Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define teaching

A

the concept of imparting knowledge through a series of directed activities. (It consists of a conscious, deliberate set of actions that help individuals gain new knowledge, change attitudes, adopt new behaviors, or perform new skills.)

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2
Q

Define learning

A

the purposeful acquisition of new knowledge, attitudes, behaviors, and skills through an experience or external stimulus.

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3
Q

What are the three major purposes of comprehensive patient education?

A
  1. health promotion and illness prevention
  2. health restoration
  3. coping
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4
Q

What is the goal of education others about their health?

A

to help individuals, families, or communities achieve optimal levels of health.

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5
Q

What are the three domains of learning?

A
  1. Cognitive (understanding)
  2. Affective (feelings, attitudes, beliefs)
  3. psychomotor (motor skills)
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6
Q

What are the six cognitive behaviors that make up cognitive learning?

A
  1. Remembering (learning new info)
  2. Understanding (knowing the meaning of the new info)
  3. Applying (using the info/idea in a new situation)
  4. Analyzing (breaking down and organizing the info)
  5. Evaluation (ability to judge the value of something for a given purpose)
  6. Creating (ability to apply knowledge and skills to create something new)
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7
Q

What are the five behaviors associated with affective learning?

A
  1. Receiving (learner is passive; involves only paying attention to the information being presented)
  2. Responding (active participation; listing and then reacting verbally and nonverbally)
  3. Valuing (attaching worth and value to the acquired info as demonstrated by the learner’s behavior)
  4. Organizing (developing a value system and organizing values according to their worth)
  5. Characterizing (acting and responding with a consistent value system; requires introspection and self-examination of one’s own values
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8
Q

WHAT IS THE CIRCADIAN RHYTHM?

A

24 HOUR DAY-NIGHT CYCLE/SLEEP CYCLE (aka diurnal)

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9
Q

What controls the rhythm of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinates it with other circadian rhythms?

A

the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) nerve cells in the hypothalamus

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10
Q

What major biological and behavioral functions have their patterns influenced by circadian rhythms?

A
body temperature
heart rate
blood pressure
hormone secretion
sensory acuity
mood
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11
Q

What factors affect circadian rhythms and daily sleep-wake cycles?

A

light
temperature
social activities
work routines

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12
Q

What does RAS stand for and what does it do?

A

Reticular activating system (in the hypothalamus):
it maintains alertness, wakefulness, and consciousness by releasing catecholamines such as norepinephrine in response to visual, auditory, pain, and tactile sensory stimuli, as well as responds to activity from the cerebral cortex such as emotions or thought process.

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13
Q

What does the homeostatic process do?

A

primarily regulates the length and depth of sleep (aka process S)

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14
Q

What do the circadian rhythms influence?

A

the internal organization of sleep and the timing and duration of sleep-wake cycles (aka Process C: biological time clocks)

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15
Q

What is time of wake up defined by?

A

the intersection of process s and process c

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16
Q

What is the major sleep center in the body and what does it secrete? for what purpose?

A

the hypothalamus secretes hypocretins (orexin) that promote wakefulness and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
Prostaglandin D2, L-tryptophan, and growth factors control sleep.

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17
Q

What are the two phases of normal sleep?

A

non rapid eye movement (NREM)

rapid eye movement (REM)

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18
Q

What does each sleep cycle consist of and how long is it?

A

Each cycle consists of four stages of NREM sleep and a period of REM sleep and is approx 90-100 minutes long.

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19
Q

How many sleep cycles does a person usually pass through per night?

A

4-5, depending on the total amount of time a person spends sleeping

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20
Q

When does a person usually reach REM sleep?

A

about 90 minutes into the sleep cycle

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21
Q

What happens during stage 1 of NREM sleep and how long does it last?

A

Last a few minutes

Light sleep with decreased physiological activity begins with gradual fall in vital signs and metabolism. (easy arousal)

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22
Q

What happens during stage 2 of NREM sleep and how long does it last?

A

Lasts 10-20 min

Sound sleep where relaxation progresses and body functions continue to slow. (easy arousal)

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23
Q

What happens during stage 3 of NREM sleep and how long does it last?

A

Lasts 15-20 min
Initial stages of deep sleep where muscles are completely relaxed, vital signs decline but remain regular. (arousal is difficult and sleeper rarely moves)

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24
Q

WHAT HAPPENS DURING STAGE 4 OF NREM SLEEP AND HOW LONG DOES IT GENERALLY LAST?

A

Lasts approx 15-30 min
Deepest stage of sleep where vital signs are significantly lower than during waking hours; SLEEP PARALYSIS (AROUSAL IS VERY DIFFICULT)

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25
Q

At what NREM stage of sleep does sleepwalking and bedwetting sometimes occur?

A

Stage 4

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26
Q

What happens during REM sleep and how long does it last?

A

Duration increases with each sleep cycle and averages 20 minutes.
Vivid, full-color dreaming occurs. Stage typically is characterized by rapidly moving eyes, fluctuation heart and respiratory rates, increased or fluctuating blood pressure, loss of skeletal muscle tone, and increase of gastric secretions. (arousal is very difficult)

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27
Q

hypersomnolence

A

a condition where a person experiences significant episodes of sleepiness, even after having 7 hours or more of quality sleep. Other terms used to describe hypersomnolence include excessive daytime sleepiness, excessive daytime somnolence, and hypersomnia.

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28
Q

what does a polysomnogram monitor?

A

the stages of sleep and wakefulness during nighttime sleep.

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29
Q

What three sleep problems do sleep disorders usually result in?

A
  • Insomnia
  • abnormal movement or sensation during sleep or when waking up at night
  • Excessive daytime sleepiness
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30
Q

cataplexy

A

sudden muscle weakness during intense emotions such as anger, sadness, or laughter.

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31
Q

stereognosis

A

a sense that allows a person to recognize the size, shape, and texture of an object

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32
Q

What are 6 of our senses?

A
o	Sight/visual
o	Hearing/auditory
o	Touch/tactile
o	Smell/olfactory
o	Taste/gustatory
o	Position and motion/kinesthetic
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33
Q

Sensory reception

A

the stimulation of sensory nerve fibers and the transmission of impulses to higher centers within the brain.

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34
Q

What does normal sensation involve?

A

o Reception: stimulation of a receptor such as light, touch, or sound
o Perception: integration and interpretation of stimuli
o Reaction: only the most important stimuli will elicit a reaction

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35
Q

What are the three types of sensory alterations?

A
  • Sensory deficits – deficit in the normal function of sensory reception and perception
  • Sensory deprivation – inadequate quality or quantity of stimulation
  • Sensory overload – reception of multiple sensory stimuli
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36
Q

Identify factors that normally promote and disrupt sleep.

A
  • Drugs and Substances
  • Lifestyle
  • Usual sleep patterns
  • Emotional stress
  • Environment
  • Exercise and fatigue
  • Food and caloric intake
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37
Q

What factors affect sensory function?

A

o Age - Various changes occur across the life span
o Meaningful stimuli - Reduce the incidence of sensory deprivation
o Amount of stimuli – can cause sensory overload
o Social interaction – increases with lack of socialization with family
o Environmental factors – Occupation, recreation, and sports activities
o Cultural factors – sensory alterations occur in select groups

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38
Q

What should be assessed regarding sensory alterations during the nursing process?

A
o	Through the patient’s eyes
o	Sensory alteration history
o	Physical assessment
o	Health promotion habits
o	Communication methods
o	Use of assistive devices
o	Persons at risk – elderly
o	Mental status
o	Ability to perform self-care
o	Environmental hazards
o	Social support
o	Other factors affecting perception
o	Communication
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39
Q

What are some diagnosis that apply to patients with sensory alterations?

A
o	Risk-prone health behavior
o	Impaired verbal communication (related to stroke)
o	Risk for injury
o	Impaired physical mobility
o	Bathing self-care deficit
o	Situational low self-esteem
o	Risk for falls
o	Social isolation
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40
Q

Aphasia

A

loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage

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41
Q

What should happen during the planning process regarding sensory alterations?

A
  • Partner with patient and use your knowledge to decide goals and outcomes.
  • Set priorities according to type and extend of sensory alterations, safety, and patient preferences.
  • Collaborate with colleagues that need to be involved
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42
Q

Acute definition

A

Of abrupt onset, in reference to a disease. Acute often also connotes an illness that is of short duration, rapidly progressive, and in need of urgent care. “Acute” is a measure of the time scale of a disease and is in contrast to “subacute” and “chronic.”

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43
Q

What are some interventions that promote the care of sensory alterations?

A
  • Screening
  • Preventive measures
  • Use of assistive devices
  • Promoting meaningful stimuli
  • Establishing safe environments
  • Communication
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44
Q

What are some interventions that relate to sensory alterations for acute care?

A
  • orientation to the environment
  • Communication
  • controlling sensory stimuli
  • safety measures
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45
Q

What are some interventions that relate to sensory alterations for restorative and continuing care?

A
  • maintaining healthy lifestyles
  • understanding sensory loss
  • socialization
  • promoting self-care
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46
Q

**WHEN ASSESSING A PATIENT FOR SENSORY ALTERATIONS, WHAT DO YOU ALWAYS NEED TO REMEMBER TO ASK?

A

ASK IF THEY WEAR/USE ASSISTIVE DEVICES SUCH AS HEARING AIDES, GLASSES, ETC. AND MAKE SURE THEY HAVE THEM.

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47
Q

HOW DO OUR SENSES CHANGE WITH AGE?

A

AS ADULTS OUR SENSORY DECLINES - MOST OLDER ADULTS WILL HAVE SOME KIND OF SENSORY IMPAIRMENT.

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48
Q

WHAT HAPPENS TO OUR VISUAL FIELDS AS WE AGE?

A

THEY START TO DIMINISH (EX. DRIVING AT NIGHT BECOMES AN ISSUE BECAUSE THE STOPLIGHTS ARE HARD TO DETERMINE)

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49
Q

HOW DOES “SOCIAL ISOLATION” RELATE TO SENSORY ALTERATIONS AS A NURSING DIAGNOSIS?

A

WHEN PEOPLE HAVE A HARD TIME INTERACTING WITH OTHER PEOPLE DUE TO A SENSORY IMPAIRMENT, THEY TEND TO START ISOLATING THEMSELVES SO AS NOT TO HAVE TO DEAL WITH IT.

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50
Q

HOW DO DAILY LIVING PUZZLES AND OTHER ACTIVITIES EFFECT SENSORY ALTERATIONS?

A

THEY HELP TO STIMULATE AND EXERCISE THE SENSES.

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51
Q

HOW DOES THE DISEASE PROCESS EFFECT SLEEP?

A

ANY ILLNESS THAT CAUSES PAIN, PHYSICAL DISCOMFORT, OR MOOD PROBLEMS SUCH AS ANXIETY OR DEPRESSION OFTEN RESULT IN SLEEP PROBLEMS DUE TO DISRUPTED SLEEP PATTERNS.

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52
Q

WHAT ARE SOME EXAMPLES OF HEALTH ISSUES THAT DISRUPT SLEEP?

A
  • RESPIRATORY DISEASE OFTEN CAUSES SHORTNESS OF BREATH AND THE NEED TO SLEEP WITH HEAD RAISED (UNFAMILIAR/UNCOMFORTABLE POSITIONS)
  • ASTHAM, BRONCHITIS, ALLERGIES ALER THE RHYTHM OF BREATHING
  • COMMON COLD CAUSES NASAL CONGESTION
  • HYPERTENSION
  • PEPTIC ULCERS
  • NOCTURIA (URINATION DURING THE NIGHT)
  • RESTLESS LEG SYNDROME
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53
Q

WHAT HAPPENS TO SLEEP AS WE AGE?

A

OLDER ADULTS EXPERIENCE INCREASED SLEEPING DIFFICULTIES; EPISODES OF REM SLEEP TEND TO SHORTEN - ELDERLY SUFFER FROM SLEEP DEPRIVATION DUE TO AGE AND OTHER HEALTH RELATED ISSUES

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54
Q

IF AN ADULT SLEEPS FOR 8 HOURS SHOULD THEY BE RESTED?

A

NOT NECESSARILY - “RESTED” IS A SUBJECTIVE TERM. A PERSON MUST FEEL RESTED IN ORDER FOR IT TO APPLY.

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55
Q

WHAT ARE SOME HEALTH PROMOTION INTERVENTIONS TO IMPROVE THE QUALITY OF A PERSON’S REST AND SLEEP?

A
  • Environmental controls
  • Bedtime routines
  • Promoting Safety
  • Promoting Comfort
  • Establishing periods of rest and sleep
  • Stress reduction
  • Bedtime snacks
  • Pharmacological approaches
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56
Q

WHAT NEEDS TO BE ASSESSED DURING A SLEEP FOCUSED ASSESSMENT?

A
  • DESCRIPTION OF SLEEPING PROBLEMS
  • USUAL SLEEP PATTERN
  • PHYSICAL AND PSYCHOLOGICAL ILLNESS
  • CURRENT LIFE EVENTS
  • EMOTIONAL AND MENTAL STATUS
  • BEDTIME ROUTINES
  • BEDTIME ENVIRONMENT
  • BEHAVIORS OF SLEEP DEPRIVATION
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57
Q

HOW CAN YOU EVALUATE THE PATIENT TO SEE IF SLEEP INTERVENTIONS ARE WORKING?

A

ASK QUESTIONS TO SEE IF THE PATIENT FEELS MORE RESTED AND GOALS HAVE BEEN MET.

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58
Q

What are some examples of sleep diagnoses for patients with sleep problems?

A
  • ineffective breathing pattern
  • acute confusion
  • ineffective coping
  • insomnia
  • fatigue
  • disturbed sleep pattern
  • sleep deprivation
  • readiness for enhanced sleep
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59
Q

Why are dreams important?

A

helps with learning, memory, and adaptation to stress

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60
Q

What are the theories regarding the functions of sleep?

A
  1. body tissue restoration
  2. restoration of biological processes
  3. energy conservation
  4. brain tissue restoration
  5. dreams
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61
Q

How is advocacy defined in the ANA Code of ethics?

A

the support of a particular cause (a nurse advocates for the health, safety, and rights of patients, including their right to privacy and their right to refuse treatment)

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62
Q

How is confidentiality defined in the ANA Code of ethics?

A

protection of patients’ personal health information

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63
Q

Code of ethics

A

set of guiding principles that all members of a profession accept

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64
Q

What principles remain constant throughout revision of the ANA code of ethics?

A
  • advocacy
  • responsibility
  • accountability
  • confidentiality
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65
Q

How is responsibility defined in the ANA Code of ethics?

A

a willingness to respect one’s professional obligations and to follow through (a nurse is responsible for her/his actions and those they delegate tasks to)

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66
Q

How is accountability defined in the ANA Code of ethics?

A

the ability to answer for one’s actions (a nurses actions are explainable to your patients and your employer)

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67
Q

What is emphasized in the ethics of care?

A

the importance of understanding relationships, especially as they are revealed in personal narratives.

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68
Q

Autonomy

A

freedom from external control

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69
Q

What does beneficence refer to?

A

taking positive actions to help others - the agreement to act with beneficence implies that the best interests of the patient remain more important than self-interest.

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70
Q

What happens as soon as you judge a patient?

A

you loose your ability to think objectively

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71
Q

nonmaleficence

A

the avoidance of harm or hurt

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72
Q

just culture

A

the promotion of open discussion without fear of recrimination whenever mistakes, especially those involving adverse events, occur or nearly occur. (accountability and quality are achieved by improving processes and systems in the work environment)

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73
Q

fidelity

A

the agreement to keep promises - nurses need to follow through on actions and interventions.

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74
Q

justice

A

fairness

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75
Q

What do you need to be able to clarify to resolve ethical dilemmas?

A

value, fact, and opinion

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76
Q

What process is an effective and important part of ethical discourse?

A

Clarifying the values of those involved (ie. your own, your patients’, your co-workers)

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77
Q

Deontology

A

a proposed system of ethics that defines actions as right or wrong on the basis of their “right-making characteristics” such as fidelity to promises, truthfulness, and justice. (most familiar in health care practitioners)

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78
Q

Utilitarianism

A

a system of ethics that proposes that the value of something is determined by its usefulness (aka consequentialism because its main emphasis is on the outcome or consequence of action

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79
Q

Feminist ethics

A

system of ethics that looks to the nature of relationships to guide participants in making difficult decisions, especially relationships in which power is unequal or in which a point of view has become ignored or invisible. (closely relates to ethics of care)

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80
Q

Casuistry

A

care-based reasoning that turns away from conventional principles of ethics as a way to determine best actions and focuses instead on an intimate understanding of particular situations.

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81
Q

What elements are essential in the processing of ethical dilemmas in nursing situations?

A
  • the presumption of good will on the part of all participants
  • strict adherence to confidentiality
  • patient-centered decision making
  • welcome participation of families and primary caregivers
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82
Q

How do you determine if an ethical dilemma exists?

A

if the question is perplexing and the answer has relevance for several areas of human concern, an ethical dilemma exists.

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83
Q

What are the 7 steps in the resolution of an ethical dilemma?

A
  1. Ask the question, Is this an ethical dilemma?
  2. Gather info relevant to the case. (patient, family, institutional and social perspectives are important sources)
  3. clarify values (fact, opinion, values)
  4. verbalize the problem the facilitate discussion
  5. identify possible courses of action
  6. negotiate a plan (requires confidence in one’s own point of view and a deep respect for the opinions of others)
  7. evaluate the plan over time
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84
Q

What are some current issues in which ethical concerns arise?

A
  • Quality of Life
  • Disabilities
  • Care at the End of Life
  • Health Care Reform
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85
Q

What is the difference between accountability and responsibility?

A

accountability refers to being responsible for your actions while responsibility refers to following through on your obligations of work

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86
Q

Who creates statutory law?

A

elected legislative bodies such as state legislatures and the U.S. Congress.

87
Q

The Nurse Practice Acts are an example of what kind of law?

A

Statutory Law

88
Q

What do the Nurse Practice Acts define?

A

the legal boundaries of nursing practice within each state; the scope of nursing practice and expanded nursing roles, sets education requirements for nurses, and distinguishes between nursing and medical practice. (contains the nursing standards of care as proposed by the ANA)

89
Q

What does regulatory law (aka administrative law) reflect?

A

decisions made by administrative bodies such as State Boards of Nursing when rules and regulations are passed (ex. requirement to report incompetent or unethical nursing conduct to the state board of nursing)

90
Q

What does common law result from?

A

judicial decisions made by courts when individual legal cases are decided (ex. a patient’s right to refuse treatment)

91
Q

What are the two types of statutory law?

A
  1. Civil

2. Criminal

92
Q

Who do civil laws protect?

A

civil law protects the rights of individuals and provide for fair and equitable treatment when civil wrongs or violations occur.

93
Q

Who do criminal laws protect?

A

criminal laws protect society as a whole and provide punishment for crimes, which are defined by municipal, state, and federal legislation.

94
Q

What are criminal laws separated into?

A

misdemeanors or felonies

95
Q

misdemeanor

A

a crime that causes injury but does not inflict serious harm

96
Q

felony

A

a serious offense that results in significant harm to another person or society in general.

97
Q

Standards of care

A

the legal requirements for nursing practice that describe minimum acceptable nursing care.

98
Q

What is compared in a malpractice lawsuit?

A

a nurse’s actual conduct is compared to nursing standards of care to determine whether the nurse acted as any reasonable prudent nurse would act under the same or similar circumstances.

99
Q

Who develops the nursing standards of care?

A

the American Nurses Association (ANA)

100
Q

How does the State Board of Nursing or a Nursing Commission relate to the Nurse Practice Acts?

A

They define the practice of nursing more specifically (ex. develop IV therapy or delegation procedures)

101
Q

What does The Joint Commission (JTC) do?

A

requires accredited hospitals to have written nursing policies and procedures specific to the agency that need to be accessible to all nursing units.

102
Q

What do nurse experts base their opinions on?

A

existing standards of practice established by Nurse Practice Acts, federal and state hospital licensing laws. TJC standards, professional organizations, institutional policies and procedures, job descriptions, and current nursing evidence-based literature

103
Q

What are the four themes of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

A
  • Consumer rights and protections
  • Affordable health care coverage
  • Increased access to care
  • Stronger medicare to improve care for those most vulnerable in our society
104
Q

What did the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act do?

A
  • Created a new Patient’s Bill of Rights that prohibited patients from being denied health care coverage because of prior existing conditions, limits on the amount of care for those conditions and/or an accidental mistake in paperwork when a patient got sick.
  • Improves Medicare coverage for vulnerable populations by improving access to care and prescription, decreasing costs of medications, extending the life of the Medicare Trust Fund until 2024, and addressing fraud and abuse in billing practices.
105
Q

What qualifies as negligence in a nursing malpractice case?

A

o The nurse owed a duty of care to the patient
o The nurse did not carry out the duty or breached it (failed to use that degree of skill and learning ordinarily used under the same or similar circumstances by members of the profession)
o The patient was physically injured
o The patient’s injury resulted in compensable damages that can be qualified as medical bills, lost wages, and pain and suffering.
o The patient’s injury was caused by the nurse’s failure to carry out that duty.

106
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act

A

a civil rights statute that protects the rights of people with physical or mental disabilities.

107
Q

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act

A

when a patient comes to the emergency department or the hospital, an appropriate medical screening occurs within the capacity of the hospital. If an emergency condition exists, staff must evaluate the patient and may not discharge or transfer him or her until the patient’s conditions stabilizes.

108
Q

Mental Health Parity Act

A

required insurance companies to offer the same level of coverage for mental health care that they provide for medical and surgical care.

109
Q

Patient Self-Determination Act

A

requires health care institutions to provide written info to patients concerning their rights under state law to make decisions, including the right to refuse treatment and formulate advance directives. (Under PSDA a patient’s record needs to document whether or not the patient has signed an advance directive.)

110
Q

What do advance directives include?

A

living wills, health care proxies, and durable powers of attorney for health care.

111
Q

When are living wills or durable powers of attorney for health care enforced?

A

a patient must be declared legally incompetent or lack the capacity to make decisions regarding his or her own health care treatment.

112
Q

Living Will

A

written documents that direct treatment in accordance with a patient’s wishes in the event of a terminal illness or condition; patient is able to declare which medical procedures he or she wants or does not want when terminally ill or in a persistent vegetative state.

113
Q

Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPAHC)/Health Care Proxies

A

a legal document that designates a person or people of one’s choosing to make health care decisions when a patient is no longer able to make decisions on his or her own behalf.

114
Q

Uniform Anatomical Gift Act

A

An individual who is at least 18 years of age has the right to make an organ donation

115
Q

Health Information Technology Act (HITECH)

A

nurses must ensure that patient personal health information (PHI) is not inadvertently conveyed on social media and in particular that protected data are not disclosed other than as permitted by the patient.

116
Q

Omnibus Reconciliation Act

A

includes chemical restraint as a form of restraint

117
Q

Who licenses nurses?

A

the State Board of Nursing or Nursing Commission in the state in which they practice

118
Q

What is due process mean?

A

the state is required to notify nurses of the charges brought against them and nurses have the opportunity to defend themselves in a hearing in front of a panel of professionals (does not occur in court).

119
Q

Who has access to the actions and decisions made by the state boards of nursing?

A

health care agencies and the general public

120
Q

Good Samaritan law

A
  • Encourages health care professionals to assist in emergencies
  • limits liability and offers legal immunity if a nurse helps at the scene of an accident as long as they act within their scope of practice
  • requires you to stay with the patient after providing emergency care until you can safely transfer his or her care to someone who can provide needed care such as an EMT.
121
Q

What do public health laws do?

A

protect populations, advocate for the rights of people, regulate health care and health care financing, and ensure professional accountability for care provided.

122
Q

The Oregon Death With Dignity Act

A

a competent individual with a terminal disease could make an oral and written request for medication to end his or her life in a humane and dignified manner.

123
Q

How is terminal disease defined?

A

as an incurable and irreversible disease that has been medically confirmed and will, within reasonable medical judgment, produce death within 6 months.

124
Q

What is the ANA’s stance on physician assisted death?

A

ANA believes that nurses’ participation violates the code of ethics for nurses

125
Q

What is The American Association of Colleges of Nursing stance on physician assisted death?

A

supports the International Council of Nurses’ mandate to ensure an individual’s peaceful end of life.

126
Q

When is an autopsy requested as a part of agency policy or required under the laws of the
state?

A
  • When there are reasonable grounds to believe that a patient died as a result of violence, homicide, suicide, accident, or death in an unusual or suspicious manner, you need to notify the medical examiner for an autopsy.
  • If a patient’s death is unforeseen and sudden and a health care provider has not seen the patient in over 36 hours
127
Q

Torts

A

civil wrongful acts or omissions made against a person or property

128
Q

Intentional torts

A

deliberate acts that violate another’s rights such as assault, battery, and false imprisonment.

129
Q

Quasi-intentional torts

A

acts in which intent is lacking but volitional actions and direct causation occur such as in invasion of privacy and defamation of character.

130
Q

Unintentional tort

A

negligence or malpractice

131
Q

Assault

A

an intentional threat toward another person that places the person in reasonable fear of harmful, imminent, or unwelcome contact (ex. A nurse threatening to give a patient an injection when the patient has refused consent)

132
Q

Battery

A

any intentional offensive touching without consent or lawful justification (ex. If a nurse actually gives an injection without the patients consent)

133
Q

False imprisonment

A

unjustified restraint of a person without a legal reason (ex. A nurse restrains a patient in a confined area to keep the person from freedom)

134
Q

Defamation of character

A

the publication of false statements that result in damage to a person’s reputation

135
Q

Slander

A

one speaks falsely about another

136
Q

Libel

A

the written defamation of character

137
Q

Informed consent

A

a patient’s agreement to have a medical procedure after receiving full disclosure of risks, benefits, alternatives, and consequences of refusal.

138
Q

malpractice insurance

A

a contract between a nurse and an insurance company that provides both malpractice and professional defense coverage for individual nurses.

139
Q

What does effective team development require?

A

team building and training, trust, communication, and a workplace that facilitates collaboration

140
Q

What is a nurse organizing when she/he is setting priorities?

A

priority setting is an organization of a vision of desired outcomes for a patient, not the ordering of a list of care tasks.

141
Q

What are the three priority levels used to classify patient problems?

A
  1. High priority - immediate threat to a patient’s survival or safety
  2. Intermediate priority - nonemergency, needs that are non life-threatening but involve a current situation (teaching about a new medication or taking measures to ensure a patient does not develop complications)
  3. Low priority - not related to patients illness or disease (teaching a patient self-care for home before being discharged)
142
Q

What is the difference between being effective and being efficient?

A

Effective use of time means doing the right things; efficient use of time means doing things right

143
Q

What are the five rights of delegation?

A
  • Right task – repetitive, require little supervision, relatively noninvasive, predictable results, potential minimal risk
  • Right circumstances – consider the appropriate setting when a patient’s condition is relatively stable
  • Right person – a RN knows which tasks to delegate to NAP for each specific patient.
  • Right direction/communication – clear concise communication of tasks and expectations that is ongoing
  • Right supervision/evaluation – appropriate monitoring, evaluation, intervention, and feedback; NAP needs to feel comfortable asking questions
144
Q

When is teaching most effective?

A

when it is fulfilling a need that the learner has.

145
Q

What is a nurses ethical responsibility in regards to teaching?

A

We have an ethical responsibility to teach our patients accurate, complete information relevant to the patient’s needs.

146
Q

Who created the Speak Up initiative and what is its message?

A

The Joint Commission (TJC) created the initiative to help patients understand their rights when receiving medical care. It encourages patients to ask questions.

147
Q

What are the TJC’s Speak Up tips?

A
  • Speak up if you have questions or concerns.
  • Pay attention to the are you get
  • Educate yourself about your illness
  • Ask a trusted friend or family member to be your advocate.
  • Know which medicines you take and why
  • Use a health care organization that has been carefully evaluated.
  • Participate in all decisions about your treatment.
148
Q

What skill is most important in patient education?

A

Listening

149
Q

When is a patient ready to learn?

A

when they express a desire to learn

150
Q

When is a patient more likely to receive your message?

A

when they understand the content.

151
Q

What can influence a patient’s ability to understand a message?

A

attitudes
anxiety
values

152
Q

What factors can effect a patients ability to learn?

A
> Developmental capability
> Age of learner
> Physical capability
emotional and physical health
education
cultural perspective
patient's values about their health
previous knowledge
153
Q

What is included in psychomotor learning?

A

o Perception: being aware of objects or qualities through the use of sensory stimulation
o Set: readiness to take a particular action; there are three sets: mental, physical, and emotional.
o Guided response: early stages of learning a particular skill under the guidance of an instructor that involves imitation and practice of a demonstrated act
o Mechanism: higher level of behavior in which a person gains confidence and proficiency in performing a skill that is more complex or involves several more steps than a guided response.
o Complex overt response: smoothly and accurately performing a motor skill that requires complex movement patterns
o Adaptation: motor skills are well developed, and movements can be modified when unexpected problems occur
o Origination: using existing psychomotor skills to create new movement patterns and perform them as needed in response to a particular situation or problem.

154
Q

What does the achievement of the desired learning outcome depend on?

A
  • motivation to learn
  • ability to learn
  • learning environment
155
Q

What factors influence a patient’s motivation to learn?

A
  • Attentional set (do they need pain meds to be able to concentrate better?)
  • Motivation
  • Use of theory to enhance motivation and learning
  • Psychosocial adaptation to illness (brand new diagnosis or struggling to breath makes learning difficult)
  • Active participation (are they asking questions or just listening)
156
Q

What is self-efficacy?

A

a person’s perceived ability to successfully complete a task. (when a person believes he or she is able to to execute a task, they are more likely to perform it consistently and correctly..

157
Q

What is an ideal learning environment?

A

calm, little noise as possible, adequate lighting, comfortable temp

158
Q

What factors of the environment influence learning?

A
  • Privacy
  • Trusting relationship
  • Minimal distractions
  • Size of the learning group (potential for direct interaction)
  • Room size
  • The ability for learners to view each other and observe verbal and non-verbal cues.
159
Q

What are the stages of illness and grief?

A
  1. denial or disbelief (avoid, withdraw, disregards, suppresses)
  2. Anger (blame and complain)
  3. Bargaining (offering to live better for promise of better health)
  4. Resolution (expression of emotions, asks questions)
  5. Acceptance (recognizes reality, pursues info)
160
Q

How does the teaching process compare to the nursing process at each step?

A
  1. Assessment: collect date about patient’s health/gather data about patient’s learning needs
  2. Nursing diagnosis: Identify appropriate nursing diagnoses on basis of assessment findings/Identify patient’s learning needs on basis of three domains of learning.
  3. Planning: Develop a care plan and goals or expected outcomes/Establish learning objectives stated in behavioral terms. come up with teaching plan.
  4. Implementation: Perform nursing care therapies/Implement teaching methods
  5. Evaluation: Identify success in meeting desired outcomes and goals of nursing care. Alter interventions where goals are not met/Determine outcomes of teaching-learning process. measure patients achievement of learning objectives.
161
Q

In regards to the teaching process what information is gathered during the assessment step?

A
Learning needs
Motivation to learn
Ability to learn
Teaching environment
Resources for learning
Health literacy and learning disabilities
162
Q

What should you assess to determine information that is critical for your patient learn (LEARNING NEEDS)?

A
  • Info or skills needed by a patient to perform self-care and to understand the implications of a health problem.
  • Patient experiences that influence the need to learn (recurring problem or past hospitalizations)
  • Info that family caregivers require to support the patient’s needs.
163
Q

What should you assess to help identify and define the patient’s MOTIVATION to learn?

A
  • Behavior (attention span, memory, ability to concentrate)
  • Health beliefs and sociocultural background
  • Perception of the severity and susceptibility of a health problem.
  • Perceived ability to perform needed health behaviors
  • Desire to learn
  • Attitude about health care providers.
  • Learning style preference
164
Q

What factors should you assess related to the ABILITY to learn?

A
  • Physical strength, endurance, movement, dexterity, and coordination.
  • Sensory deficits that affect a patient’s ability to understand or follow instructions
  • Patient’s reading level (ask a patient to read instructions from an educational handout and then explain their meaning)
  • Patient’s developmental level
  • Patient’s cognitive function, including memory, knowledge, association, and judgement.
  • Pain, fatigue, depression, anxiety, or other physical or psychological symptoms that interfere with the ability to learn.
165
Q

What factors should you assess regarding a patient’s RESOURCES for learning?

A
  • the readiness and ability of family caregivers to learn the information necessary for the care of the patient (if the patient allows their medical information to be shared with them).
  • financial or material resources such as insurance or equipment needed.
  • Printed teaching tools/literature
166
Q

what is functional illiteracy?

A

the inability to read above a fifth-grade level.

167
Q

how does the World Health Organization define health literacy?

A

the cognitive and social skills that determine the motivation and ability of individuals to gain access to, understand, and use information in ways that promote and maintain good health.

168
Q

Who is most likely to be at risk for low health literacy?

A
  • elderly (age 65+)
  • minority populations
  • immigrant populations
  • people of low income
  • people with chronic mental and/or physical health conditions
169
Q

Who is most likely to be at risk for functional illiteracy?

A
  • older adults
  • men
  • people who did not speak english before entering high school
  • people living below poverty level
  • people without a high school education
170
Q

What grade level does the American Medical Association and national Institutes of Health recommend that patient education materials be written at?

A

6th grade level or lower

171
Q

What are some examples of nursing diagnoses that indicate a need for education?

A
  • Decisional Conflict
  • Deficient Knowledge (Affective, Cognitive, Psychomotor)
  • Ineffective Health Maintenance
  • Noncompliance
  • Readiness for Enhanced Health Management
  • Self-Neglect
  • Impaired Home Maintenance
  • Ineffective family therapeutic regiment management
172
Q

When is it appropriate to use Deficient Knowledge as the related factor of the nursing diagnosis?

A

When you can manage or eliminate health care problems through education
(ex. Ineffective health maintenance related to deficient knowledge regarding scheduling of medications)

173
Q

What is involved in the planning stage of patient education?

A

develop a teaching plan, determine goals and expected outcomes, and involve the patient in selecting learning experiences.

174
Q

When setting priorities for patient learning, what should they be based on?

A

patient’s immediate needs, nursing diagnoses, and the goals and outcomes established for him or her.

175
Q

How should teaching material be organized?

A
  • material should progress from simple to complex
  • begin instruction with essential content
  • start with content considered to be high priority
176
Q

How do you implement a teaching plan

A

evaluate the learning objectives and determine which teaching and learning principles most effective and efficiently help the patient meet expected goals and outcomes.

177
Q

What are some examples of teaching approaches?

A
  • Telling (limited info; outlines the task and gives instructions; no feedback)
  • Participating (nurse and patient involved in the learning process together)
  • Entrusting (provides a patient the opportunity to manage self-care)
  • Reinforcing (requires the use of a stimulus to increase the probability of a desired response; can be positive or negative)
178
Q

What are some examples of instructional methods?

A
  • One-on-one discussion
  • Group instruction
  • Preparatory Instruction (reduces procedure anxiety and helps patients know what to expect)
  • Demonstrations
  • Analogies
  • Role play
  • Simulation
179
Q

What size learning group is most effective?

A

six or less to avoid distracting behaviors

180
Q

How can you promote health literacy?

A

create a safe, shame-free environment, using clear and purposeful communication techniques, using visual aids to reinforce spoken material, and taking special care to evaluate patient understanding

181
Q

What are the purposes of medical record documenting?

A
  • Means of communication regarding the patient
  • It’s a legal document (best defense for legal claims)
  • Insurance reimbursement
  • Internal auditing and monitoring
  • Health research (gathering statistical data)
  • Education (health care providers and student can compare records of different patients with the same medical problem and look for patterns)
  • Continuity of care (way to ensure everyone is on the same page regarding patient care)
182
Q

What mistakes in documenting commonly result in malpractice?

A
  1. failing to record pertinent health or drug info
  2. failing to record nursing actions
  3. failing to record medication administration
  4. failing to record drug reactions or changes in patient’s condition
  5. incomplete or illegible records
  6. failing to document discontinued medication
183
Q

What does EHR stand for?

A

electronic health record

184
Q

What does EMR stand for?

A

electronic medical record

185
Q

What are some guidelines for legally sound documentation?

A
  • No personal opinions (must be non-biased and factual)
  • Correct all errors promptly
  • Record all facts (write down everything)
  • Document discussions (that impact health or care)
  • Document only for yourself
  • Avoid using generalized statements (be specific)
  • Use correct entry format (begin each entry with date and time and end with your signature and credential
  • Protect your password
186
Q

What are some paper specific guidelines fo legally sound documentation?

A
  • Do not erase
  • Do not leave blank spaces
  • Record legibly
187
Q

What do current documentation standards require?

A

that all patients admitted to a health care facility have an assessment of physical, psychosocial, environmental, self-care, knowledge level, and discharge planning

188
Q

Why is the medical record an important means of communication?

A

because it is a confidential, permanent, legal documentation of info relevant to a patient’s health care.

189
Q

What are the five important characteristics of quality documentation?

A
  1. factual
  2. accurate
  3. complete
  4. current
  5. organized
190
Q

What abbreviations are on the TJC’s “do not use” list?

A
  • U for unit
  • IU for international unit
  • Forms of QD and QOD for every day and every other day
    Trailing zero or lack of leading zero
  • MS for morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate
  • MSO4 and MgSo4 (confused for on another)
191
Q

What info is very important to document at the time of occurrence?

A
  • vital signs
  • pain assessment
  • admin of meds and treatments
  • preparation for diagnostic tests or surgery
  • change in status and who was notified
  • admission, transfer, discharge or death of a patient
  • treatment for sudden change in status
  • patient’s response to treatment or intervention
192
Q

What is narrative documentation?

A

the use of a storyline format to document information

193
Q

What are the major sections of the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

A
  • Database (all available assessment info)
  • Problem List
  • Care Plan
  • Progress Notes
194
Q

What are five methods used to document progress notes in the POMR documentation method?

A

o PIE – problem, intervention, evaluation
o APIE – assessment, problem, intervention, evaluation
o SOAP – subjective, objective, assessment, plan
o SOAPIE, SOAPIER – subjective, objective, assessment, plan, intervention, evaluation, (revision)
o Focus Charting (DAR) - Data, action, response

195
Q

What does CBE stand for?

A

Charting by exception

196
Q

What is a variance?

A

unexpected outcomes, unmet goals, and interventions not specified within the critical pathway.

197
Q

What does BCMA stand for?

A

bar-coded medication administration

198
Q

What does eMAR stand for?

A

electronic medication administration record

199
Q

What is Kardex?

A

a medical information system used by nursing staff as a way to communicate important information on their patients

200
Q

What are some common record-keeping forms?

A
  • Admission Nursing History Form
  • Flow Sheets and Graphic Records
  • Patient Care Summary
  • Standardized Care Plans or Clinical Care Guidelines (CPGs)
  • Discharge Summary Forms
  • History and physical
201
Q

What is a acuity rating?

A

it determines the hours of care and number of staff required for a given group of patients every shift or every 24 hours.

202
Q

What are the guidelines for telephone and verbal orders?

A
  • clearly determine the patient’s name, room number, and diagnosis.
  • use clarification questions to avoid misunderstandings
  • Write TO (telephone order) or VO (verbal order), including date and time, name of patient, the complete order; sign the name of the physician or health care provider and nurse
  • read back any prescribed orders to the physician or health care provider
  • follow agency policies
203
Q

What should you always document for telephone or verbal orders?

A

“read back and verified”

204
Q

sentinel event

A

an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk of injury

205
Q

When should an incident report be completed?

A

when an unusual and unexpected event involving a patient, visitor, or staff member occurs

206
Q

What are some of the advantages of a nursing clinical information system?

A
  • better access to info
  • enhanced quality of documentation through prompts
  • reduced errors of omissin
  • reduced hospital costs
  • increased nurse job satisfaction
  • compliance with requirements of accrediting agencies
  • development of a common clinical database
  • enhanced ability to track records
207
Q

What information is included in the home care medical record?

A
  • patient assessment
  • referral and intake forms,
  • Interprofessional plans of care
  • list of medications
  • reports to third-party payers
  • complete list of specific nursing services (direct skilled care, patient teaching, skilled observation, evaluation, etc)
208
Q

What two different data sets documents are used in home care?

A

Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)

Omaha System

209
Q

What three components does the Omaha System consist of?

A
  1. problem classification scheme
  2. Intervention scheme
  3. problem rating scale for outcomes
210
Q

What data set documents are federally mandated for use in the long-term health care setting?

A

The Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI), which includes the Minimum Data Set (MDS) and the Care Area Assessment (CAA)

211
Q

What does documentation int eh long-term health care setting support?

A

an inter professional approach to the assessment and planning process for all patients

212
Q

mobility

A

ability to move around freely

213
Q

immobility

A

inability to move around freely

214
Q

bedrest

A

intervention that restricts for therapeutic reasons