Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

jK NEURO > TEST 2 > Flashcards

TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

prefered treatment for status epilepticus:

A

diazapam (benzodiazapine, or anything with “-azapam”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

increased sensitivity to sound in one ear. A brain mri shows a mass in the posterior fossa. The _____ nerve on the ____ side is responsible for the ______

A

CN7 on the ipsilateral side is responsible for the hyperacusis (possible sign of Bell’s palsey if the damage is before the nerve comes off of the brain stem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

areflexic buzzword

A

guillain bare and lems both have “areflexic” as a buzzword

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

no tinnitus, no nausea, only when getting out of bed, 5-30s, nystagmus possibly early in disease (latent downbeat rotary nystagmus that reverses with upright position and fatigues with repeat testing) no other associated symptoms, 20 min 24 hours

A

bppv, meiner’s (is accompanied by tinnitus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

21 yr old female, cold sensation in foot for 4-5 days, slowly went away, had optic neuritis in left eye 2 years ago, one day eye became blurred and vision went out, then came back to 20/20, brisk reflexes and sustained clonus at right ankle, babinski on right, positive for oligoclonal bands

A

ms: 20-30 female, optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 weeks after recovering from illness (virus), 19 yr old complains of headache and neck stiffness. Has a fever and soon has deteriorated cognitive function. Becomes disoriented, lethargic, increasingly unresponsive, MRI shows damage to white matter of cerebral hemispheres

A

ADE Acute Demyelination encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

23 yr old woman awaken with bilateral leg weakness, numbness, urinary retention and impaired bowel control. She has had several episodes of blurred vision over the previous 2 years but always been attributed to idiopathic papillitis:

A

neuromyelitis optica
ms progressively gets worse, includes the brain or cerebellum, and has a progressive phase whereas nmo is just a bad situation that gets better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a 54 yr old alcoholic is brought to ed with profound agitation. Believed to have delirium tremens and is treated with thiamine and intravenous fluids. Serum sodium is noted to be markedly depressed and iv supplements are adjusted to rapidly correct this hyponatremia He becomes acutely quadriplegic and unresponsive and dies within 24 hours

A

central pontine myelinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

35 yr old woman with progressive numbness of right arm and difficulty seeing objects in the right visual field. Known to be hiv positive with homohemianopsia and decreased sensory perception in right upper extremity. MRI shows a demyelinating lesion of the left parietoocciptial area, and CSF PCR for JC virus is positive

A

PML, double stranded dna virus, haart therapy, always jc virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

27 yr old man develops recurrent episodes of involuntary movement. He is an iv drug user, with bacterial endocarditis. Involuntary movements are largely restricted to the right side, lost 40 lbs over 4 months, and has difficulty swallowing. CT shows large area of decreased density on left side of cerebrum, and eeg shows slowing over the left side of the head. Biopsy of lesion reveals oligodendrocytes with abnormally large nuclei and extensive demyelination with giant astrocytes in the lesion. Develops dementia, seizures, and bladder incontinence.

A

PML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a myelogram is performed on a patient with a subacute, worsening paraparesis. The MRI of the lumbar of the spinal cord shows a patchy enhancement at L4-5.

A

Acute Transvere Myelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Which of the following does NOT decrease with age?
A. TST.
B. Sleep stage N1 (men).
C. Stage N3 (men).
D. Stage R.
E. REM latency
A

B. Stage N1 increases (men only in one study) or stays the same (women in one study).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following decreases with age?
A. Sleep latency.
B. Sleep efficiency.

A

B. Sleep efficiency decreases with age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is true about infant sleep?
A. Sleep is lighter and fragmented.
B. Stage 4 comprises about 50% of TST (total sleep time).
C. Sleep latency is increased.
D. A and C

A

B. Stage 4 sleep comprises about 50% of TST. In ADULTS, A and C are true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sleep deprivation results in which of the following?
A. Increased leptin.
B. Increased ghrelin.
C. Acute antibody response.
D. Stage R rebound before stage N3 rebound in recovery sleep.

A

B. Sleep deprivation increases ghrelin but decreases leptin and the acute antibody response. In recovery, sleep increased stage N3 occurs on the initial recovery night. Increased stage R may occur on subsequent nights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following brain areas is active during NREM and REM sleep?
A TMN (Tuberomamillary Nucleus)
B LC (Locus Coeruleus)
C DRN (Dorsal Raphe Nucleus)
D VLPO (Ventrolateral Preoptic Nucleus)
A

1 D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which of the following brain areas is active during REM sleep?
    A LDT/PPT (Lateral Dorsal Tegmentum / Pedunculopontine Tegmentum)
    B LC (Locus Coeruleus)
    C DRN (Dorsal Raphe Nucleus)
    D TMN (Tuberomamillary Nucleus)
A

2 A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
What is the neurotransmitter (neuromodulator) of VLPO (Ventrolateral Preoptic) neurons?
A GABA, galanine.
B 5HT.
C HA.
D NE.
A

4 A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about hypocretin (Hcrt) neurons?
    A Stabilize wake-sleep transitions.
    B Active during wake.
    C Located in the lateral hypothalamus.
    D Provide inhibitory input to the LC, DRN.
A

6 D. Stimulatory input to the LC and DRN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
7. What is the major transmitter/neuromodulator of neurons in the DRN? (Slide 23)
A 5HT.
B DA.
C NE.
D HA.
A

7 A (DRN is Serotonergic and 5HT is short for Serotonin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
8. Which of the following brain areas contains neurons active during BOTH wake and REM sleep? (probably don’t need to know this)
A LC.
B LDT/PPT.
C DRN.
D TMN.
A

8 B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. During REM sleep, neurons in what area are responsible for hypotonia? (Slide 24)
    A Subcoeruleus/sublateral dorsal tegmentum.
    B LDT/PPT.
    C LC.
    D DRN.
    E TMN.
A

9 A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
10. What neurotransmitter(s) is believed to mediate the inhibition of spinal motorneurons (by interneurons)? (Slide 24)
A GABA/glycine.
B Glutamate.
C 5HT.
D NE.
A

10 A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
1 Of the following, what is the best documented risk factor for OSA?
A Cigarette smoking.
B Alcohol consumption.
C Postmenopausal status.
D Obesity.
A

1 D. Obesity is the best documented risk factor of those listed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
2 Which of the following is NOT always true about patients with the OHS?  (this question is a more difficult one)
A Daytime PCO 2 ≥ 45 mm Hg.
B BMI > 30 kg/m 2 .
C Worsening PCO 2 and PO 2 with sleep.
D AHI ≥ 5/hr.
A

2 D. Approximately 20% of OHS patients do not have OSA but simply have daytime hypoventilation that worsens during sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 Which of the following symptoms is less typical of pediatric patients with OSA?
A Diaphoresis and labored breathing during sleep.
B Hyperactivity or behavioral problems.
C Adenotonsillar hypertrophy of variable severity.
D Daytime sleepiness.

A

3 D. Daytime sleepiness is not a major complaint of pediatric OSA patients. However, sleepiness may not be recognized. Obese pediatric OSA patients are more likely to report sleepiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

4 Which of the following is the ICSD-2 criterion for diagnosis of OSA in adults? (probably do not need to know, but she did reference the hours)
A (Apneas + hypopneas + RERAs)/hr = 5/hr.
B (Apneas + hypopneas + RERAs)/hr = 15/hr.
C (Apneas + hypopneas + RERAs)/hr = 5/hr + symptoms
D (Apneas + hypopneas + RERAs)/hr = 5/hr + symptoms OR (Apneas + hypopneas + RERAs)/hr ≥ 15/hr.

A

4 D. This option most completely describes the criteria for adult OSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

6 Which of the following combinations has the highest probability of having OSA?
A Snoring, no witnessed apnea, hypertension.
B Snoring, daytime sleepiness, no witnessed apnea.
C Snoring, witnessed apnea, hypertension.
D No snoring, no witnessed apnea, daytime sleepiness.

A

6 C. Snoring, witnessed apnea, and hypertension were found to be major risk factors for the presence of OSA. Although daytime sleepiness is a cardinal symptom of OSA, many OSA patients do not report sleepiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
1. A 25-year-old woman with daily RLS symptoms was started on pramipexole 0.125 mg and this was increased to 0.75 mg over several weeks. The patient feels that her RLS symptoms have improved but continue at a significant level. Her ferritin level is 100 µg/L. What do you recommend?
A. Increase pramipexole to 1.0 mg.
B. Switch to ropinirole 0.5 mg.
C. Add oxycodone 5–10 mg.
D. Add gabapentin 100 mg.
A
  1. C. The patient is on a fairly high dose of pramipexole for RLS treatment. She is tolerating the medication but significant symptoms persist. It is possible that an increase to 1 mg pramipexole will be effective but could increase the risk of augmentation. However, some would argue that A is also a correct answer. A change to a different DA is another option. The equivalent dose of ropinirole is around twice that of pramipexole. Ropinirole at a dose of 0.5 mg is NOT an equivalent dose compared with pramipexole of 0.75 mg. To avoid the risk of augmentation, most clinicians avoid high doses of DAs. The addition of oxycodone 5 to 10 mg is probably the most effective option. The addition of a BZRA or gabapentin could be tried in this situation. However, 100 mg of gabapentin is unlikely to be effective.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
2. A patient with diabetic neuropathy reports RLS symptoms that are quite painful and distressing. There is a history of alcohol and valium dependence in the past. What do you recommend for initial treatment?
A. Gabapentin 300 mg in the evening.
B. Ropinirole 0.25 mg in the evening.
C. Oxycodone 10 mg in the evening.
D. Clonazepam 0.25 mg at bedtime.
A
  1. A. The patient has a history of drug dependence; therefore, benzodiazepines and narcotics should be avoided. Gabapentin is recommended when RLS symptoms are painful. Ropinirole may be effective in this setting but may not improve symptoms of pain. Of note, gabapentin at a dose of 300 mg may not be effective. A dose of 900 to 1500 mg is often needed. Slow upward titration may reduce side effects.
31
Q
  1. A patient is being evaluated for severe daytime sleepiness (Epworth Sleepiness Scale 20/24). He reports sleeping about 7 hours per night. The patient reports neck muscle weakness (head nods) when he hears or tells a joke. He undergoes a PSG followed by an MSLT. The PSG is fairly normal without evidence of sleep apnea. On the MSLT, the mean sleep latency is 4 minutes but only one of five naps has REM sleep. What is the diagnosis?
    A. Narcolepsy without cataplexy.
    B. Idiopathic hypersomnia with long sleep time.
    C. Idiopathic hypersomnia without long sleep time.
    D. Narcolepsy with cataplexy.
A
  1. D. The patient reports cataplexy and daytime sleepiness. In this patient, an MSLT is confirmatory but is not essential for the diagnosis of N+C. Only about 70% of patients with N+C will have an MSLT meeting diagnostic criteria on a given day.
32
Q 
2. Which of the following is an effective (and FDA-approved) treatment for both daytime sleepiness and cataplexy?
A. Sodium oxybate (SOXB).
B. Fluoxetine.
C. Modafinil.
D. Methylphenidate.
A
  1. A. SOXB is effective for the treatment of both daytime sleepiness and cataplexy. Methylphenidate may have a modest anticataplectic effect, but modafinil has no effect on cataplexy. Fluoxetine does not treat daytime sleepiness.
33
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about cataplexy? (probably not important)
    A. The duration of cataplexy is seconds to several minutes.
    B. Laughter or hearing or telling a joke is the most common precipitating event.
    C. Consciousness is preserved during episodes of cataplexy.
    D. Histamine activity in the tuberomammillary region is lower in cataplexy than in REM sleep.
    E. Deep tendon reflexes are absent during an attack of cataplexy.
A
  1. D. Cataplexy is associated with much higher histamine activity in the tuberomammillary area of the ventrolateral hypothalamus during cataplexy than during REM sleep. This is believed to be one of the reasons patients remain conscious during cataplexy.
34
Q 
4. A 30-year-old woman reports problems with insomnia since childhood. There have been no periods of remission. She denies sleeping better in novel environments. During the last few months, her mood and sleep complaints have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Psychophysiologic insomnia.
B. Idiopathic insomnia.
C. Paradoxical insomnia.
D. IDMD.
A
  1. B. Idiopathic insomnia is characteristically present since childhood without periods of remission. Psychophysiologic and paradoxical insomnia are not present since childhood. IDMD would be a reasonable possibility but the patient had significant insomnia many years before her mood worsened.
35
Q 
2. What is the average circadian period in humans?
A. 23.8 hr.
B. 24.0 hr.
C. 24.2 hr.
D. 24.6 hr.
A
  1. C. 24.2 hours.
36
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about photic input to the SCN? (you can technically figure this out with the details she gave in lecture)
    A. Photic information travels to the SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) via the RHT (retinohypothalamic tract)
    B. The major photosensors for entrainment* of the SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) are the rods and cones.
    C. Light can entrain* some blind individuals.
    D. The SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) pathway mediating inhibition of melatonin travels through the superior cervical ganglion.
    * Entrain = to set the circadian rhythm
A
  1. B. The major photosensors are the retinal ganglion cells containing melanopsin.
37
Q
  1. What set of interventions would be most helpful for a night shift worker?
    Interventions for Night Shift Worker
    A Bright light start of shift Dark glasses drive home Nap before night shift
    B Bright light end of shift Dark glasses drive home Nap before night shift
    C Bright light start of shift Delay bedtime until 11 am Nap before night shift
    D Bright light end of shift Delay bedtime until 11 am Nap before night shift
A
  1. A. Bright light at the start of the shift, dark glasses on the way home, going to bed on arrival at home, and a nap before the shift are suggested interventions. Light at the end of the shift, on the way home, or during the first hours at home could phase advance. A phase delay so that CBTmin is within the daytime sleep period is desirable.
38
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about sleepwalking in adults?
    A. Approximately 60% to 70% have a history of sleepwalking in childhood.
    B. It can be precipitated by sleep deprivation.
    C. Approximately 50% of patients with adult-onset sleepwalking have psychopathology.
    D. It always occurs out of stage N3.
A
  1. D. Sleepwalking in adults can occur out of stages N1 and N2 as well as N3.
39
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about RBD?
    A. It typically occurs in the first half of the night.
    B. Women > men.
    C. It responds to clonazepam in approximately 80% of patients.
    D. It responds to 0.3 to 0.5 mg of melatonin.
    E. Dream recall is always present.
A
  1. C. RBD responds to clonazepam in about 80% of cases, although many patients experience side effects. Melatonin, often in doses up to 12 mg may also be effective. RBD is typically a disorder of men older than 50 years of age. Because this parasomnia occurs out of REM sleep, the usual timing is the second part of the night.
40
Q 
6. Which of the following factors favor nocturnal epilepsy over a parasomnia?
A. Confusion following the event.
B. Stereotypical behavior.
C. Several episodes per night.
D. Amnesia for the event.
E. B and C.
F. A and B.
A
  1. E. Stereotypical behaviors (same manifestations with every episode) and several episodes per night are more common with nocturnal epilepsy. Confusion after the event and amnesia can occur with both NREM parasomnias and many types of nocturnal seizures.
41
Q
  1. In which of the following situations would a diagnosis of RBD be indicated?
    A. REM sleep without atonia, history of dream enactment.
    B. REM without atonia, body movements on video PSG during REM sleep.
    C. REM without atonia, no body movements during PSG, no history of dream-enacting behavior.
    D. No evidence of REM with atonia, violent movements out of REM sleep.
    E. A and B.
    F. C and D.
A
  1. E. A diagnosis of RBD requires PSG evidence of REM sleep without atonia and either body movements during REM sleep noted on a PSG or a history of dream enactment. A PSG showing evidence of REM sleep without atonia without other findings does not meet diagnostic criteria. This pattern can simply mean that the patient is taking an SSRI or similar medication. In pseudo-RBD (severe untreated OSA), body movements can be noted during REM sleep with NO evidence of REM sleep without atonia. 29
42
Q

As this patient awakens from a general anesthetic for an arthroscopy, he coughs, moves his arm, squirms on the table, and phonates when touched by the surgeon. He does not open his eyes or squeeze his hand on command. Which of the following is most accurate?
Movement and phonation indicate that the patient is “awake.”
The patient is emerging from anesthesia. Since he can phonate, he can protect his airway.
Stage II is the stage at which the risk of complications is greatest.
This stage of anesthesia is observed more frequently at induction than emergence.

A

The correct answer isC.
Explanation: During Stage II of anesthesia, patients are hyperexcitable to external stimuli, and may phonate, move, manifest autonomic instability including arrhythmias, and cannot protect their airways. This is the stage at which the risk of complications is greatest. Because of the rapidity with which patients receiving intravenous induction agents pass through Stage II, this stage of anesthesia is observed more frequently at emergence than induction. The patient’s ability to phonate is not related to his ability to protect his airway.

43
Q 
A 30-year-old man presents for open reduction and internal fixation of a left radius fracture as an outpatient. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for 12 years. The plan is general anesthesia with endotracheal intubation. Which one of the following agents is most appropriate for him?
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide
A

Correct answer B

sevoflurane is the second fastest volatile anesthetic behind desflurane, and is the least irritating to mucous membranes

44
Q 
A 42-year-old woman presents for laparoscopic gastric bypass. She weighs 191 kg (420 lb) and is 165 cm (5 ft and 5 in) tall. She has a history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, obstructive sleep apnea, and acid reflux. Because of the sleep apnea, there is concern about mild pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following volatile liquids is most likely to produce the most rapid emergence in this patient?
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide
A

Answer C

desflurane has the fastest emergence followed by sevoflurane

45
Q 
A 38-year-old man presents for ventral hernia repair. He had a malignant hyperthermia crisis during a prior surgery. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics would be appropriate for this patient?
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide
A

Answer D

46
Q

You are a resident on anesthesiology service and are considering using nitrous oxide to assist in placing a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) in your patient, who is about to undergo a minor surgical procedure. You remember that nitrous oxide has a very high minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) compared to other anesthetics. This means that nitrous oxide has…
Decreased lipid solubility and decreased potency
Increased lipid solubility and decreased potency
Decreased lipid solubility and increased potency
Increased lipid solubility and increased potency

A

Answer A

47
Q 
The most sensitive sign of metabolic hyperactivity in malignant hyperthermia is:
Tachycardia
Hypercapnea
Hyperthermia
Muscle rigidity
Hypertension
A

Answer B

48
Q

The IV agent with excitatory effects on the CNS but produces the least cardiovascular disturbance ___________

A

Etomidate

49
Q

In contrast to most anesthetics, this agent produces cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased BP, HR, and cardiac output _______

A

ketamine

50
Q

All are true regarding propofol as an anesthetic EXCEPT:
Provides skeletal muscle relaxation
Vasodilation may produce a decline in BP. Can be minimized by decreasing dose
Safe alternative for patients predisposed to MH
High lipophilicity provides rapid and smooth onset

A

A

51
Q

All are true regarding ketamine as an anesthetic EXCEPT:
Contraindicated in a patient with asthma because it may cause bronchoconstriction
Recovery from anesthesia associated with emergence phenomenon of hallucinations and vivid dreams
Produces dissociative anesthetic state, whereby patient appears awake but is unconscious
Produces analgesia

A

A

52
Q

All are true regarding etomidate as an anesthetic EXCEPT:
Inhibits adrenocortical function
No adverse effects from adrenocortical inhibition during short-term use (e.g. induction of anesthesia)
Produces minimal CV effects
Potent hypnotic with excellent analgesic properties
Safe alternative for a patient with hemodynamic instability

A

D

53
Q

TEST: one example of an ideal use for ketamine is;

A

serial dressing changes in burn victims

54
Q

Which of the following can be used to measure anesthetic depth in a patient that has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent?
Jaw tone
Rate and depth of respiration to stimulation
Heart rate and blood pressure
Corneal reflex

A

Heart rate and blood pressure

55
Q 
Breath-holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the arms or legs are most likely an indication that your pediatric patient undergoing a mask induction with sevoflurane is in what stage or plane of anesthesia?
Stage III, plane 1
Stage III, plane 2
Stage I
Stage II
A

D. Stage II —Excitation stage (review slide 10)

56
Q 
Effects that can occur with anesthetic administration (e.g. induction) with a dissociative anesthetic:
Increased heart rate and blood pressure
Hallucinations
Increased intracranial pressure
Increased salivary secretions
All of the above
A

e

57
Q 
The following paired statements describe two entities that are to be compared in a quantitative sense. Select the single best answer. 	
(X) Risk of hypotension with propofol	
(Y) Risk of hypotension with ketamine
(Y) is greater than (X)
(X) is greater than (Y)
The two are equal or very nearly equal
A

Answer is B (Hypotension with propofol is greater than hypotension with ketamine). Discussed in slide 5.

58
Q

Termination of pharmacologic action of a barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia occurs mainly by:
Metabolism
Redistribution
Excretion

A

Answer is B…redistribution. Slide 15.

59
Q 
General anesthesia is a drug-induced, state composed of all except for…
Unconsciousness
Memory loss
Analgesia
Reduced muscle tone/immobility
Sleep
Inhibition of nociceptive reflexes
A reduction in certain autonomic reflexes
A

not sleep

60
Q 
Which of the following is an adverse effect of isoflurane?
Increased airway resistance
Hepatitis
Renal toxicity
Bronchodilation
Reduced tidal volume
A

E– reduced tidal volume

61
Q 
Complications of malignant hyperthermia include:
Metabolic alkalosis
Cerebral atrophy
Renal failure
Hypokalemia
A

C. Renal failure

62
Q 
Given the following volatile agents and their respective blood:gas partition coeffients, \_\_\_\_\_ will have the fastest induction and recovery.
Enflurane 1.90
Sevoflurane 0.69
Isoflurane 1.46
Halothane 2.54
A

B. Sevoflurane

63
Q 
As a rough guide to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia in a healthy 30 year old patient, the vaporizer should be set at…
1 x MAC
2 x MAC
1.5 x MAC
0.5 x MAC
A

Answer C. 1.5 x MAC.

64
Q

TEST:Methohexital has been associated with ________ and works as a potentiator of _____

A

seizures, GABAa receptor

65
Q

S ample Q: You just finishe d placing a SAB (spinal) in a 68 y o ma le for a urologic proce dure using 0.5%
bupivacaine. Which of the following is true concerning the sequence o f blockage by the local
anesthetic?
a ) S ympathetics > pain > temperature > touch > pre ssure > motor
b) S mallun myelinated > small myelinated fibers > la rge unmy e lina te d fibe rs> la rge my e lina te d fibe rs
c) A -fibe rs> B -fibe rs> C -fibe rs
d) A ll of the a bov e

A

A ns we r : A : C -S y m –> C -D R –> D e lta –> B e ta –> A lpha
(Sy m pa the tic ne r v e s , C ty pe fibe r s , a r e v e r y s m a ll)

66
Q

ketamine is a ________

A

bronchodilater

67
Q

46 yr old complains of right sided hearing loss and vertigo. A small tumor is found in her internal auditory canal. Which structure listed accounts for the hearing loss?

A

schwannoma

68
Q

7 yr old has a stumbling gait dizziness, diplopia, headache, vomiting, and coarse nystagmus toward the side of the lesion. He scans his speech. Tests for dysdiadochokinesia, papilledema, elevated csf protein, and intention tremor are positive.

A

medulloblastoma (presents like pd for little kids)

69
Q

which of the following is a characteristic of lou gherig’s disease?

A

progressive bulbar palsy

70
Q

an example of a peripheral nervous system lesion is:

A

guillain-Barre Syndrome

71
Q

______ results in a sensory deficit known as sensory dystaxia or romberg sign. Patients are Romberg positive when they are able to stand with the eyes open but fall with the eyes closed

A

posterior column syndrome

72
Q

a neurologic manifestation of _______ is subacute combined degeneration. There is no involvement of LMNs

A

vit b12 deficiency

73
Q

______ depresses, abducts, and intorts the eye. Paralysis of this muscle results in extorsion and weakness of downward gaze

A

superior oblique

74
Q

10yr old has right arm and leg dystaxia, nystagmus, hoarsness, miosis and ptosis on the right. Lesions is on?

A

lateral medullary syndrome contains nucleus ambigues (larynx) hypothalomospinal tract (horner) inferior cerebellar peduncle (dystaxia) and vestibular nuclei (nystagmus)

jK NEURO (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions