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Infectious Disease > Exam 1- Avian and Mastitis Exam questions > Flashcards

Exam 1- Avian and Mastitis Exam questions Flashcards

1
Q

What class of antibiotics best penetrates the udder when administered via a systemic route?

a. Cephalosporins
b. Tetracyclines
c. Penicillins
d. Macrolides
e. Sulfonamides

A

D) Macrolides

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2
Q

The most common clinical severity score of cows with clinical mastitis caused by Escherichia coli is:

a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe

A

A) Mild

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3
Q

Which of the following honeybee diseases requires a Veterinary Feed Directive in order to treat it?

a. Varroa mite infestation.
b. Tracheal mite infestation
c. American foulbrood
d. Chalkbrood

A

c. American foulbrood

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4
Q

Varroa mites:

a. Feed on honeybee fat body
b. Are known to transmit several honeybee viruses
c. Can be eliminated by feeding sugar syrup with Tylocin or Lincomycin
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above

A

e. Only a and b above

a. Feed on honeybee fat body
b. Are known to transmit several honeybee viruses

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5
Q

If a 365 cow herd has a rolling herd average milk production of 32,000 lb:

a. The average cow produces 32,000 lb (about 16,000 liters) of milk per year.
b. The average cow produces about 4000 gallons of milk per year.
c. The average cow produces about 11 gallons (about 44 liters) per day
d. All the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All the above

a. The average cow produces 32,000 lb (about 16,000 liters) of milk per year.
b. The average cow produces about 4000 gallons of milk per year.
c. The average cow produces about 11 gallons (about 44 liters) per day

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6
Q

Which of the following is part of the proper procedure for obtaining a milk sample for bacteriologic culture?

a. Milk the animal first so that one is sampling the milk from higher up in the mammary gland.
b. Prep the teats for milking
c. Discard the first 3-4 squirts of milk
d. Swab the teat orifice with an alcohol swab
e. All the above
f. Only b, c, and d above.

A

Only b, c, and d above.

b. Prep the teats for milking
c. Discard the first 3-4 squirts of milk
d. Swab the teat orifice with an alcohol swab

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7
Q

Teat dips that are applied as a spray:

a. Generally provide better coverage than those applied with a dip cup
b. Generally provide less than ideal coverage
c. Are less prone to harbor contaminating bacteria compared to a dip cup
d. Are much quicker to apply compared to a dip cup
e. Only a and b above
f. Only b and c above

A

Only b and c above

b. Generally provide less than ideal coverage
c. Are less prone to harbor contaminating bacteria compared to a dip cup

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8
Q

Which of the following is most helpful for eradicating lymphoid leukosis viruses from chicken flocks?

a. Only grow genetically resistant hens.
b. Immunization
c. Raise breeder hens in small groups, test eggs for virus and discard positive eggs.
d. All-in All-out rearing with good sanitation between groups

A

c. Raise breeder hens in small groups, test eggs for virus and discard positive eggs.

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9
Q

Marek’s disease virus:

a. Is transmitted primarily through feather dust
b. Is transmitted most commonly by a respiratory droplet route
c. Does not normally cause gross lesions prior to 18 weeks of age
d. Can be eliminated by inoculation of eggs with vv viruses
e. Is only a problem in commercial layer flocks

A

a. Is transmitted primarily through feather dust

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10
Q

Infectious laryngotracheitis

a. Is caused by a coronavirus
b. Normally causes only mild disease
c. Is a life-long infection that recrudesces when the birds are stressed
d. Is slow to spread in a group of chickens
e. Is most often seen in very young chicks

A

c. Is a life-long infection that recrudesces when the birds are stressed

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11
Q

Which of the following is most characteristic of virulent Newcastle disease?

a. Sudden severe outbreak of respiratory signs in the initial disease (coughing, sneezing)
b. CNS signs including muscle tremors and paralysis
c. Hemorrhages in multiple tissues including comb, wattles, serosa, cecal tonsils and spleen
d. All the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All the above

a. Sudden severe outbreak of respiratory signs in the initial disease (coughing, sneezing)
b. CNS signs including muscle tremors and paralysis
c. Hemorrhages in multiple tissues including comb, wattles, serosa, cecal tonsils and spleen

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12
Q
  1. Aspergillosis in avian species

a. Can manifest as respiratory, enteric or neurologic disease
b. Is often associated with moldy litter or feed.
c. Is difficult to diagnose based on gross lesions in the respiratory tract.
d. Only a and b above
e. Only a and c above

A

d. Only a and b above

a. Can manifest as respiratory, enteric or neurologic disease
b. Is often associated with moldy litter or feed.

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13
Q

_________ is a honeybee disease caused by a protozoan

A

Nosema

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14
Q

_____ are said to be the most damaging honeybee problem other than colony collapse disorder

A

Varroa mites

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15
Q

Why is infectious bursal disease most damaging in birds between 3 - 6 weeks of age?

A

Prior to 3 weeks there is some maternal immunity remaining. The bursa is most active at 3-6 weeks and is basically destroyed leading to permanent immunosuppression.

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16
Q

You have a group of chickens that is going through a mild outbreak of Infectious laryngotracheitis and the owner wishes to immunize these birds with the modified live LaSota Newcastle vaccine. What are the chances for an adverse reaction and what would be the nature of that reaction if it occurs?

A

Chances are good that the vaccine would induce a more severe disease typical of Newcastle and or ILT.

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17
Q

__________ is thought to be the source of virulent Newcastle disease outbreaks in the US.

A

Illegal importation of psittacine birds

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18
Q

You are presented with a pet ewe lamb that has mastitis. The affected udder half is firm and swollen and you suspect a gram negative infection. You decide to treat with enrofloxacin due to the broad-spectrum nature and the owner assures you that the animal will not be utilized for meat or milk. Why is this a poor choice?

A

Fluoroquinolones cannot be used in an extralabel manner in food animals and sheep are classed as food animals. Many students wrote that fluoroquinolones can’t be used in any food animal but the real situation is that there is no ELDU allowed. Several students incorrectly indicated that fluoroquinolones are not active against Gram neg organisms and a few wrote that they are not active vs Gram positives. Several students stated that fluoroquinolones do not get into mammary tissue when given parenterally which is incorrect.

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19
Q

List three good uses for composite cow SCC data.

A

Identify cows for culling, grouping (high SCC), early dry off, selective dry cow therapy and dumping of milk to avoid shut-off. The majority of the class did not understand that composite cow SCC data is a composite of a single cow’s SCC data (One number). It does not identify trends, monitor progress, etc. and it only very rarely should be used to decide which cows to treat.

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20
Q

T or F When evaluating milk from a dairy cow with mastitis, one can tell what bacterial agent caused the abnormal milk by the appearance of the milk.

A

False

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21
Q

T or F Teat scrubbers provide a more uniform reduction in bacterial counts on teat skin independent of the concentration of chlorine dioxide used for disinfection.

A

False

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22
Q

T or F Most research studies have concluded that cow comfort does not play a role in the level of SCC and mastitis in dairy herds.

A

False

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23
Q

T or F There has been a relative reduction in the incidence of mastitis caused by contagious pathogens compared to environmental pathogens.

A

True

24
Q

T or F Selective dry cow therapy is adaptable for most dairy herds in the US.

A

False

25
Q

T or F The biggest failure of selective dry cow therapy usually occurs when teat sealants are used without a dry cow antibiotic.

A

True

26
Q

T or F The standard plate count (SPC) does not include psychrotrophic bacteria.

A

False

27
Q

T or F Psychrotrophic bacteria will grow at incubator temperatures (35 C).

A

True

28
Q

T or F When conducting a California Mastitis Test, it is critical that exactly 5 ml each of milk and reagent be added to each well.

A

False

29
Q

T or F The main advantages to the CMT are that it is cowside and determines an approximate SCC for each quarter.

A

True

30
Q

T or F At least one advanced robotic milking system is able to detect individual quarters with abnormal milk and discard that quarter’s milk so it does not get into the bulk tank.

A

True

31
Q

T or F Seasonal changes in SCC are most commonly linked to environmental pathogens.

A

True

32
Q

T or F Peracute mastitis with a linear score of at least 7 is almost always culture positive.

A

False

33
Q

T or F Combining milk from all 4 quarters into one bacterial culture is an excellent practice for identifying the causes of mastitis because it saves media.

A

False

34
Q

T or F Combining milk from all 4 quarters into one bacterial culture is a bad practice for identifying the causes of mastitis because it makes obtaining a significant pure or nearly pure culture unlikely.

A

True

35
Q

T or F Premilking teat dipping is most beneficial for preventing environmental mastitis.

A

True

36
Q

T or F The best way to prevent or control Escherichia coli infections in commercial poultry is to immunize with the correct serotypes.

A

False

37
Q

T or F Infectious bronchitis virus infection can damage the oviducts and lead to defective eggs and poor shell quality.

A

True

38
Q

T or F Infectious bronchitis virus is a coronavirus that can cause severe kidney damage.

A

True

39
Q

T or F Farmed pheasants and quail are more likely to have problems with Mycoplasma gallisepticum compared to wild pheasants and quail.

A

True

40
Q

T or F Using all-in all-out management for breeder pheasants will reduce the problem of tracheal worms (Syngamus trachea) in farmed pheasants.

A

False

41
Q

T or F Treating tracheal worms with fenbendazole is highly effective at the dose approved for chicken and turkey roundworms.

A

False

42
Q

T or F Hemorrhages on the legs and comb along with a very high mortality rate is characteristic of avian high path influenza.

A

True

43
Q

T or F Mesogenic Newcastle disease virus has low virulence and is not normally a concern for poultry.

A

False

44
Q

T or F H5 and H7 avian influenza viruses are almost always highly pathogenic.

A

False

45
Q

T or F Good biosecurity, rodent control and avoiding contact with rabbits are useful for prevention of fowl cholera because avian pathogenic Pasteurella multocida is carried by wild animals.

A

True

46
Q

T or F Commercial polyvalent bacterins are often helpful in prevention of fowl cholera.

A

True

47
Q

T or F Commercial poultry rarely have lesions of tuberculosis but backyard flocks and pet birds are more at risk.

A

True

48
Q

T or F Avian tuberculosis most commonly affects the lungs.

A

False

49
Q

T or F Birds can be tuberculin tested in the wattle or with a rapid whole blood agglutination test.

A

True

50
Q

T or F Avian coccidia are not especially host specific.

A

False

51
Q

T or F Clinically significant coccidiosis in avian species usually is not seen until about three weeks of age.

A

True

52
Q

T or F Treatment of avian coccidiosis with tetracyclines has no value.

A

False

53
Q

T or F Coccidiostats allow some replication and development of immunity.

A

True

54
Q

T or F Pathogenic isolates of avian coccidia can be used as vaccines under the right conditions.

A

True

55
Q

T or F Infectious bursal disease causes permanent immunosuppression in chickens under 3-weeks of age.

A

True

It causes immune suppression in all birds under 6 weeks of age, but the most damage occurs when the chicks are 3-6 weeks of age.

56
Q

T or F Pullorum disease and fowl typhoid must be reported to the state veterinarian’s office.

A

True

Infectious Disease (12 decks)

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