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The Mediverse 2.2 > Systemic Embryology > Flashcards

Systemic Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

The pharyngeal apparatus is made up of what components?

A

Pharyngeal arch
Pharyngeal pouch
Pharyngeal cleft
Pharyngeal membrane

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2
Q

The pharyngeal apparatus plays an important role in the development of the ________________ region of the fetus

A

Head and neck

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3
Q

Pharyngeal arches appear at the ______ week of embryonic development

A

4th

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4
Q

What are the components of a pharyngeal arch?

A

Cartilage
Muscle
Artery
Nerve

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5
Q

What is the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch ?

A

Trigeminal nerve (Mandibular and maxillary branches)

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6
Q

What is the nerve of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?

A

Facial nerve

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7
Q

What is the nerve of the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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8
Q

What is the nerve of the 4th Pharyngeal arch?

A

Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve

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9
Q

What is the nerve of the 6th Pharyngeal arch?

A

Recurrent laryngeal branch of the Vagus nerve

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10
Q

Another name for the cartilage of the 1st pharyngeal arch is ______________

A

Meckel’s cartilage

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11
Q

Another name for the cartilage of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch is ______________

A

Reichert’s cartilage

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12
Q

The superior parathyroid gland is derived from the ________________

A

Dorsal wing of the 4th pharyngeal pouch

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13
Q

The inferior parathyroid gland is derived from the ______________

A

Dorsal wing of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch

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14
Q

The _____________ wing of the ____________ pharyngeal pouch develops into the Thymus

A

Ventral wing of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch

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15
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome
Di Guerre syndrome
Pierre robin syndrome

The above are syndromes for which pharyngeal arch?

A

First

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16
Q

What is the artery of the 1st Pharyngeal arch?

A

Maxillary artery

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17
Q

What are the arteries of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?

A

Hyoid artery
Stapedial artery

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18
Q

_______________ and _____________ are the arteries of the 3rd pharyngeal arch

A

Common carotid artery
Internal carotid artery

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19
Q

________________ and ______________ are the arteries of the 4th pharyngeal arch

A

Aortic arch
Subclavian artery

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20
Q

What artery of the 4th Pharyngeal arch supplies the left side?

A

Aortic arch

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21
Q

___________ and ____________ are the arteries of the 6th Pharyngeal arch

A

Ductus arteriosus
Pulmonary artery

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22
Q

What artery of the 6th pharyngeal arch supplies the right side?

A

Pulmonary artery

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23
Q

Cartilages of the pharyngeal arch are _________________ shaped

A

Horseshoe

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24
Q

Malleus
Incus
Sphenomandibular ligament
Spine of sphenoid bone

The above structures are derived from the cartilage of the ___________ Pharyngeal arch

A

1st

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25
Q

What structures are derived from the cartilage of the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

A

Stapes bone
Lesser horn of the hyoid bone
Styloid process of the temporal bone
Upper part of the hyoid bone body

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26
Q

What structures are derived from the cartilage of the 3rd pharyngeal arch?

A

Greater horn of the hyoid bone
Lower part of the hyoid bone body

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27
Q

All cartilages of the larynx are derived from the 4th & 6th cartilage except ________________

A

Epiglottis

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28
Q

3 muscles of the 1st Pharyngeal arch

A

Muscles of mastication
Tensor palati muscle
Tensor tympani muscle
Mylohyoid
Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

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29
Q

3 muscles of the 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Stylohyoid muscle
Muscles of facial expression
Stapedius muscle

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30
Q

What is the muscle of the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?

A

Stylopharyngeus muscle

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31
Q

2 muscles of the 4th pharyngeal arch

A

Constrictors of the pharynx
Levator veli palati
Cricothyroid

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32
Q

What muscles arise from the 6th Pharyngeal arch?

A

Intrinsic muscles of the larynx

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33
Q

What is the fate of the 1st to 4th pharyngeal clefts?

A

1st pharyngeal cleft gives rise to the Ear canal
All other Pharyngeal clefts are obliterated

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34
Q

____________________ is an autosomal recessive disorder characterised by cleft palate, small mandible (micrognathia) and a posteriorly placed tongue (glossoptosis)

A

Pierre Robins syndrome

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35
Q

________________ is an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by molar and mandibular hypoplasia, deformed external ear and depressed palpebral fissure.

A

Treacher Collins syndrome

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36
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome is otherwise called ______________

A

Mandibulofacial dysostosis

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37
Q

Which Pharyngeal arch disorder is as a result of the microdeletion of Chromosome 22?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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38
Q

______________ is the most severe disorder relating to the pharyngeal arches

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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39
Q

The urogenital system is functionally divided into _______________ and _______________

A

Urinary system
Genital system

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40
Q

3 kidney systems are formed during intrauterine life. They are _______________, _________________ and ________________

A

Pronephros
Mesonephros
Metanephros

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41
Q

The 3 kidney systems are formed in a _______________ sequence
a. Caudal to Cranial
b. Lateral
c. Cranial to caudal

A

Cranial to caudal

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42
Q

Which of the kidney systems in Nonfunctional?

A

Pronephros

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43
Q

Which of the kidney systems forms the permanent kidney?

A

Metanephros

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44
Q

The mesonephros is functional throughout gestation.
True/False

A

False
The mesonephros is only functional for a short time during early fetal period

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45
Q

The pronephros is represented by __________ solid cell groups in the Cranial region

A

7-10

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46
Q

All signs of the pronephric system disappear by the end of the _________ week

A

4th

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47
Q

The mesonephros is derived from the _________________ germ layer

A

Intermediate mesodermal

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48
Q

The first excretory tubule of the mesonephros appears early in the ________ week

A

4th

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49
Q

The mesonephric duct is also called ____________

A

Wolffian duct

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50
Q

The mesonephros lengthens and form an S-shaped loop that forms the ___________________

A

Glomerulus

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51
Q

_____________ and _____________ are attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a broad urogenital mesentery

A

Mesonephros
Gonads

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52
Q

The mesonephros forms a large ovoid organ on each side of the midline. This occurs at what time?

A

Middle of the second month

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53
Q

The mesonephric duct runs __________ to the mesonephros
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Medial

A

Lateral

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54
Q

The metanephros appears in the _______ week

A

5th

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55
Q

Collecting ducts of the permanent kidney develop from the ________________

A

Ureteric buds

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56
Q

The ureteric bud penetrates the metanephric tissue to form the _______________

A

Primitive renal lelvis

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57
Q

The primitive renal pelvis splits into two portions. ________________ and _______________

A

Cranial
Caudal

58
Q

Ureter
Renal pelvis
Major and minor calyces
1-3 million collecting tubules

The above structures are derived from the ______________

A

Ureteric buds

59
Q

The kidney develops from 2 sources which are _________________ and _______________

A

Metanephric mesoderm
Ureteric buds

60
Q

Urine production begins around what time of gestation?

A

10th week

61
Q

A congenital disorder where the ureter does not connect with the bladder and drains somewhere else is called _____________

A

Ectopic ureter

62
Q

Name 2 sites of ectopic ureteral opening

A

Vagina
Urethra
Vestibules

63
Q

The kidney is initially positioned in the _____________ region

A

Pelvic

64
Q

A clinical condition where the Ascension of the kidney into the abdominal region is obstructed by the root of the inferior mesenteric artery is called ______________

A

Horseshoe kidney

65
Q

A clinical condition where the kidney fails to ascend into the abdominal region is called ______________

A

Pelvic kidney

66
Q

Excretion of waste product during fetal life is carried out by the _______________

A

Placenta

67
Q

Kidney formed by the metanephros becomes functional during the _______ week

A

12th

68
Q

The cloaca divides into the _____________ and _______________

A

Urogenital sinus
Anal canal

69
Q

Division of the cloaca occurs during the ____________ week

A

4th to 7th

70
Q

________________ is a layer of mesoderm between the primitive anal canal and urogenital sinus

A

Urorectal septum

71
Q

The perineal body is formed from the tip of the ________________

A

Urorectal septum

72
Q

The urogenital sinus breaks up into 3 portions. Name them

A

Phallic part
Pelvic part
Urinary bladder

73
Q

The urachus connects the apex of the bladder to the ________________ upon destruction of the allantois

A

Umbilicus

74
Q

The urachus is known as the ___________________ in adults

A

Median umbilical ligament

75
Q

The pelvic part of the urogenital sinus gives rise to the __________________ and ______________ urethra

A

Prostatic
Membranous

76
Q

The prostate gland is formed by buds from the ______________

A

Urethra

77
Q

Seminal vesicles are formed from buddings of the _______________

A

Ductus deferens

78
Q

The epithelium of the urethra originates in the _________________ germ layer

A

Endodermal

79
Q

In females, the urethral and paraurethral glands are derived from the ___________ part of the urethra
a. Lateral
b. Caudal
c. Cranial
d. Medial

A

Cranial

80
Q

____________________ is a ventral body wall defect where bladder mucosa is exposed to the outside

A

Exstrophy of the bladder

81
Q

__________________ is a ventral body wall defect in which migration of mesoderm to the midline is inhibited and the tail fold fails to progress

A

Exstrophy of the cloaca

82
Q

What urogenital defect is associated with amniotic rupture?

A

Exstrophy of the cloaca

83
Q

The nervous system develops from the ______________

A

Neural plate

84
Q

The neural plate is found in what germ layer?

A

Ectodermal germ layer

85
Q

The neural plate forms 4 components. Name them

A

Neural Crest
Neural Tube
Neural Groove
Neural Fold

86
Q

Neural crest cells form the ___________ and ____________

A

Peripheral nervous system
Autonomic nervous system

87
Q

The neural tube differentiates into the __________________

A

Central nervous system

88
Q

The Cranial opening of the neural tube is called ________________

A

Rostral neuropore

89
Q

The caudal opening of the neural tube is called _________________

A

Caudal neuropore

90
Q

During the 3rd to 4th weeks, the walls of the neural tube thicken to form the _____________ and _______________

A

Brain
Spinal cord

91
Q

Development of the brain starts with 3 primary vesicles which are:

A

Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Rhombencephalon

92
Q

The prosencephalon gives rise to the ______________ and _______________

A

Telencephalon
Diencephalon

93
Q

The Rhombencephalon gives rise to the _________________ and ________________

A

Metencephalon
Myelencephalon

94
Q

The prosencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?

A

The forebrain

95
Q

The mesencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?

A

Midbrain

96
Q

The rhombencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?

A

Hindbrain

97
Q

The telencephalon gives rise to the _____________

A

Cerebrum

98
Q

The diencephalon gives rise to the ___________________

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus
Eye cup

99
Q

The mesencephalon gives rise to the ___________

A

Midbrain

100
Q

The metencephalon gives rise to the ___________________

A

Pons
Cerebellum

101
Q

The myelencephalon gives rise to the __________________

A

Medulla oblongata

102
Q

The lateral ventricles are formed from the _________________

A

Telencephalon

103
Q

The third ventricle is formed from the _________________

A

Diencephalon

104
Q

The rostral fourth ventricle is formed from the _______________

A

Metencephalon

105
Q

The caudal fourth ventricle is formed from the ____________________

A

Myelencephalon

106
Q

The walls of the neural tube are lined with _____________________ epithelium

A

Pseudostratified columnar

107
Q

Neuroepithelium/neural tube epithelium cells constitute 3 zones which are

A

Ventricular zone
Intermediate zone
Marginal zone

108
Q

All neurons and macroglial cells in the spinal cord are found in what neuroepithelial zone

A

Ventricular zone

109
Q

The neuroepithelial zone formed by neuroblasts is called the ____________________

A

Intermediate zone

110
Q

What neuroepithelial zone becomes the white matter?

A

Marginal zone

111
Q

What neuroepithelial zone becomes the grey matter?

A

Intermediate zone

112
Q

The respiratory system originates from which germ layer?

A

Endodermal layer

113
Q

The epithelial lining of the trachea, lungs, bronchii and larynx are derived from what germ layer?

A

Endodermal layer

114
Q

Cartilages, muscles and connective tissue of the respiratory system originate from which germ layer?

A

Splanchnic mesodermal layer

115
Q

A ventral outgrowth of the Cranial part of the foregut is called _______________

A

Respiratory diverticulum

116
Q

The proximal part of the respiratory diverticulum forms the __________ and _____________

A

Larynx
Trachea

117
Q

The respiratory diverticulum is also called ________________

A

Laryngeotracheal diverticulum

118
Q

The trachea is formed from what part of the respiratory diverticulum?

A

Proximal part

119
Q

At week 4, the 2 bronchial buds become principal bronchii and divide into __________________ and __________________

A

Right principal bronchus
Left principal bronchus

120
Q

Which principal bronchus is more aligned to the trachea?

A

Right principal bronchus

121
Q

At week 5, the principal bronchii subdivide into secondary bronchii, ____________________ and intersegmental bronchii

A

Segmental/Tertiary

122
Q

The lungs consist of how many bronchopulmonary segments?

A

10

123
Q

The partial or complete collapse of the lungs or a portion of it is called ____________

A

Atelectasis

124
Q

What is tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

This is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea

125
Q

The most common type of Tracheoesophageal fistula is _________

A

Type A
With an 85-90% rate

126
Q

Type A TEF is characterised by ________________

A

Esophagus upper part blind pouch
Lower part connects to trachea

127
Q

The rare condition where the trachea is narrowed is called ____________

A

Tracheal stenosis

128
Q

Outline the stages of lung maturation

A

Pseudoglandular stage
Canalicular stage
Saccular stage
Alveolar stage

129
Q

The first stage of lung maturation occurs from week _____ to ______

A

5 to 16

130
Q

The second stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?

A

Week 16 to 26

131
Q

The third stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?

A

Week 26 till birth

132
Q

Thd fourth stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?

A

8 months to 8 years

133
Q

Mention one event that occurs in the pseudoglandular stage of lung maturation

A

Basic lung structures are formed up to the terminal bronchioles
Respiratory structures are absent

134
Q

The terminal bronchiole of the lungs are lined by __________________ epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal

135
Q

Mention one event that occurs in the canalicular stage of lung maturation

A

Respiratory elements are formed
Lung tissue is well vascularised

136
Q

Mention one event that occurs at the saccular stage of lung maturation

A

Alveolar sacs are formed in large numbers
Capillaries bulge into developing sacs
Intimate contact between epithelium of sac and endothelium of capillaries

137
Q

Mention one event that occurs at the alveolar stage of lung maturation

A

Formation of true alveoli
Type II pneumocytes produce a sufficient amount of surfactant
Free exchange of gases across the blood-air barrier is formed

138
Q

Mention 4 places by which lung fluids are cleared

A

Pulmonary artery
Mouth
Nose
Veins
Capillaries
Lymphatics

139
Q

Adequate volume of amniotic fluid
Adequate thoracic space
Fetal breathing movements

The above are factors affecting ___________________

A

Lung development

140
Q

Surfactant deficiency leads to a congenital defect called _______________

A

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

The Mediverse 2.2 (13 decks)

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