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Infectious Disease > Swine Exam- For Final > Flashcards

Swine Exam- For Final Flashcards

1
Q

T/F Japanese encephalitis virus has nearly 100% case fatality rate in neonatal piglets and is transmitted primarily by Culex mosquitoes

A

True

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2
Q

T/F In order to be considered SPF, swine must be Caesarian-derived/colostrum deprived (CD/CD)

A

False

SPF can be CD/CD or are considered SPF if they are born to an SPF sow.

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3
Q

T/F Pigs have normal adult immunoglobulin levels by about 6-8 weeks of age

A

True

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4
Q

T/F The main difference between Herd Rollover and Modified Herd Rollover for PRRSV eradication is that, in the later, all breeding animals are exposed or vaccinated initially in the Modified version

A

True

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5
Q

T/F Enrofloxacin is banned for use in food-producing animals

A

False

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6
Q

T/F Outbreaks of swine influenza are a problem only in large commercial herds in the fall and winter months

A

False

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7
Q

T/F ELISA and other serologic tests are able to differentiate between infections with Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae and A. suis

A

False

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8
Q

T/F Control of Glaserella parasuis infections is commonly achieved with early treatment and efforts to control other diseases.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F Immunization against A. pleuropneumoniae and A. suis with commercial bacterins is standard practice in most swine herds.

A

False

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10
Q

T/F One must be careful not to contaminate tissue samples for Glasserella parasuis diagnosis with nasal contents

A

True

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11
Q

T/F Pre-farrowing immunization of sows and gilts with Clostridium perfringens type C toxoid is not necessary as long as sanitation is maintained at a high level.

A

False

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12
Q

T/F PED virus mutates readiliy and there are a number of variants all of which produce severe disease in neonatal pigs

A

False

some produce mild subclniical infections, some produce severe disease.

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13
Q

T/F Pre-farrowing immunization with rotavirus vaccines is a standard prevention method on most swine farms

A

False- Vaccination has questionable efficacy. Manure feedback and fence line exposure of replacement gilts increases colostral immunity.

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14
Q

T/F Most swine are infected with salmonella which makes diagnosis by fecal cultures problematic unless isolates are sent for serotyping

A

True

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15
Q

T/F Salmonellosis in swine is most often associated with various causes of stress

A

True

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16
Q

T/FSalmonellosis in swine usually causes a high mortality rate

A

False

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17
Q

T/F If salmonella vaccines are used on a farm, they are usually given pre-breeding

A

False

Vaccinations are administered in the nursery

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18
Q

T/F 20-30% of pigs on almost every farm are infected with LAwsonia intracellularis at any given point

A

True

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19
Q

T/F Edema disease typically occurs 1-2 weeks after weaning

A

True

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20
Q

T/F The most common manifestations of edema disease are neurological signs or more commonly, acute death

A

True

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21
Q

T/F All pigs are susceptible to edema disease

A

False - this can be bred out of the herd. Avoiding the F 18 receptor and it’s associated Stx2e toxin. CHANGE BOARS

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22
Q

T/F Routine pre-breeding immunization against parvovirus can result in sows never developing an infection

A

True

Nautral infeciton prior to breeidng (feedback) infection supposedly gives lifelong immunity.
Vaccination- doesn’t work well int he face of colostral immunity, but pre-breeding immunization is considered standard.

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23
Q

T/F Killed parvovirus vaccines do not work well if there is a residual maternal antibody titer, but they conversely work well if there is a residual actively acquired antibody titer

A

False- Only killed products are available and are reported to be affective. They do not work well in the face of residual maternal immunity. it is routine to Vx sows pre-breeding.

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24
Q

T/F Females infected with parvovirus prior to 30-35 days of gestation may have mummified fetuses.

A

False- When infected in this time period, sows beome repeat breeders, pseudopregnancies, and small litters.

25
Q

T/F Feral swine need to be tested for Brucellosis before they are used for human consumption

A

False: No information provided in regards to the feral swine. Swine going to slaughter are monitored by a state/federal cooperative program.

26
Q

T/F There is no State-Federal Cooperative Program for swine brucellosis eradication

A

False

27
Q

T/F Bacteriologic culture is the most accurate method for diagnosis of Brucella suis infection

A

True

Serology is most frequently used and it must be used on a herd basis

28
Q

T/F Swine are susceptible to all the vesicular disease

A

True

Vesicular exanthma of swine is not found in CATTLE.

29
Q

T/F The mortality rate for foot and mouth disease is relatively low

A

True

30
Q

T/F Most of the FMD virus is found in the vesicles.

A

True

31
Q

T/F The US has enough FMD vaccine on hand to ring-vaccinate any serotype of FMD virus.

A

False
During an outbreak. aggressive quarantine will be intiiated for several miles around infected farms. All affected animals and animals in contact are slaughtered and burried with quick lime. In the case fo an outbreak, the US has enough Vx to surround an outbreak if it is diagnosed quickly.

32
Q

T/F The DIVA competative ELISA test is the main means for diagnosing FMD in an acute outbreak

A

False

RT-PCR is the most reliable diagnostic method for FMD

33
Q

T/F RT-PCR is the most reliable for diagnosing FMD in an acute outbreak

A

True

34
Q

T/F In the event of an uncontrolled, widespread FMD outbreak in the US, all affected and contact animals will be slaughtered and buried in quicklime or burned.

A

False- because it’s uncontrolled and widespread.

35
Q

T/F Immunization against vesicular stomatitis is primarily used for dairy cattle in endemic areas

A

True

36
Q

T/F Swine infected with Senecavirus A can be slaughtered for food if they do not have lesions anad are certified by a veterinarian who has confirmed the diagnosis.

A

True

37
Q

Enteritis caused by Clostridium perfringens Type A:
A) is usually mild but can cause 2-3 fallout pigs per litter.
B) Is usually a problem in warmer weather due to more difficulties maintaining sanitation.
C) Most commonly affects weaning age piglets.
D) Is primarily diagnosed by culture of intestinal contents
E) Is primarily diagnosed by serology

A

A) is usually mild but can cause 2-3 fallout pigs per litter.

38
Q

In the event of a foreign animal disease outbreak, the most logical person to conduct on-farm testing and/or sampling is:
A) The regular veterinarian that serves the farm
B) The area veterinarian in charge or one of their personnel because they will already have been trained
C) One of the farm’s regular workers who has been trained or who can be trained quickly.
D) Volunteers who do not have animals which are susceptible to the FAD.

A

C) One of the farm’s regular workers who has been trained or who can be trained quickly.

39
Q

Pigs in the US normally have their lowest levels of serum immunoglobulin around weaning. What’s the best way to counteract these low levels?
a) Vaccinate piglets shortly after birth
B) Vaccinate or expose sows and gilts pre-breeding
C) Vaccinate or expose sows and gilts at least 3-4 weeks pre-farrowing
D) Only raise SEW piglets
E) Only b and c above
F) None of the above work very well

A

E) Only B and C above

B) Vaccinate or expose sows and gilts pre-breeding
C) Vaccinate or expose sows and gilts at least 3-4 weeks pre-farrowing

40
Q

PRRS virus:
A) cannot be readily detected in boar semen
B) is thought to mostly transmit via direct contact with a shedding pig
C) Susceptibility is not genetically detemined
D) Always goes thorugh a herd rapidly with almost 100% infection rate.
E) Persists for at least 157 days in the environment

A

B) Is thought to mostly transmit via direct contact with a shedding pig

41
Q

Immunization of feeder pigs against PRRSV:
A) Markedly decreases the length of shedding if infected with a virulent virus.
B) Improves the rate of gain of the pigs
C) HAs been demonstrated to have little to no beneficial effects
D) Is only beneficial when the commercial vaccine is used
E) Only a and b above

A

E) Only a and b above

A) Markedly decreases the length of shedding if infected with a virulent virus.
B) Improves the rate of gain of the pigs

42
Q

Protection against Porcine Circovirus diseases:
A) is best accomplished by pre-breeding immunization of sows and gilts
B) Requires immunization after colostral immunity wanes
C) Is highly correlated with th elevel of sanitation in the farrowing barn
D( Is usually accomplished by immunization at 3 adn 6 weeks of age
E) None of the above

A

D) Is usually accomplished by immunization at 3 and 6 weeks of age

43
Q

Whole-herd medication without closure for elimination of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae:
A) Is faster because it does not require 240 days for closure
B) Requires continuous adminstration of antibiotics so is not good antibiotic stewardship
C) Is only useful when used in combination with parity segregated herds.
D) is best for smaller, farrow to finish type operations.

A

A) Is faster because it does not require 240 days for closure

44
Q

Immunizaiton against swine influenza:
A) If done, is usually done at weaning or in the nursery
B) Is usualy done with the commercial vaccine
C) Is not recommended for gilts and sows
D) Is usually done in the summer months when using virulent virus

A

A) If done, is usually done at weaning or in the nursery

45
Q

Autogenous Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae bacterins:
A) Are always better than commercial bacterins because they are more likely to contain all the antigens important in the strains on a particular farm
B) May not contain the ApX toxoids because these are difficult to get expression of them in-vitro.
C) are not commonly used in modern intensive swine herds.
D) May be used to help stabilize a sow herd during an outbreak
E) All of the above
F) Only B, C and D above

A

F) Only B, C, and D above

B) May not contain the ApX toxoids because these are difficult to get expression of them in-vitro.
C) are not commonly used in modern intensive swine herds.
D) May be used to help stabilize a sow herd during an outbreak

46
Q

Streptococcus suis infections can be partially controlled by which of the following?
A) Pre-farrow immunization of gilts and sows
B) Segregated early weaning.
C) Medicated early weaning
D) Only A and C above
E) Only B and C above

A

D) Only A and C above

A) Pre-farrow immunization of gilts and sows - helps protect piglets for the first few weeks.
C) Medicated early weaning

SEW has failed.

47
Q

Shaker pig syndrome:
A) Is caused by a Coronavirus infection prior to 60 days of gestation
B) Can be so severe that pigs can’t nurse
C) Can only be diagnosed by demonstrating pre-suckle antibody
D) Is best prevented by pre-feeding exposure to on farm viruses
E) None of the above

A

B) Can be so severe that pigs can’t nurse

48
Q

Prevention against erysipelas:
A) in grower pigs is accomplished by immunization usually only in summer months.
B) May require re-immunization in the late grower to finisher stage
C) Commonly involves pre-breeding immunization
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

A) in grower pigs is accomplished by immunization usually only in summer months.
B) May require re-immunization in the late grower to finisher stage
C) Commonly involves pre-breeding immunization

49
Q

Pseudorabies:
A) Is now considered to be a foreign animal disease in the US
B) Causes fatal CNS disease in neonates and abortions in sows and gilts.
C) Is not carried by feral swine in the US because it is routinely fatal for them
D) All the above
E) Only a and b above

A

B) Causes fatal CNS disease in neonates and abortions in sows and gilts.

50
Q

What is the most important reason why leptospirosis is not very common in modern confinement facilities?

A

Pre-breeding immunization is standard practice

51
Q

List two important reasons why African swine fever is so difficult to eradicate?

A

No vaccine, large number of feral swine available for transmitting the virus, virus survives long term in meat, ticks and other arthropods can transmit the virus

52
Q

List three important components of a site biosecurity plan in the event of a foreign animal idsease emergency

A

Site map with zones defined, how to limit access to the site, plans for decontaminating trucks, supplies and personnel, validaiton of all site identification and permits, identification of computer and internet communication locations, who on the farm that would be good at sampling.

The site biosecurity plan is established that relatively normal animal flow can be maintained not that the site is closed down and the pigs are under quarantine.

53
Q

In 15 words or less, what is feedback?

A

Feeding infected tissues or feces to sows and gilts to stimulate immunity to infectious agents.

54
Q

Explain the proposed mechanism behind antibody dependent enhancement (ADHE) of influenza virus infections

A

Influenza vaccines that do not stimulate antibody that blocks virus binding to host tissues may cause enhanced viral binding to host tissues

55
Q

List three major methods for prevention of neonatal E. coli diarrhea in piglets

A

Pre-farrowing immunization, sow and environmental sanitation, proper temperature control

56
Q

List the two most common methods used to prevent or control PED

A

Natural oral exposure or feedback. Vaccination of sows and gilts following infection to bolster immunity.

57
Q

What is the most accurate method for diagnosis of enteritis caused by porcine rotavirus

A

IHC or FA on histopath of intestines from acutely ill piglet.

58
Q

List the four clinical forms of disease caused by infection with Lawsonia intracellularis

A

Porcine interstitial adenomatosis, Regional ileitis, Necrotic enteritis, Proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy

Infectious Disease (12 decks)

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