2 cells

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64
Q

why do you not want to give a beta blocker to a person with asthma

A

beta blocker vasoconstricts so it constricts the airways

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65
Q

20-1

A

look over

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66
Q

internal hemorrhage

third-space losses

A

hypovolemic shock

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67
Q

the passage of black, tarry stools. Hematochezia is the passage of fresh blood per anus, usually in or with stools.

A

melena

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68
Q

black tarry stool indicative of

A

high gi bleed; a low GI bleed it’ll be red

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69
Q

biggest shock states we see in burns

A

hypovolemia

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70
Q

S3

A

adult- not good it means heart failure

child-normal

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71
Q

Necrosis of >40% of the left ventricle

A

cardiogenic shock

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72
Q

3 I’s of a myocardial infarction

A

inverted T wave- ischemia
ST elevation- injury
abnormal Q- infarction

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73
Q

blood ejected with each beat

A

stroke volume

74
Q

amount of blood thats ejected from heart in 1 minute

A

cardiac output

75
Q 
Tachycardia
Hypotension- bum left ventricle 
SBP < 90 or 30mm Hg less than the baseline
UA output < 30mL/hr
Cold, clammy skin, PPP
Agitation, restlessness, or confusion- LOC
Pulmonary congestion
Tachypnea
Continuing chest discomfort
A

cardiogenic shock

76
Q

amount of stretch on ventricle at the end of diastole / filling

A

preload

77
Q

what would you give to treat a patient in cardiogenic shock

A

lasix and nitroglycerin (vasodilation)

78
Q

most frequent cause of obstructive struck whats the second

A

pulmonary embolism ; cardiac tamponde

79
Q

blood clot in the lungs

A

pulmonary embolism

80
Q

a pressure on the heart that keeps it from filling which decreases blood pressure

A

cardiac tamponde

81
Q

total collapsed lung

A

tension pneumothorax

82
Q

partial collapsed lung

A

atelectasis

83
Q

1 cause of thrombus formation

A

DVT in lower extremities

84
Q

cardiac tamponade becks triad

A

JVD
Hypotension
Muffled heart sounds

85
Q

someone who is in septic shock you will see what

A

SIRS- Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

86
Q

–Temperature>38⁰C (100.4⁰F) or <36⁰C (96.8⁰F)
–Heart Rate>90
–Respiratory Rate>20 or PaCO2
–White Blood Cell (WBC) Count>12,000 or <4,000 or >10% bands

A

SIRS requirement

87
Q

treatment for SIRS

A

steroid; can mask their symptoms

88
Q

what sepsis

A

2 characteristics of SIRS and the infection

89
Q

what is severe sepsis

A

sepsis and hypotension

90
Q

when do you know your patient is in septic shock

A

severe sepsis and MODS (blood pressure doesn’t respond to fluid anymore)

91
Q

treatment for septic shock

A

vasopressor- levafed

92
Q

what does qSOFA measure (SEPSIS)

A

respiratory rate
altered mental status
low blood pressure

93
Q

heart rate

A

60-100 beats per minute

94
Q

respiratory breaths

A

12-20

95
Q

legal pulmonary injury; white lungs

A

Acute Lung Injury/Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ALI/ARDS)

96
Q

test for ARDS

A

ground glass - stiff lungs

97
Q

the amount of gas reaching the alveoli

A

ventilation

98
Q

the blood flow reaching the alveoli

A

perfusion

99
Q

what is the initial problem in DIC

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A

clotting- give heparin (break down clots from occurring)

100
Q

complicated condition that can occur when someone has severe sepsis or septic shock.

A

DIC

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

101
Q

what test is for a DVT ?

A

D dimer; Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) Pulmonary embolism (PE)

102
Q

inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient to permit satisfactory sexual intercourse

A

erectile dysfunction

103
Q

What symptom will the patient exhibit if they become toxic from the medication?

A

blue halo

104
Q

involuntary, prolonged (>4 hours), abnormal and painful erection that continues beyond, or is unrelated to, sexual stimulation.

A

priapism

105
Q

is a component of metabolic syndrome

A

erectile dysfunction ; cardiovascular disease

106
Q

why should patients with cardiac history not take viagra or clialis

A

blood pressure will drop -nitroglycerin will drop blood pressure too

107
Q

stores and transport sperm

A

epididymitis

108
Q

muscle pain

A

myalgia

109
Q

infection of the testes.

A

orchitis

110
Q

Painful urination
Dribbling
Frequency
Urosepsis

A

prostatitis

111
Q

what can cause prostatitis on the health care end

A

inserting foley catheter but not sterile

112
Q

scrotal cancer is associated with

A

chimney sweeps

113
Q

BPH is what kind of renal problems

A

post renal

114
Q

Solitary, painless, firm, fixed lesion with poorly defined borders.

A

BRCA

115
Q

2 causative factors of ovarian cancer

A

talc powder and western diet- high fat diet

116
Q

how to test for ovarian cancer/breast cancer

A

CA-125 >65-70 means a malignant tumor

117
Q

non modifiable of breast cancer

A 
Obesity
Physical inactivity
Caffeine
ETOH
Cigarette smoking
Birth control pills
118
Q

mature into new osteocytes

A

osteoblasts

119
Q

mature, permanent bone cells

A

osteocytes

120
Q

reabsorb old osteocytes

A

osteoclasts

121
Q

Important regulators of calcium and phosphate levels in the blood.

A

parathyroid hormone

122
Q

what 2 have a reverse relationship

A

calcium and phosphate

123
Q

hypocalcemia sign

A

chvosteks or trousseaus

124
Q

who do you expect to have hypocalcemia

A

multiple myeloma -affected by calcium

125
Q

what is vitamin D

A

a steroid hormone

126
Q

attaches bone to bone

A

ligament

127
Q

injury, or bruise, that results from direct trauma and is usually caused by striking a body part against a hard object.

A

contusion

128
Q

difference between contusion and hematoma

A

The pain and swelling of a hematoma take longer to subside than those accompanying a contusion.

129
Q

joint ligaments or capsule surrounding the joint, resembles a strain, but the pain and swelling subside more slowly.

A

sprain

130
Q

stretching or partial tear in a muscle or a muscle–tendon unit.

A

strain

131
Q

how to treat sprain or strain

A

Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation

132
Q

bone is broken and it is protruding through the skin

A

compound or open

133
Q

occurs due to the migration of fat particles from the bone marrow at the time of trauma or during reaming of the intramedullary canal; causes the release of inflammatory mediators with endothetial lung damage and hypoxia

A

fat embolism syndrome

134
Q

short of breath

confusion- LOC

A

fat embolism syndrome

135
Q

treatment for fat embolism

A

statin and heparin

136
Q

Fever
Swelling, warmth and redness over the area of the infection
Pain in the area of the infection
Fatigue

A

osteomyelitis

137
Q

can cause no symptoms or signs with people who are immunosuppressed, old, or young

A

osetomyelitis

138
Q

immune symptom is low with this drug

A

steroids - causes sugar to increase

139
Q

osteoporosis risk factors

A 
Alc use
Corticosteroid use
Calcium low
Estrogen low
Smoking
Sedentary lifestyle - no physical activity
140
Q

First manifestations
Skeletal fractures
Dowager hump
Pain

A

osteoporosis

141
Q

buffalo hump is for

A

cushing syndrome- high cortisol levels

142
Q

osteoporosis treatment

A 
calcium (kale) - can cause constipation / renal stones 
vitamin D
exercise 
prevent falls
stop smoking 
good nutrition
143
Q

Disorder of the bone remodeling; body absorbs old bone but makes bad new bone

A

Paget Disease

144
Q

causative factor for paget disease

A

osteoblasts

145
Q

treatment for paget disease

A

biphosphonates and calcium, vit D

146
Q

body’s immune system –mistakenly attacks the joints.

A

rheumatoid arthritis

147
Q

how are the joints affected in rheumatoid arthritis

A

symmetrically

148
Q

rheumatoid arthritis genetic marker

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

149
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis: Blood Test

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

150
Q 
Morning stiffness for 30 minutes or longer
More than one joint is affected
Small joints (wrists, certain joints of the hands and feet) are affected
The same joints on both sides of the body are affected
Along with pain, many people experience fatigue, loss of appetite and a low-grade fever.
A

rheumatoid arthritis

151
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs NSAIDs
Corticosteroid medications
Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs DMARDs
JAK inhibitors
Surgery

A

medications for rheumatoid arth

152
Q

Red meat and organ meats (liver, tongue and sweetbreads)
Shellfish such as shrimp and lobster
Refined carbohydrates (white bread, white rice, pasta, sugar)
Processed foods (chips, snack foods, frozen dinners)
Sugary beverages

A

gout

153
Q

1 shock state for burns

A

hypovolemia

154
Q

which degree of burn hurts

A

second degree

155
Q

burn patients could have burns on the inside so what should you be caution of

A

their airway

156
Q

how much fluid and how fast they need it

A

parkland

157
Q

rapid breakdown of muscle that causes the release of intracellular contents including myoglobin(protein), into the extracellular space and bloodstream.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

158
Q

Rhabdomyolysis triad

A

Myalgias
Weakness
darkened urine

159
Q

autonomic dysreflexia can cause

A

pressure ulcers

160
Q

difference between Purpura and Petechiae

A

Petechiae is smaller

161
Q

Most common invasive cancer

More on fair skin persons with history of tanning

A

basal cell carcinoma

162
Q

multiple myeloma test

A

UA; bence jones proteins

163
Q

acute lymphobastic leukemia

A

lymph system
sudden onset
seen more in children

164
Q

acute myeloid leukemia

A

bone marrow

in adults

165
Q

chronic lymph leuk

A

adult
poor prognosis
lymph system
HALLMARK SIGN-high wbc count

166
Q

chronic myeloid leukemia

A

philadelphia chromosome

167
Q

hodgekins lymphoma

A

reed sternberg

168
Q

hypocalcemia cats

A

convulsions
arrythmias
tetany
spasms

169
Q

if they are taking viagra you cannot give

A

nitrates -bp will go down

170
Q

if they are taking viagra you cannot give

A

nitrates -bp will go down

171
Q

guys with epididymitis younger than 35 is caused by

A

stds

172
Q

older than 35

A

bacteria-e.coli or sudamonas

173
Q

where should you get vitamin d

A

fish liver or radiated milk

174
Q

can leave the bone marrow and go into the blood stream and might not show up until days later

A

fat embolism

175
Q

related to obstructive shock

A

cardiac tamponade

176
Q

foods high in potassium

A 
avocado
banana
potatoes
spinach 
beans
citrus juices
fish
177
Q

foods high in phosphorus

A 
meat
fast food
cheese
seeds
milk
canned foods
cola
178
Q

GFR normal kidneys

A

60 or above

179
Q

GFR kidney disease

A

15-60

180
Q

kidney failure

A

less than 15

181
Q

peaked t waves

A

hyperkalemia

182
Q

u wave

A

hypocalcemia

NURSING PATHO (16 decks)

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