Exam 2- Bovine and Small RMT exam questions Flashcards
Selective metaphylaxis for high risk cattle entering stocker or feeder facilities:
a. Works best when treatment is limited to calves with high rectal temperatures.
b. Has shown promise when treatment was based on chute-side leukocyte counts and differentials.
c. Is not practical because research has demonstrated that 100% of a group of high risk calves benefit from metaphylaxis.
d. Works best when treatment is limited to calves with abnormal lung sounds.
b. Has shown promise when treatment was based on chute-side leukocyte counts and differentials.
Statistics presented in the “Johne’s Super-Shedders” paper stated which of the following?
a. Over 95% of dairy herds of 500 or more cows were positive for Johne’s infection.
b. Approximately 10% of Johne’s-infected cows were classified as super-shedders.
c. Super-shedder cows can be easily detected because they are usually losing body condition and have a persistent diarrhea.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
Only a and b above.
a. Over 95% of dairy herds of 500 or more cows were positive for Johne’s infection.
b. Approximately 10% of Johne’s-infected cows were classified as super-shedders.
The most important part of a preconditioning program for feeder calves:
a. Weaning and the required starting on feed because weaning is the most stressful event in a calf’s life.
b. The vaccination program because every calf gets an immune response to common disease agents before being co-mingled.
c. The vaccination program because all vaccines on the market must protect at least 80% of calves which results in a herd immunity to all the common agents.
d. Parasite treatment/control.
e. Castration/dehorning
a. Weaning and the required starting on feed because weaning is the most stressful event in a calf’s life.
Which of the following is true of Histophilus somni infections in cattle?
a. Almost all disease occurs in the spring months with wet, changeable weather.
b. Disease can manifest as pneumonia, septicemia, or lameness with occasional thrombotic meningoencephalitis.
c. Available bacterins provide good immunity against respiratory disease.
d. Only b and c above.
e. All the above.
b. Disease can manifest as pneumonia, septicemia, or lameness with occasional thrombotic meningoencephalitis.
Which of the following is the most PRACTICAL for identifying all bovine leukemia virus positive cattle in a herd?
a. AGID, ELISA or other serologic tests.
b. PCR
c. Lymphocyte counts on repeated samplings
d. Virus culture
a. AGID, ELISA or other serologic tests.
Which of the following most accurately describes the clinical manifestations of bovine leukemia virus infection?
a. Clinically silent but may affect overall health of the animal.
b. Persistent lymphocytosis.
c. Enlarged lymph nodes anywhere in the body.
d. Vague clinical signs due to compression or displacement of other tissues or organs.
e. Death within 2-3 weeks.
a. Clinically silent but may affect overall health of the animal.
Foothill abortion in cattle can be prevented:
a. By immunization before the last trimester of pregnancy.
b. By calfhood vaccination.
c. If cows and heifers get infected or vaccinated at least 30 days prior to breeding.
d. By using only negative bulls or semen.
c. If cows and heifers get infected or vaccinated at least 30 days prior to breeding.
Which of the following most accurately describes the clinical manifestations of bovine leukemia virus infection?
a. Clinically silent but may affect overall health of the animal.
b. Persistent lymphocytosis.
c. Enlarged lymph nodes anywhere in the body.
d. Vague clinical signs due to compression or displacement of other tissues or organs.
e. Death within 2-3 weeks.
a. Clinically silent but may affect overall health of the animal.
Some states require negative serologic tests of sheep for Brucella ovis prior to entry. Why is this not a logical requirement in all cases?
a. Serologic tests for B. ovis have a relatively high rate of false positives and false negatives.
b. Some western states allow use of a killed bacterin in rams which can make them false positives for infection.
c. Females usually clear the infection within a couple of months but remain serologically positive.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and c above.
d. All the above.
a. Serologic tests for B. ovis have a relatively high rate of false positives and false negatives.
b. Some western states allow use of a killed bacterin in rams which can make them false positives for infection.
c. Females usually clear the infection within a couple of months but remain serologically positive.
Theileria orientalis:
a. Has a mortality rate of nearly 80% in immunologically naive cattle.
b. Is carried by the Asian longhorned tick.
c. Is cleared from surviving cattle after about 2 weeks following initial infection.
d. Causes abortion storms.
b. Is carried by the Asian longhorned tick.
Ureaplasma diversum:
a. Causes severe, erosive and pitting arthritis with synovitis in fetal calves.
b. Is difficult to diagnose even using PCR on affected joint tissues.
c. Mostly causes embryonic deaths and first trimester abortions.
d. Is thought to be a minor cause of abortion in cattle.
e. None of the above.
a. Causes severe, erosive and pitting arthritis with synovitis in fetal calves.
Blood in the feces of a 600 lb feedlot steer would most likely be caused by:
a. Coronavirus infection if the calf is affected in January.
b. Coccidiosis if the calf is affected in January and not on lasalocid or monensin in the feed.
c. Enterotoxemia if not immunized with a 7- or 8-way clostridial product.
d. Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome.
e. Redwater disease if in a swampy area in the summer months.
b. Coccidiosis if the calf is affected in January and not on lasalocid or monensin in the feed.
- (4) A sheep client has a 280-ewe flock that is experiencing a lot of thin ewes and about 5% mortality every summer and fall from intestinal parasitism. The client has 28 acres of pasture available. They have been using two different anthelmintics as a preventive but the Haemonchus contortus is now resistant to every available anthelmintic. Which TWO of the following are the least expensive, long-term alternatives for maintaining the number of ewes in this flock?
a. Provide supplemental forage and/or a little grain during the summer and early fall.
b. Use the FMACHA card to identify anemic ewes, get those off pasture, and cull to select for genetic resistance.
c. Bale the pasture forage as hay and feed it to the ewes in a dry lot.
d. Reduce the stocking density on the pasture.
e. Increase the anthelmintic dose.
f. Eliminate anthelmintic use, let the susceptible ewes die and the flock will eventually become genetically resistant.
a. Provide supplemental forage and/or a little grain during the summer and early fall.
b. Use the FMACHA card to identify anemic ewes, get those off pasture, and cull to select for genetic resistance.
c. Bale the pasture forage as hay and feed it to the ewes in a dry lot.
Which of the following is the least acceptable method for controlling respiratory disease caused by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae?
a. Feeding oxytetracycline
b. Use an autogenous bacterin
c. Improve air quality
b. Use an autogenous bacterin
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction has been a problem
Which of the following is the most common manifestation of infection with ovine progressive pneumonia virus?
a. Subclinical infection
b. Progressive loss of condition, emaciation and/or dyspnea.
c. Starving lambs.
d. Encephalitis
e. Mastitis
a. Subclinical infection
Enzootic nasal adenocarcinoma
a. Is caused by related viruses in sheep and goats.
b. Is transmitted through nasal secretions.
c. Tend not to metastasize but are routinely fatal.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and c above.
d. All the above.
a. Is caused by related viruses in sheep and goats.
b. Is transmitted through nasal secretions.
c. Tend not to metastasize but are routinely fatal.
- Which of the following do NOT need to be identified by flock number for purposes of the scrapie eradication program.
a. Ewe lambs going to a sale barn.
b. Pet wethers donated to a petting zoo.
c. Goats that have been in contact with a sheep diagnosed with variant scrapie.
d. Neonatal orphan male lambs donated to a 4H club.
e. All the above need to be identified with a scrapie farm number.
e. All the above need to be identified with a scrapie farm number.
- A group of researchers developed a sheep abortion model for SA (hypervirulent) Campylobacter jejuni in which third trimester ewes were injected IV with 108 organisms. Out of 10 pregnant ewes in one trial, 4 died within 24 h of injection, 5 became severely depressed and aborted within 48 h and 1 developed a fever that lasted 24 h but otherwise returned to normal and delivered full term twin lambs. Based on what you know about campylobacter abortions, what is the major reason for this being questionable model?
a. Ewes aborting from C. jejuni do not normally get sick.
b. Only 50% aborted.
c. Ten percent had mild clinical signs.
a. Ewes aborting from C. jejuni do not normally get sick.
Enzootic abortion (Chlamydia abortus):
a. Is more common in sheep than it is in goats.
b. Occurs when pregnant animals are infected within 30 days of breeding.
c. Most commonly occurs in the last trimester when the organisms in the intestine gain access to the blood stream and infect the fetus.
d. Is most common in first-lambing ewes.
e. Causes the least severe placental lesions of the common causes of abortions.
c. Most commonly occurs in the last trimester when the organisms in the intestine gain access to the blood stream and infect the fetus.
Prevention of abortions caused by Toxoplasma gondii:
a. Can easily be accomplished by keeping cats away from sheep feed.
b. Relies on punctual elimination of all farm cats.
c. Is best achieved by feeding monensin in the third trimester.
d. Illegal importation and use of the modified live vaccine.
e. Exposure of replacement ewes prior to breeding, ie, keep plenty of cats around to ensure exposure.
e. Exposure of replacement ewes prior to breeding, ie, keep plenty of cats around to ensure exposure.
T or F Vaccinal immunity to campylobacter abortion tends to wane by 3-4 months of gestation.
True
T or F The Protein Misfolding Cyclic Ampification test is very sensitive and can be used to test for scrapie prions in brain tissue.
True
T or F QQ, QH and HH sheep at codon 171 are all susceptible to scrapie.
True
T or F Goats are relatively resistant to sheep scrapie.
False
