11-202 Study Guide Flashcards

0
Q

When should an aircraft declare minimum/emergency fuel? 2.4.6

A

When in the pilot’s best judgment, the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the minimum/emergency fuel reserve.

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1
Q

What are the required fuel reserves? 2.4.4

A

The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carring enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10% up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed-wing, or 20 minutes, whichever is greater. (10,000 feet at max endurance)

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2
Q

When must cell phones be turned off on a flight? 2.9.1

A

From the time the aircraft leaves its parking spot for departure until clear of the runway after landing.

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3
Q

What is required to be carried by each crewmember during night flight? 2.15.3

A

An operable flashlight

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4
Q

When using GPS for navigation and/or approaches, when is RAIM required? 2.16.4.3.1

A

Prior to commencing and RNAV procedure (departure, arrival or approach)

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5
Q

What can RNAV be a substitute for? 2.16.4.3.3

A

Named fix, VOR, TACAN, NDB, DME or compass locator. Must be obtained from a current database.

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6
Q

When is an RNAV substitution prohibited? 2.16.4.3.5.1

A

Navigational aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment of an instrument procedure without reference to the raw navigation data

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7
Q

The PIC may make changes to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided: 3.1.3

A

The change does not penetrate the ADIZ

The controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight

The PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change

The change complies with applicable host-nation rules

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8
Q

If unable to contact the command and control agency to inform of departure time, what should the PIC do as soon as practicable? 3.1.4

A

Contact the FSS or equivalent and request the destination be advised of the departure time for flight following and to prevent an announced arrival

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9
Q

How is a flight plan closed when arriving at an airport? 3.1.5

A

If on an IFR flight plan into an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan is automatically closed upon landing. In all other cases, the PIC will ensure an activated flight plan is closed through an FSS or ATC facility by any means of communication available. If necessary, call long distance collect.

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10
Q

Who is the approval authority for any flight? 4.3

A

The individual(s) designated on the Flight Authorization as the PIC is the approval authority for the flight.

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11
Q

Who is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace? 4.6.1

A

Pilot in Command

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12
Q

What are the alcohol limitations for aircrew? 5.1.4.1

A

Aircrew members shall not consume alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of take-off

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13
Q

When must crewmembers occupy their assigned duty stations? 5.3

A

From takeoff to landing. Pilots shall not leave their duty station unless another qualified pilot establishes control of the aircraft.

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14
Q

When are pilots required to see an avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles? 5.4

A

When operating in VMC under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control

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15
Q

How close may aircraft fly to one another (excluding formation, air refueling, emergencies etc)? 5.5

A

The PIC must not allow the aircraft to be flown so close to another that it creates a collision hazard. Use 500 ft separation (well clear) as an approximate guide

16
Q

Only one aircraft of a standard formation will squawk the assigned transponder code. When will both aircraft of a formation squawk the assigned beacon code? 5.6.1.2

A

When aircraft interval exceeds 3nm

17
Q

Which aircraft has right of way over all other air traffic? 5.7.1

A

Aircraft in distress

18
Q

What is the priority order of right-of-way in respect to category of aircraft? 5.7.2

A

Balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary or fixed-wing aircraft

19
Q

What are the rules regarding airspeed below 10,000, and Class B, C and D airspaces? 5.9.2

A

250 KIAS max below 10,000
200 KIAS max at or below 2,500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace area
200 KIAS max in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace area

20
Q

In what situations may USAF aircraft operate at a speed greater than 250 KIAS below 10,000’ in the NAS? 5.9.5.1

A

Within restricted areas or MOAs

Within DoD/FAA developed IR or VR military training routes

National defense missions

MAJCOM approved large exercises or special missions

With the aircraft TO requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability

21
Q

When must a clearance from ATC be obtained? (All phases of flight) 5.11.2

A

Obtain a clearance from ATC before taxiing, taking a runway, or any takeoff or landing at an airport with an operating control tower.

22
Q

What are the rules regarding Land and Hold Short Operations? 5.11.5

A

USAF fixed-wing pilots are prohibited from accepting LAHSO clearances

23
Q

When are turns approved after takeoff, low approaches, or closed patterns? 5.11.7

A

Do not turn after takeoff, touch and go or low approach until at least 400 ft above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless: specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure. This restriction does not apply when executing a closed pattern.

24
Q

When must the pilot report “gear down”? 5.13

A

The report shall be made during any approach to an airport prior to crossing the runway threshold.

25
Q

What are the minimum altitude rules regarding Emergency Landing, VFR, Congested Areas, Non-congested areas, Flight over National Recreation Areas and Wildlife Refuges? 5.14

A

Emergency: Below an altitude that, should an emergency landing become necessary, creates undue hazard to persons or property
VFR: Above 3,000’ AGL
Congested Areas: At least 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a 2,000’ radius
Non-congested Areas: At least 500’ AGL except over open water, special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas. Under such exceptions, pilots must not operate aircraft closer than 500’ to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
Wildlife Refuges: At least 2,000’ AGL

26
Q

Flight in IMC below FL180 is not permitted in any area where the barometric pressure is lower than ___ or higher than ___ inches of mercury. 5.15

A

lower than 28 higher than 31

27
Q

What are the weather restrictions for Simulated Emergency Flight Procedures? 5.17

A

Single pilot aircraft required day, VMC
Multi-pilot aircraft in day IMC require weather conditions at or above published circling minimums for the approach to be flown (Big Air Force only, AETC prohibits in IMC)
Multi-pilot aircraft at night require weather conditions at or above 1,000’ ceiling and 2sm or circling mins, whichever is higher (AETC prohibits)
No simulated emergencies with passengers on board

28
Q

When can you land at a civil airfield?

A
Joint use
Alternate (when military not available)
MAJCOM approval
Interceptor
Emergency