T-38 Systems All Review Questions Flashcards
Electrical power for the T-38C is primarily supplied by what?
Two AC generators
Which of the following are mounted on the airframe mounted gear box?
A. Tach generator and T5 alternator
B. AC generator and oil pump
C. Hydraulic pump and oil pump
D. AC generator and hydraulic pump
D. AC generator and hydraulic pump
Which section of the T-38 houses most of the electrical equipment?
Nose section
Which system is powered by both hydraulic systems?
Flight controls
Which of the following components CANNOT be controlled from the rear cockpit?
Normal flaps Throttles Fuel boost pumps Crossfeed operation Engine shutdown Stability augmentor Speed brake Air-conditioning system
Fuel boost pumps Crossfeed operation Engine shutdown Stability augmentor Air-conditioning system
T/F The T-38 requires an external source of low-pressure air to start the engines.
True
T/F If the engine-driven fuel pumps fail in the T-38, gravity feed can sustain engine operation.
False
Which of the following does the utility hydraulic system supply power to:
Nosewheel steering
Wheel brake system
Flaps
Alternate gear extension
Nosewheel steering
T/F The rear cockpit pilot has the capability to shut down the engines.
False
You are rolling out on the runway after a normal full-stop landing. When may you engage the nosewheel steering?
When below 65 knots
You are taxiing into a 20 knot headwind. How fast may you taxi with the canopy open?
30 knots (20+30= 50 knot max)
You are setting up for a chandelle (assymetric maneuver) with 1700 pounds of fuel. What will your positive G limit be during this maneuver?
+4.7G
What are the restrictions on continous aileron rolls?
Prohibited at load factors greater than (or less than) 1.0 G
Prohibited to use greater than 3/4 stick deflection
You are flying a zero-G pushover. Due to engine oil supply and pressure requirements, do not exceed _______ in this attitude.
10 seconds
While flying solo, you notice a fuel imbalance. This imbalance could lead to center of gravity problems if what?
The right system contains more than twice the left
In the overhead pattern with 3000 lbs fuel remaining, you take evasive action to avoid a midair collision. Your G meter reads -2.7Gs. Is this an over G?
This is an over G regardless of flight conditions
During a cold weather start, you notice oil pressure is at 40 psi, is this normal?
This is normal, oil pressure should return to operating limits within 6 minutes
While starting the #2 engine, the EGT reaches 850º. What should you do?
Abort the start
While starting the #1 engine, the EGT peaks out at 940º. What should you do?
Abort the aircraft and write the tep reached and duration in the AFTO Form 781
During the engine run-up for takeoff, your right engine RPM reads 96%. What should you do?
Abort the aircraft
While setting up for a loop, you notice your right hydraulic pressure is 1500psi. What should you do?
This is abnormal, refer to your checklist
What happens when you lose a generator in the T-38?
The other generator normally picks up the load
What normally supplies power to the DC busses when an engine is operating?
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)
What happens if the left airframe mounted gearbox fails?
The LEFT GENERATOR light and UTILITY HYDRAULIC light will illuminate
What does the Static Inverter power?
Supplies AC power for starting either engine on the ground or in flight
It also supplies AC power to both cockpits for operating the:
Right Engine AC Sensors
Both Fuel Quantity Indicators
The Oxygen Quantity Indicator
What must you do to extend and illuminate the landing-taxi light?
Turn on the position lights
Extend the gear
Turn on the landing light switch
If the MASTER CAUTION light and the RIGHT GENERATOR light illuminate, how can you determine if the left generator is NOT powering the right AC bus?
Check for blank HUD
Check for FAIL indication on the right oil pressure and fuel flow indicators, and on all fuel quantity displays
What will happen to the flood lights in the event of complete AC power failure?
The flood lights will illuminate provided the flood light control knob is out of the OFF position
The Caution Light Panel lights operate in DIM providing:
a. The instrument light rheostat is out of the _________ position
b. The Caution light BRIGHT/DIM switch is moved momentarily to the _______ position
c. There is _______ power available
OFF
DIM
AC
T/F The position lights may be operated in the BRIGHT or DIM position depending only on the setting of the position BRIGHT/DIM switch and proper electrical power.
True
How is the aircraft electrical system (AC and DC) energized on the ground without the engines operating?
External power unit
Which of the following are AC-powered instruments:
Oil pressure indicators Nozzle position indicators Fuel flow indicators Oxygen quantity indicator Flap position indicator Fuel quantity indicators EGT indicators Hydraulic pressure indicators
Oil pressure indicators Fuel flow indicators Oxygen quantity indicator Fuel quantity indicators Hydraulic pressure indicators
At what engine RPM range should the generators come online?
43-48%
Which of the following components would fail in the event of complete AC power failure?
Fuel boost pumps Crossfeed switch and valve Trim HUD Fire warning Wing flaps Mission Data Processor
Fuel boost pumps Trim HUD Wing flaps Mission Data Processor
T/F With no malfunctions, all DC and AC electrical components can be powered with only the right engine running.
True
What is the primary cockpit indication if the left airframe mounted gearbox fails to shift?
LEFT GENERATOR and MASTER CAUTION lights as RPM passes 65-75%
Which instruments will be operational with both generators inoperative? Select more than one.
a. Tachometer and fuel flow indicators
b. Tachometer and nozzle position indicators
c. EGT indicators and tachometers
d. Nozzle position indicators and oil pressure indicators
B and C
How are the Warning/Caution/Advisory System lights powered?
By the AC bus in DIM position and by the left essential DC bus in BRIGHT position
What is the approximate life of the battery after TRU failure?
15 minutes
Which of the following statements best describe battery operation? (Select more than one answer.)
a. The battery relay will close, and the battery will charge anytime external AC power is supplied to the aircraft.
b. If only one Transformer Rectifier Unit fails, the battery picks up its load.
c. If external power is connected, the battery should be turned ON.
d. If the battery relay does not close, it is impossible for the battery to be charged.
C and D
Which of the following statements describe a Transformer Rectifier Unit malfunction? (Select more than one
answer.)
a. Failure of one Transformer Rectifier Unit will cause a partial DC electrical malfunction.
b. Steady illumination of the XMFR RECT OUT caution light indicates that both Transformer Rectifier Units
have failed.
c. A faulty Transformer Rectifier Unit is indicated when the XMFR RECT OUT caution light illuminates
momentarily as the wing flaps are being lowered.
d. The battery will supply DC power to the essential busses when both Transformer Rectifier Units have failed.
B and D
During normal operation, what is the primary DC power source?
TRUs
Which of the following aircraft components are inoperative when there is complete DC electrical failure? (Select
more than one answer.)
a. HUD
b. Flight controls
c. MFD
d. Afterburner operation
e. Crossfeed operation
f. Fuel boost pumps
g. Landing Gear Indicators (Bright Mode)
h. Trim
i. Fire warning lights
j. EED
MFD Afterburner operation Crossfeed operation Landing Gear Indicators (Bright Mode) Fire warning lights EED
How will you be warned when one TRU fails?
AVIONICS alert message on the HUD/MFD and a PFL display
T/F When the external power unit is connected to the aircraft, all electrical busses are energized.
True
The TRUs receive their power from the _____ busses and supply power to the ______ busses
AC
DC
What is the minimum batter voltage to connect to the DC busses when placing the batter switch ON?
18 volts
T/F Anytime the MASTER CAUTION and XMFR RECT OUT caution lights blink, it is necessary to abort the mission.
False
Which of the following is a DC–powered instrument?
a. Flap position indicator
b. Oxygen quantity indicator
c. HUD
d. Hydraulic pressure indicators
Flap position indicator
How does a failure of both TRUs and a dead battery affect airstarts and the landing gear?
Airstart is not possible and
The gear must be lowered by the alternate system
If both TRUs fail, is an airstart possible?
An airstart is possible with battery power (if available)
How can you check the battery to see if it is charged sufficiently?
Turn ON the battery switch prior to connecting the APU
What can cause a momentary blink of the XFMR RECT OUT caution light and when is it normal?
Can occur when the battery voltage is momentarily overriding the DC busses voltage
Is normal when operation high DC load equipment
T/F The UFCP is inoperative if the MDP fails or is off.
True
What does the (down) symbol indicate when it is displayed next to a window item?
A menu page is below the current level which can be accessed by pressing the adjacent OSB
T/F The U BRT rocker switch on the UFCP controls the brightness of the panel window displays, LED, OSBs, and all function and controls keys.
False
In which of following cases must the ENT key on the UFCP be pressed to complete the data entry?
a. After the last character is entered filling a fixed length field.
b. After the last character is entered filling a non–fixed length field.
c. After the last character is entered and less than the entire non–fixed length field is filled.
d. After the last character is entered in all cases regardless of the number of characters or type of field.
C
What is the indication that you have entered invalid data on the UFCP?
The invalid data display flashes
If a typing error is made on the UFCP before all of the data has been entered, pressing _________ will clear the field and display dashes again for reentry of the correct data.
The adjacent OSB
Which two methods can be used to return from a function display’s primary page to the basic display?
Press the RTN key or
Press the current function key again
T/F The function displays are manually selected by pressing the applicable function key and are enabled regardless of the current display or operating stage.
True
The normal ATC transponder code (IFF squawk) is set or changed on the _________ display.
IFF function display
T/F If the MDP is powered down and back up during flight due to an electrical malfunction, the current (barometric pressure) altimeter setting will need to be reentered if it is other than the default setting of 29.92.
False
T/F The primary flight display (PFR) can be selected directly from any MFD display using either the PFR/HSD/SIT MOSB or Default Display Switch on the FCP control stick.
True
Which MFD control is used to change the course displayed in the CRS window?
Course select rocker
When selecting input letters on the alphabetic menu, how quickly should the button be pressed repeated to select the second letter (“B” for example)?
Press ML-1 twice without delaying in between button depressions
What are 3 different methods to clear/correct invalid data entry?
Press the MOSB again to select another valid option
For menu entries, press the adjacent MOSB again to restart the data entry process
Press one of the other active MOSBs to clear the entry and display the last valid option/data
T/F The “arm” extending from the Nadir and Zenith symbols on the EADI always point in the direction of the nearest horized, except at exactly 90º dive/climb angle when they point towards the ghost horizon line.
True
What do the minimum and maximum G values that are displayed with oversized ticks on the G meter scale indicate for a clean aircraft?
The current minimum/maximum G limits that are calculated and updated based on the fuel quantity/maneuver
Which type of intruder aircraft does the red square symbol represent on the EHSI/HSD/SIT TCAS display?
Threat aircraft at RA level
What is the TCAS default setting for range (in NM)?
20 NM
What appears on the avionics when a PFL failure is detected?
Flashing AVIONICS caution on the HUD and MFD
Detected failure is recorded on both the PFL and the MFL
The failure will be removed from the PFL if it no longer exists, but it will remain on the MFL
Which flight reference displays are available on the MFD backup display with MDP failure?
EADI and EHSI
How many Training Zones can be downloaded from the DTC and available for display on the MFD HSD/SIT?
10
What information does the Divert modes Range (RNG) profile display?
The flight profile intended to achieve MAXIMUM RANGE at the current altitude and the estimated fuel remaining
Which button the HOTAS is used to quickly return to the primary flight reference (PFR) display on the MFD in the front cockpit?
Master Mode Switch (MMS)
Which switch on the Avionics Action Panel controls the transponder power for normal air traffic control function?
The TCAS switch
When the mode switch on the AAP is placed in the NORM position, what controls the UHF, VHF, VID and TACAN systems?
Controlled by the MDP via the UFCP
What does the channel select button the UHF Backup Control Panel do?
Toggles between preset and manual frequency selection
In the event of MDP failure, the NAV Backup Control Panel can be used to select what types of frequencies?
VOR or ILS
When the ON/OFF switch on the NAV Backup Control Panel is in the BRG position, what information is displayed?
Displays bearing to the selected VOR station if received
What does placing the microphone switch on the rear cockpit audio panel to the HOT position do?
Enables hot mic for both cockpits
What does placing the TCAS switch in the SIL position do?
Inhibits the aural traffic warning generated by the TCAS
What happens if the PTT in both cockpits are pressed at the same time but on different radios?
Both pilots will transmit on the different radios simultaneously
How long will the standby attitude indicator provide useful attitude information?
9 minutes
How does the EED display a failed gage?
FAIL is displayed in the center of the failed gage or under the failed tape
What happens if an RPM or EGT limit is exceeded on the EED?
The white pointer and display title turns red
The center digital number turns red only on the EGT display
When will the CDTS record the MFD, HUD or both?
By selecting the VTR page on the UFCP and toggle from STOP to FMFD, BMFD, HUD or CMB as desired
Where does the Video and Data Transfer System obtain its data?
from the Mission Display Processor (MDP)
When loading data to or from the MDP and DTC via the DTS menus on the MFD, what indicates a data transfer failure?
A red title crossed out with a horizontal line for the applicable data item on the DTS display
What are the 3 options for displaying speed on the HUD?
GS, TAS or CAS
What actions occur on the HUD automatically when the gear handle is lowered?
The TD box is removed with destination point 326 selected
The AOA symbol, 2.5º pitch/dive line, and VVI are displayed
The velocity scale and indicator display CAS only
T/F The bearing arrow and radial readout on the F-16 HUD always display information to the selected VOR station whenever a valid signal is received.
False
What would be indicated by the value “B+1000” in the second row of the digital fuel data block on the HUD?
The amount of fuel remaining above BINGO is 1000 pounds
What 3 situations would result in a blank RALT display on the HUD?
The RALT system is OFF
A malfunction of the RALT system
The aircraft altitude is out of the RALT limits
How are WARNING, CAUTION and ADVISORY alerts removed from the HUD?
Alert messages are removed from the HUD when the cause of the alert is eliminated or the ACK button is pressed on the UFCP.
When the declutter functions is selected with the DCL key on the UFCP, on which display(s) will the preselected items be removed from?
From the HUD only (MFD uses a separate button located on the MFD)
How should a pilot react to the RA vertical zone generated by the TCAS on the HUD?
Climb/Descend so that the FPM is OUTSIDE the displayed zone
What happens to the warning/caution/advisory system when the MDP fails or is OFF?
The visual/aural alerts become inoperative since they are MDP-generated, but the existing caution and warning system (MASTER CAUTION light and caution light panel) operate normally
T/F The visual ALTITUDE, FIRE, and GEAR warnings displayed on the HUD/MFD are also accompanied by voice messages.
True
What happens when the visual and aural GEAR warning indications are activated and the silence button next to the gear handle is pressed?
Only the aural gear warning tone is removed by pressing the button
How do you remove the blinking CAUTION on the HUD and MFD when the MASTER CAUTION light illuminates?
Press the MASTER CAUTION light
What EGI advisory message is displayed on the HUD during a GC alignment on the ground to indicate the EGI is still in the coarse alignment phase and the aircraft should not be moved?
WAIT
T/F Only the most recent alert is displayed on the HUD/MFD when there is more than one alert activated at a time.
False
If all equipment were shut OFF for an electrical fire, how would the pilot turn on and operate the UHF radio only?
Turn battery switch ON, AAP mode switch to UHF B/U position, and UHF backup panel knob to ON
With just battery power, which DC bus is NOT powered?
Non-essential bus to include both UFCP
Which key avionics components are inoperative with total MDP failure?
HUD and UFCP
What cockpit indications will the pilot receive when the RPM or oil pressure exceeds the operating limits or the EGT displays and overtemperature?
The pointer on the applicable EED display turns red
An ENGINE caution is generated on the HUD/MFD and an “ENGINE, ENGINE” voice message is transmitted to the headset
What is the center of gravity restriction for a fuel imbalance during solo flight?
The right system cannot exceed twice the amount of the left system
In the event of AC power failure, how could you check your fuel quantity?
Hold the Fuel/Oxygen check switch in the QTY CHECK or gate TEST position
Activate either start button
When will the fuel quantity low-level (FUEL LOW) caution light illuminate
Within 7.5 seconds after either indicator reads below 250 pounds remaining
While flying in the traffic pattern, what procedure is recommended to balance the fuel?
use differential power settings
If operating on one engine (one engine flamed out), how would the pilot set up the fuel switch to balance the fuel if there were 1000 pounds in the left system and 750 in the right system?
Use crossfeed operation with the left boost pump OFF
What are the steps to crossfeed from the left system (right system is low) and then return to normal operation?
Crossfeed switch ON
Right boost pump switch OFF
Right boost pump switch ON
Crossfeed switch off
What are the limitations using gravity feed?
It is possible to use gravity feed up to 25,000 ft
Specifications guarantee gravity feed operation only to an altitude of 6,000 ft
Flameouts have occurred as low as 6,000 ft
What does the fuel crossfeed allow you to do?
Feed both engines from either system
Feed either engine from both systems
What is indicated by a FUEL PRESS caution light?
Indicates a loss of fuel pressure and possible boost pump failure
What is the usable fuel capacity with single-point refueling?
3,906 pounds
What purpose do the variable inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves serve?
Reduce the possibility of compressor stalls
The T-38 anti-ice system prevents ice from forming where?
The inlet guide vanes and bullet nose
How will the anti-ice system be affected with AC power failure?
Anti-ice will be fully effective on any engine above 80%
What is the purpose of the variable exhaust nozzle?
Maintains maximum thrust efficiency while controlling EGT
Under what atmospheric conditions should you use the anti-ice system?
When the temp is near or below 32ºF
In visible moisture or conditions of high humidity
What happens to the Engine Anti-Ice system if right AC electrical power fails?
The anti-ice system is automatically turned on (“fail safe” system)
What is the primary advantage of using an afterburner in engine design?
High thrust for low weight
What happens to the nozzles as RPM is increased up to approximately 97%?
What temperature range do the nozzles regulate in MAX power?
The nozzles close as RPM is increased up to approximately 97%
In MAX power, EGT is regulated by the nozzles to 630-650ºC
The T5 system only operates to maintain EGT within proper limits
How can you be relatively sure the T5 system on a particular engine is working?
Observe EGT indications between 630-650ºC in MAX power
Check to see the nozzles open while advancing the throttle from 97% RPM to MIL power
What electrical source is required to operate the T5 system?
An independent AC T5 alternator
What is the correct nozzle position for MIL power?
0 to 20%
What are the nozzle limits in MAX in flight?
50-85%
If a sudden change of ______ psi or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized RPM, follow the engine oil system malfunction procedures in Section III of the T-38 Checklist.
10 psi
How is the engine rotated for starting during a ground start?
Low-pressure air
What should you do in the event of an engine oil system malfunction?
Retard throttle to OFF if 5 to 15 psi cannot be maintained
You may restart the engine at a later time
Which of the following is true of the main engine fuel system components?
a. The main fuel control positions the inlet guide vanes and bleed ports.
b. The main fuel control computer schedules the variable geometry system.
c. Main engine and afterburner fuel flow are indicated on the fuel flow indicators on the EED.
d. Both a and b are correct.
Both A and B are correct
What happens if one afterburner blows out during takeoff, just prior to liftoff?
The nozzle will close and that engine will revert to MIL power
What is maximum fuel flow for start prior to ignition?
360 pph
Where is the fuel flow stopped when the engines are shut down after a normal flight
Fuel shutoff valve and
Main fuel control
What conditions must exist before fuel will flow to the afterburner pump?
The throttle must be placed in the MAX range
RPM must be stabilized at MIL
During engine start, abort the start if EGT reaches ____ to prevent exceeding temperature limits of ____.
845ºC, 925ºC
How are the fuel shutoff valves controlled?
Fuel shutoff switch position and the throttles
What is a compressor stall and what can it be caused by?
The disruption of airflow through the compressor. Can be caused by ice ingestion, bird ingestion, or afterburner initiation out of the engine envelope
What should you do if flying at FL390 and while advancing the throttles, you encounter a compressor stall?
Quickly retard the throttle(s) to IDLE, push the start button, and then re-advance the throttle slowly while increasing airspeed. If engine damage is suspected, advance the throttle above idle only if required
What is the recommended altitude and RPM for a successful airstart with JP-8 fuel?
Below 25,000 feet with 12% RPM minimum
During an alternate airstart, how long does ignition occur?
30 seconds while in maximum throttle position
If the left engine is restarted first after duel-engine flameout, what is the first indication of a start?
RPM increasing
With complete electrical failure (battery dead), which engine instruments provide accurate information?
None. Tachometer sensors are independent, but EED is blank with DC power failure
What would be the most likely malfunction when you observe the following conditions at MIL power: RPM
decreasing to zero, oil pressure decreasing to zero, nozzle position zero, EGT at 650 °C, and fuel flow within
limits?
The oil pump drive shaft has failed
Why is it unnecessary to wait 30 seconds between air-starting the right and left engines?
Ram air is providing windmilling RPM to both engines simultaneously. The static inverter will provide ignition to both simultaneously.
Why does the T-38 have 2 hydraulic reservoirs?
To allow for two independent hydraulic systems
Indicate whether the following hydraulic components are powered by the flight control system, utility system, both systems, or another source. a. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Speed brake b. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Ailerons c. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Nosewheel steering d. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Landing gear e. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Rudder f. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Stability augmentor g. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Stabilizer h. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Wheel brakes
Speed brake - Utility Ailerons - Utility and Flight Control Nosewheel steering - Utility Landing gear - Utility Rudder - Utility and Flight Control Stability augmentor - Utility Stabilizer - Utility and Flight Control Wheel brakes - Independent
What are the minimum, normal range, and maximum hydraulic system pressure limitations?
1500 min
2850-3200 norm
3200 max
When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate?
When the hydraulic pressure drops below 1500 psi
Can you maneuver the T-38 with the left engine frozen and the right gearbox failed?
No, immediate ejection is recommended
What has likely occurred if the left hydraulic and left generator lights illuminate at the same time?
Gearbox failure
What happens if the gearbox fails to shift?
You will lose the generator on the side it occurred
What happens if the left airframe mounted gearbox shaft shears?
The UTILITY HYDRAULIC and MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate as pressure decreases below 1800 psi
Use of which trim requires the stability augmentor system to be on?
Rudder trim
Nosewheel steering is available only with what type of hydraulic pressure?
Downside hydraulic pressure
Normal gear extension and speed brake extension require ____ power and ________ hydraulic pressure.
DC power
Utility hydraulic pressure
What conditions activate the landing gear up warning system when the gear is not down and locked?
Airspeed 210 KCAS or less
Both throttles below 96% RPM
Altitude 10,000 feet or below
What are the conditions that active that landing gear down warning system?
All gear are down and locked
230 KCAS or more
What are the limits of rudder deflection when:
Nose gear extended 3/4 or less _________
Nose gear extended more than 3/4_________
6º
30º
How is control of the speed brake transferred from one cockpit to the other?
The rear or front cockpit can take control any time the respective switch is actuated
If the gear is lowered by the alternate release handle with the landing gear handle in the LG UP position, there will be a red light in the gear handle without the audible tone. What does this indicate?
This is a proper indication and also indicates the gear doors are open
When performing a practice alternate gear extension, when can you move the gear handle?
Do not move the gear handle until the alternate release handle lanyard is fully stowed
If you have AC electrical failure, will this affect the flight controls? If so, why?
Yes. Trim is AC-powered
What hydraulic operations are no longer available if the alternate gear extension is used?
Nosewheel steering inoperative (After gear extension, landing gear doors remain open.)
The left engine is flamed out and frozen. Can rudder trim be used during the single-engine approach?
No. Rudder trim requires stab-aug ON which requires utility hydraulics.
What type of system is the T-38 wheel brake system?
Independent, self-contained hydraulic system
Are brakes available if there is utility hydraulic failure?
Yes (independent system)
How are aerodynamic forces transmitted from the flight control surfaces to the pilot?
Aerodynamic forces are simulated by artificial feel
How does the red light in the gear handle relate to the up and down position of the gear handle?
In the up position, the light is a function of the gear doors, and in the down position, the light is a function of the gear position
What does the takeoff trim button do?
Trims only the horizontal tail, and the takeoff trim light illuminates only when the button is pressed and the horizontal tail is trimmed for taeoff
What happens to the flaps if the flap motor fails?
Both flaps should extend because of the interconnecting rotary sharft
What type of power do the flaps require to operate?
Both AC and DC
What would happen on an aircraft if the flap-slab interconnect failed while the flaps were full down?
The aircraft would have a definite pitchup
What systems are deactivated when the cabin pressure switch is in the RAM DUMP position?
Canopy defog
Cabin pressurization and air-conditioning
Canopy seal
Anti-G suit
Compute the normal cabin pressure altitude for each of the pressure altitudes given below:
a. 8,000 ft
b. 31,000 ft
c. 35,000 ft
d. 40,000 ft
a. 8,000 ft = 8,000 (+/-1,000)
b. 31,000 ft = 12,500 (+/-2,000)
c. 35,000 ft = 14,500 (+/-2,000)
d. 40,000 ft = 17,000 (+/-2,000)
The canopy defog control affects what?
Volume of the defog air
What is affected concerning the T-38 air conditioning and pressurization if you have complete AC power failure.
The ram dump valve position cannot be changed
You cannot control the temperature of the cabin air
How is ice removed from the air-conditioning system?
A de-ice control valve opens automatically when ice forms in the air-conditioning system, allowing hot air to pass through the moisture separator where the ice has formed.
How do you eliminate smoke and fumes from the cockpit?
RAM DUMP (below 25,000 feet if possible)
You have just started a go–around when you hear a loud fluttering noise. This is the pressure relief valve in the
moisture separator. What would you do to prove that the noise is from the relief valve and not from an engine
compressor stall?
Check engine instruments for normal indications. Increase temperature on the temperature control to stop the fluttering of the temperature control valve
How can you help prevent the canopy from fogging up during a descent from high altitude?
Blow all the moisture out of the system at low altitude by turning the cabin temperature controls to the full hot position. Prior to descent, preheat the canopy using the canopy defog.
How are the cabin temperature and canopy defog controls powered?
AC electrically and pneumatically powered
Which cockpit are the cabin pressurization and air-conditioning controls located?
The front cockpit
What will occur in the cockpit concerning the air-conditioning and pressurization system with dual-generator failure?
Everything remains as it is except you cannot ram dump or change the cabin temperature
Below what altitudes must you descend for oxygen and pressure failure?
10,000 feet cabin pressure altitude and 25,000 feet cabin pressure altitude respectively
