Surgical Specialties Flashcards

1
Q

Pelvic floor exercises better for which type of incontinence?

A

Stress incontinence

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2
Q

First line medication for urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin
Tolteridone

Mirabegron

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3
Q

Which type of incontinence is due to overactive detrusor muscle?

A

Urge incontinence

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4
Q

Which medication can be used in stress incontinence?

A

Duloxetine

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5
Q

If conservative management for removal of kidney stone fails, which surgery is most likely?

A

Shock wave lithotripsy

- breaks stones into smaller pieces so that they can be passed

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6
Q

Detrusor overactivity is diagnosed by which investigation?

A

Urodynamics

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7
Q

Which type of incontinence is due to damage to the pelvic floor or urethral function?

A

Stress incontinence

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8
Q

Stress / urge incontinence has a better role for pharmacotherapy?

A

Urge incontinence

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9
Q

Mainstay of treatment for stress incontinence?

A

Pelvic floor exercises

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10
Q

First line treatment for urge incontinence

A

Bladder retraining (6 weeks)

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11
Q

First line treatment for stress incontinence

A

Pelvic floor exercises (3 months)

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12
Q

Who should not get oxybutynin?

A

Frail elderly women

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13
Q

Ring pessaries are used as non surgical management for?

A

Pelvic organ prolapse

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14
Q

Anti-muscarinic drugs and side effects

A

Oxybutynin, tolteridone

SE: anti-cholinergic (dry mouth, constipation)

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15
Q

When are urodynamics needed?

A

When there is diagnostic uncertainty

When there are plans for surgery

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16
Q

Sympathetics dilate/constrict the pupil

A

Dilate

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17
Q

Parasympathetics dilate/constrict the pupil

A

Constrict

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18
Q

Fixed pin point pupil makes you think

A

Opioid toxicity

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19
Q

Fixed dilated pupil makes you think pathology of which CN?

A

CN III

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20
Q

Blink reflex

  • afferent arm
  • efferent arm
A

Afferent arm : CNV1

Efferent arm : CNVII

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21
Q

Pupillary light reflex

  • afferent arm
  • efferent arm
A

Afferent arm : CN II

Efferent arm : CN III (constriction bilaterally)

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22
Q

Lacrimal gland is under sympathetic/parasympathetic control and is supplied by which CN ?

A

Parasympathetic

CN VII

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23
Q

Eye in “down and out” position. Which CN is most likely to be affected?

A

CN III

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24
Q

Blurred vision when going down stairs (looking down) and double vision. Which CN is most likely to be affected?

A

CN IV

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25
Q

How do you measure intra ocular pressure?

A

Tanometry

  • measures how much force is required to indent into a patients eye?
  • patient given LA
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26
Q

What produces aqueous humour?

A

Cilliary body

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27
Q

if you hear “arcuate scotoma” where is the pathology?

A

Retina

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28
Q

If you have a process where you’re losing ganglion cells in the eye, you will notice the effects in the periphery/middle first?

A

Periphery

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29
Q

An enlarging cup:disc ratio is a buzzword for which ophthalmology condition?
What does it actually mean?

A

Glaucoma

- raised IOP causes ganglion cells around the optic nerve to die –> as they die, see fewer of them -> get a larger cup

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30
Q

Increased risk of open angle glaucoma if you are short / long sighted?

A

Short sighted

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31
Q

Name 5 types of medication for glaucoma

A
Prostaglandin analogues 
Beta blockers 
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolomide) 
Parasympathomimetics (pilocarpine) 
sympathomimetics (adrenaline, alphagan)
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32
Q

Name the 2 types of medication for glaucoma which ‘turn off the tap’ i.e. reduce aqueous humour production

A

Beta blockers

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

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33
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - which preparation is better: oral tablet or topical drops?

A

Oral tablet more effective

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34
Q

First line medication type for glaucoma

A

Prostaglandin analogues

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35
Q

Usual order of treatment for glaucoma

A

1) prostaglandin analogues
2) + B-blocker / carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
3) + B-blocker + carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
4) laser surgery?
5) sympathomimetic or parasympathomimetic
6) surgery (trabeculectomy)

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36
Q

Increased risk of ACUTE closed angle glaucoma if you are short sighted / long sighted?

A

Long sighted

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37
Q

What presents more in the emergency setting

  • open angle glaucoma
  • closed angle glaucoma
A

Closed angle glaucoma

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38
Q

Thumping headache, sick, really unwell, visual loss, often red eye. Gets CT scan everything normal. Someone looks in eye - find abnormality. What is likely diagnosis

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

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39
Q

Management of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

1) decrease IOP medically with IV acetazolomide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
2) peripheral iridotomy (stop it from happening again)

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40
Q

What is the most worrying acute cause of raised intra ocular pressure

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

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41
Q

treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Topical chloramphenicol

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42
Q

Bacterial / viral conjunctivitis is associated with tender pre-auricular lymph nodes?

A

Viral

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43
Q

Unilateral folicular conjunctivitis in a young patient. What do you need to consider?

A

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

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44
Q

Bacterial corneal ulcer (keratitis) investigation of choice

A

Corneal scrape

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45
Q

First line management of bacterial kertatitis

A

Ofloxacin (hourly drops)

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46
Q

Why should you be cautious of using steroids in patient with red eye?

A

If the cause is herpetic keratitis and the patient has a dendritic ulcer, steroids will cause geographical ulcer making it much harder to treat

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47
Q

Which is more common: episcleritis or scleritis

A

Episcleritis

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48
Q

Which is more serious: episcleritis or scleritis

A

Scleritis

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49
Q
Red eye (limbus)
Acute onset
Dull achey pain
Vision may be reduced 
Photophobia
Hypopyon  
What do these symptoms make you think of?
A

Anterior uveitis

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50
Q
Cloudy cornea 
Red eye 
Fixed mid dilated pupil 
Significantly reduced visual acuity. 
Makes you think?
A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

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51
Q

How does aqueous humour normally drain away?

A

Through the trabecular meshwork

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52
Q

Emergency first line management of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

IV acetazolamide - to reduce the IOP

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53
Q

What does pilocarpine do to the pupil?

A

Shrinks the pupil

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54
Q

Surgical treatment for closed angle glaucoma

A

Peripheral iridotomy

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55
Q

Myopia - short sighted or long sighted

A

Short sighted

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56
Q

High myopia can increase risk of what condition?

A

Retinal detachment

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57
Q

High hypermetropia can increase risk of what condition?

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

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58
Q

What carries 2/3rds of the ability to focus in the eye?

A

Lens

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59
Q

What is the commonest cause of blindness in the elderly population?

A

ARMD

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60
Q

Patient with gradual decrease in central visual acuity and then one day wakes up with sudden dramatic decrease in visual acuity. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Dry ARMD –> wet ARMD

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61
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of wet ARMD

A

New blood vessels created to ‘repair’ the damage made by dry ARMD.
These blood vessels leak fluid / blood into the retinal tissue
Cause sudden sharp decrease in central visual acuity

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62
Q

What is the best way to diagnose or monitor ARMD

A

OCT scan

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63
Q

Tenting of the retinal pigment epithelium on OCT suggests

A

wet ARMD

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64
Q

What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis of wet ARMD

A

fluorescene angiography

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65
Q

Management of wet ARMD

A

Anti VEGF injection

- inhibits the growth of new vessels -> decreased leakage

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66
Q

Name 4 causes of gradual visual loss

A

Cataracts
ARMD
Diabetic retinopathy
Open angle glaucoma

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67
Q

Name 5 causes of PAINLESS sudden visual loss

A
Central retinal artery occlusion 
Central retinal vein occlusion 
Amaurosis fugax
Retinal detachment 
Vitreous haemorrhage
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68
Q

Name 3 causes of PAINFUL sudden visual loss

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma
Optic neuritis
Giant cell arteritis

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69
Q

TIA in the eye

A

Amaurosis fugax

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70
Q

Pale swollen retina with cherry red spot at macula

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

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71
Q

Sudden profound visual loss + temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication what do you think?

A

Giant cell arteritis

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72
Q

Treatment of GCA

A

Long term steroids

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73
Q

Paper bag breathing causes increased/decreased pCO2 and therefore vasodilation/vasoconstriction of the arteries

A

Increased pCO2

Vasodilation

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74
Q

Management of CRAO

A

If presents within 12-24 hours

  • occular massage (push to a branch)
  • paper bag breathing
  • IV acetazolamide
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75
Q

Which visual loss is more severe? CRAO or CRVO ?

A

CRAO

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76
Q

Stormy sunset
Cotton wool spots
Dilated torturous veins
What do you think

A

CRVO

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77
Q

What is a cotton wool spot

A

Ischaemia of the retinal nerve fibre layer

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78
Q

Sudden onset of flashing lights in the periphery
Burst of new floaters
Dark shadow in peripheral vision, increasing in size
makes you think

A

Retinal detachment

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79
Q

Which features of examination do you focus on when assessing optic nerve function

A

Visual acuity
Visual fields
Colour vision
Pupil responses - RAPD (swinging light reflex)

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80
Q

Unilateral optic disc swelling - what condition are you thinking about

A

OPtic neuritis

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81
Q

Bilateral optic disc swelling - what condition are you thinking about

A

Papilloedema

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82
Q

MS and which ophthalmic condition go hand in hand

A

Optic neuritis

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83
Q

Patient with optic neuritis, female, young. What investigation should you consider?

A

MRI

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84
Q

Sudden unilateral loss in vision over period of a few days, dull ache pain on eye movements, decreased colour vision in affected eye

A

optic neuritis

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85
Q

Bilateral optic disc swelling and raised ICP. What is first investigation and what are you looking for

A

MRI / CT scan to identify if there is a space occupying lesion

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86
Q

Bilateral optic disc swelling and raised ICP. Ix done but no space occupying lesion found…what could be the diagnosis now and what Ix should you do?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

Ix - Lumbar puncture

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87
Q

Lesion at optic nerve would do what to vision?

A

Unilateral visual loss (on same side as optic nerve damage)

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88
Q

Lesion at optic chiasm would do what to vision?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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89
Q

Lesion at optic tract / radiation would do what to vision?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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90
Q

Lesion at visual cortex would do what to vision?

A

Cortical blindness, macula sparing

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91
Q
Mild ptosis (eyelid droop)
Constricted pupil which does not dilate 
Reduced ipsilateral sweating
A

Horners Syndrome

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92
Q

Patient with double vision -> cover one eye and double vision disappears. This is monocular/binocular diplopia?

A

Binocular

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93
Q

Patient with double vision -> cover one eye and double vision remains indicates

A

Problem with that eye

- ie corneal problem or cataract

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94
Q

Monocular/binocular diplopia is seen with problems with eye movement (ie CN pathology)

A

Binocular diplopia

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95
Q

CN III palsy clinical findings (3)

A

Dilated pupil
Ptosis (eyelid droop)
Eye looks down and out

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96
Q

Patient with sudden loss of vision. What is it important to exclude?

A

GCA

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97
Q

Goinoscopy is used for

A

Glaucoma

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98
Q

What is the leading cause of blindness in working age people?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

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99
Q

What is the management of proliferative retinopathy

A
Later treatment (pan-retino-photocoagulation) 
ablate peripheral retina to preserve the central
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100
Q

A child’s visual system is constantly developing from birth until the age of

A

6

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101
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

Reduced vision usually in one eye due to a degraded retinal period so the brain doesn’t develop the binocular visual pathways
essentially a lazy eye

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102
Q

Causes of amblyopia?

A

Squint
Unequal refractive errors
Obstruction to visual axis: cataract, ptosis

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103
Q

How do you treat amblyopia?

A

Cover the good eye

Patch

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104
Q

Long sighted (hypermetropic) people have a tendency for eyes to point inwards/outwards?

A

Inwards

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105
Q

4 year old boy presents with 1 week Hx convergent squint and vomiting ++. What are you worried about?

A

Raised intra cranial pressure

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106
Q

Which CN palsy (3,4, or 6) makes you most worried about raised intra cranial pressure?

A

CN 6 palsy (esp if bilateral)

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107
Q
Patient with ?papilloedema 
- bilateral CN VI palsy 
- vomiting 
- swollen optic discs
What is your investigation of choice?
A

Urgent CT

- look for dilated ventricles

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108
Q

Why should infant with no red reflex be referred urgently?

A

?retinoblastoma

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109
Q

Retinoblastoma is most common eye cancer in childhood. True or false?

A

True

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110
Q

What would an iris coloboma look like?

A

Think madelline mccann
Area of iris is missing
Key hole defect

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111
Q

Absent red reflex but instead a yellow reflex completely filling the pupil. What does this make you think of?

A

Retinoblastoma

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112
Q

14 month toddler, normal visual development up until 12 months, then stopped walking and was becoming more distressed, couldn’t see food on plate. What does this make you think?

A

Congenital cataract

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113
Q

What are the 2 main causes of sticky eyes in infancy?

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum (conjunctivitis occurring in first 28 days from birth)

Blocked nasolacrimal duct

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114
Q

Commonest cause of ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Picked up from maternal STI when passing through the birth canal

  • gonococcal cause presents quickest
  • chlamydial cause presents 2 weeks post birth
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115
Q

Management of ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Swabs
Azithromycin
Contact tracing for mother

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116
Q

Sticky + watery + white uninflammed eye from 2 months. What is likely diagnosis?

A

Blocked nasolacrimal duct

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117
Q

What investigation is done if ?blocked nasolacrimal duct?

A

Fluorescene dye

  • should be seen in nostrils
  • confirms diagnosis if the dye is picked up around the eye
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118
Q

Management of blocked nasolacrimal duct

A

DO nothing

- resist prescribing topical antibiotics

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119
Q

How are most convergent squints treated

A

Glasses

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120
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a 21 year old male, with a longstanding female partner who presents with conjunctivitis and urethritis?
How would you treat this patient?

A

Reiters syndrome likely

antibiotics

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121
Q

How do you treat amblyopia if patient doesn’t tolerate patch?

A

Atropine 1% in good eye

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122
Q

Latent squint always affects both eyes. True or false?

A

True

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123
Q

Management of paediatric squint

A

Maximise visual acuity
- correct refractive error
- treat amblyopia
THEN surgery if required

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124
Q

flexible/rigid uteroscope is used to get stones from the kidney?

A

Flexible - so it can move into the calyces

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125
Q

Flexible/rigid uteroscope is used to get stones from the ureter?

A

Rigid

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126
Q

What is cystoscopy used for?

A

Follow up bladder cancer

Investigate ?bladder cancer

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127
Q

Name some LUTS

Voiding AND Storage

A

Voiding

  • difficulty initiating
  • poor stream
  • post micturation dribble

Storage

  • frequency
  • urgency
  • nocturia
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128
Q

Patient with white patches where foreskin usually contracts and bleeding. What is the likely diagnosis and management?

A

Diagnosis: balantitis xerotica obliterans

Management: Circumcision

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129
Q

BPH usually occurs in which zone of prostate?

A

Transitional zone (central)

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130
Q

Elderly male patient with LUTS. What examination do you do?

A

PR exam

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131
Q

Name 2 medications used to manage BPH (and their MOA)

A

Tamsulosin (alpha blocker - better flow)

Finasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitor - shrinks prostate)

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132
Q

Which surgical procedure is carried out for BPH

A

TURP

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133
Q

Name 2 possible complications of BPH

A

Acute urinary retention

UTI

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134
Q

Name 2 risk factors for bladder cancer

A

Dye/chemical exposure, smoking

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135
Q

Painless frank haematuria. No other symptoms. What are you worried about?

A

Bladder cancer

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136
Q

In which region of the bladder does bladder cancer usually occur?

A

Trigone

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137
Q

Patient with painless haematuria. Which investigations do you want to carry out?

A

Urinalysis
Bloods
Flexible cystoscopy
CT urogram

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138
Q

Patient with painless haematuria. Flexible cystoscopy reveals an area which is potentially malignant. What do you do?

A

Rigid cystoscopy + biopsy

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139
Q

Management of bladder cancer (including follow up) in LOW risk patients

A

Transurethral bladder resection

Follow up with cystoscopy for ?3 years

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140
Q

Management of bladder cancer (including follow up) in HIGH risk patients

A

Transurethral bladder resection
Follow up with cystoscopy for 10 years
BCG injection

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141
Q

Which Vaccination helps reduce the recurrence of bladder cancer?

A

BCG

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142
Q

Management of bladder cancer if patient is not fit for surgery

A

external beam radiotherapy

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143
Q

Bladder cancer has a HIGH/LOW recurrence rate?

A

High

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144
Q

Which zone of prostate is it most common to get prostate cancer?

A

Peripheral zone

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145
Q

LUTS, haematospermia, weight loss, bone pain makes you think

A

Prostate cancer (advanced)

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146
Q

Suspect prostate cancer, which examination is done?

A

PR exam

- hard, craggy, irregular mass

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147
Q

Patient with ?prostate cancer, which investigations are valuable?

A

PSA

Trans rectal US guided prostate biopsy

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148
Q

PSA is a good diagnostic test. True or false?

A

False

- but it is good for monitoring

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149
Q

Scoring system used for prostate cancer (and breakdown)

A

Gleason score

  • score < 6 - low risk
  • score 6-7 - intermediate risk
  • score 8-10 - high risk
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150
Q

Treatment of low risk prostate cancer

A

radical prostatectomy + radical radiotherapy

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151
Q

Treatment of intermediate risk prostate cancer

A

Radical prostatectomy + external beam radiotherapy + hormone therapy (LHRH agonist)

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152
Q

Penile cancer - common in young/elderly males?

A

Elderly

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153
Q

Elderly male with phimosis, raised red area of penis, red velvety patches on glans of penis. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Penile cancer (SCC)

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154
Q

What is the investigation of choice for penile cancer

A

US

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155
Q

Testicular cancer - common in young/elderly male?

A

Young

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156
Q

What are the 2 broad categories of testicular tumours

A

Seminoma

Non-seminoma (yolk sac, teratoma)

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157
Q

Testicular tumour with solid homogenous pale macroscopic appearance

A

Seminoma

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158
Q

Which is more likely to spread: seminoma / non-seminoma?

A

Non-seminoma

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159
Q

Investigation of choice for ?testicular cancer?

A

US

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160
Q
Which tumour marker is raised in non-seminoma but NOT seminoma? 
PLAP
B-HCG 
AFP 
LDH
A

AFP

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161
Q
Which tumour marker is raised in yolk sac tumours (non-seminoma) ? 
PLAP
B-HCG 
AFP 
LDH
A

AFP

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162
Q

Which lymph nodes to testicular tumours typically spread to

A

Para aortic / aortocaval

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163
Q

Which is more RADIOsensitive: seminoma / non-seminoma

A

Seminoma

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164
Q

Which is more CHEMOsensitive: seminoma / non-seminoma

A

Non-seminoma

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165
Q

Define hydronephrosis

A

Back pressure of urine into the kidneys due to dilatation of ureters
- urine back pressure into the calyces compresses the nephrons within the medullary pyramids resulting in renal failure

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166
Q

Management of hydronephrosis?

A

Nephrostomy

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167
Q

Patient develops AKI after treatment of hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Renal artery stenosis

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168
Q

What is the management of acute urinary retention?

A

Catheterise

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169
Q

Foetus with small break in nose, low lying ears, regressing jaw. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Potter’s syndrome

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170
Q

Name 5 causes of frank haematuria

A
Tumours (Bladder cancer, renal cell cancer,  prostate cancer) 
Infection 
Stones 
Trauma 
Polycystic kidneys
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171
Q

What are the 2 best investigations to investigate frank haematuria

A

Flexible cystoscopy

CT urogram

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172
Q

Which medications (3) can look like patient is having haematuria

A

Nitrofurantoin
Anticoagulation
Rifampicin

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173
Q

Blood clots in urine

- long and worm like VS shapeless

A

Long and worm like - think upper urinary tract

shapeless - think lower urinary tract

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174
Q

What is the first line investigation if there is frank haematuria in over 50 year olds?

A

CT urogram

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175
Q

Best imaging Ix to look for stones

A

Plain CT scan

176
Q

If you have a blocked nose you tend to have more problems in the lungs. True or false?

A

True

- nose is a protector of the respiratory tract so if blocked, more likely to have infections

177
Q

What are the 2 top investigations for allergic rhinitis ?

A

RAST (specific IgE levels)

Skin prick testing

178
Q

Which 2 immune things cause allergic rhinitis?

A

Histamine

Leukotrienes

179
Q

Name 2 antihistamines used in the treatment of allergic rhinitis

A

Certirizine

Loratidine

180
Q

Name 1 leukotriene receptor antagonist used in allergic rhinitis

A

Montelukast

181
Q

Steroids are used in the treatment of allergic rhinitis. True or false?

A

True

- they are very effective

182
Q

In which part of the cell do steroids work?

A

Nucleus

183
Q

If a patient has an allergic rhinitis, GP has a look and refers to ENT because they see a ‘polyp’. What is is most likely to be?

A

Inferior turbinate, not a polyp

184
Q

What is first line analgesia indicated for severe renal colic?

A

IM NSAIDs

185
Q

FIrst line investigation of choice for patients presenting with suspected renal colic?

A

Non contrast CT KUB

186
Q

28 y/o male presents with swelling within left scrotum., which aches when he stands. O/E: swelling is not tender and feels like a bag of worms. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Varicocele

- more common in left

187
Q

Painless scrotal swelling which transilluminates. Does this make your suspicion of testicular cancer increase or decrease?

A

Decrease

- more likely to be fluid (eg hydrocele or epididymal cyst)

188
Q

Bladder US requires a full / empty bladder?

A

Full

- easier to assess outline

189
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for local staging of bladder wall tumours?

A

MRI scan

190
Q

Which investigation is good for detecting renal artery stenosis?

A

MR angiogram

191
Q

Initial imaging of choice for ?prostate tancer

A

US

- Trans rectal US + biopsy

192
Q

Imaging for staging of prostate cancer

A

MRI

193
Q

What are the 3 anatomical sites of ureteric constriction (ie where are you most likely to get renal calculi)

A

Pelviureteric junction
Pelvic brim - Where ureter crosses over anterior aspect of common iliac artery
Ureteric orifice

194
Q
Colicky loin -> groin pain 
Can't lie still
Frank haematuria 
may have co-existing UTI
What does this make you think of?
A

Renal colic

195
Q

What is the investigation of choice for urinary tract calculi?

A

CT non contrast

- so this is safe in patients with renal impairment

196
Q

Initial management of urinary tract calculi?

A

IM/IV diclofenac (NSAID) for analgesia
fluids
antibiotics if UTI present

197
Q

Patient has a stone over 5mm with pain not resolving with analgesics. What do you do?

A

Tamsulosin
Nifedipine
These tablets promote expulsion

198
Q

Management of patient with a large stone they are unable to pass using medical therapies / if stone not passed in 1 month (2)

A

Shockwave lithotripsy

Uteroscopy with basket

199
Q

Severe suprapubic pain

O/E: distended, palpable bladder, dull to percussion

A

Acute urinary retention

200
Q

2 options for management of upper urinary tract obstruction

A

Ureteric stent

Nephrostomy

201
Q

Name 4 causes of acute urinary retention

A

Prostatic obstruction
Urethral stricture
infection
carcinoma

202
Q

Immedicate management of acute urinary retention (2)

A
Suprapubic catheter 
Alpha blocker (tamsulosin)
203
Q

Schistasomiasis inreases your risk of which type of tumour?

A

Bladder cancer - SCC

204
Q

More likely to pass small volumes of urine in stress/urge incontinence ?

A

Stress - small

205
Q

Young man wakes up in the middle of the night with extreme pain in one testis, N&V. O/E: testis is high in scrotum, very tender hot and swollen. What does this make you think of?

A

torsion of the spermatic cord

206
Q

Which testicular pathology is an emergency

A

Torsion of the spermatic cord

207
Q

Blue dot sign on mobile testis

A

Torsion of appendix testis

208
Q

Which testicular problem is commonly associated with STI

A

Epidiymo orchitis

209
Q

Varicocele usually affects left or right side

A

Left

210
Q

Scrotum feels like a ‘bag of worms’. What does this suggest?

A

Varicocele

211
Q

Diagnosis of torsion of spermatic cord is required before surgery. True or false?

A

False

- if suspected, urgent surgery required

212
Q

A patient with primary open angle glaucoma is started on latanoprost eye drops to reduce her intraocular pressure. What is its main mode of action?
Increased aqueous absorption
Constriction of the pupil and opening the trabecular meshwork
Reduction in aqueous production at the ciliary body
Flattening of the lens by the ciliary muscle

A

Increased aqueous absorption

213
Q

Which type of glaucoma medication causes growth of eyelashes

A

Prostaglandin analogues (latanoprost)

214
Q

Which 2 classes of glaucoma medication reduce aqueous production at the ciliary body

A
Beta blocker (timolol) 
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (acetazolamide)
215
Q

Which glaucoma medication causes constriction of the pupil and opening of the trabecular meshwork?

A

Pilocarpine

216
Q

what is the most common sight threatening complication of branch retinal vein occulusion?

A

Macular oedema

217
Q
A 70 year old woman is admitted headache and scalp tenderness and reports 1 stone in weight loss over the last 2 months. On examination, she has a non-pulsatile and tender super fical temporal artery on the right side. Bloods are taken which reveal a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). She has no signi ficant past medical history. What should be done next as a matter of priority?
Temporal artery biopsy
Arrange urgent CT 
Commence oral steroids 
Commence oral NSAIDs
Commence IV NSAIDs
A

Commence oral steroids

  • If ESR and CRP positive then given the clinical Hx it is most likely to be GCA.
  • Confirmed GCA is treated with high dose oral steroids
  • only where there is diagnostic uncertainty, temporal artery biopsy is required
218
Q

In cataract surgery there is a corneal / scleral incision ?

A

Corneal

219
Q

Name 2 complications of cataract surgery ?

A

Endophthalmitis

Unexpected refractive error

220
Q

A young child is brought to the opticians with bilateral gritty red eyes. There is a watery discharge. He had recently been o ff school with a cold. On examination, he has some palpable lymphadenopathy in the preauricular area. What is the appropriate course of action?

  • prescribe oral aciclovir
  • prescribe topical chloramphenicol
  • prescribe topical aciclovir
  • cold compress / lubricants
  • chloramphenicol ointment
A

Cold compress / lubricants

- this child has viral conjunctivitis

221
Q

WHat drug is commonly used to treat viral herpetic keratitis?

A

Topical aciclovir

222
Q

Sudden onset of ashes and oaters and a “curtain-like” shadow or veil across the vision are highly suggestive of

A

retinal detachment

223
Q

A 87 year old man visits his GP with his daughter who has noticed he is increasingly bumping into things on his left side and has fallen at home on two occasions. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On visual fi eld examination, he appears to be missing the temporal hemi field in the left eye and the nasal hemi field in the right eye. His pupils are reactive to light and accommodation and there is no RAPD. Where in the visual pathway is the problem likely to be located?

  • right optic radiation
  • left optic radiation
  • optic chiasm
  • right optic tract
  • left optic tract
A

Right optic tract

224
Q

What is the surgical treatmnt when medication fails in primary open angle glaucoma ?

A

Trabeculectomy

225
Q

What is the treatment of low grade bladder cancer

A

Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)

Local diathermy

226
Q

What is the treatment of bladder cancer that has invaded into the detrusor muscle?

A

Radical cystectomy

227
Q

Which is more likely to spread beyond testes: seminoma or non seminoma?

A

Non seminoma

228
Q

Nasal polyps in children are common/uncommon

A

Uncommon

229
Q

If you see child with nasal polyps think?

A

?Cystic fibrosis

230
Q

What is more alarming: unilateral / bilateral polyps?

A

Unilateral

231
Q

Most common location of epistaxis

A

Little’s area (anterior part of septum)

232
Q

Name 4 potential causes of epistaxis

A

Trauma
Tumour
Anticoagulants
Bleeding disorders

233
Q

Treatment of epistaxis (3 options)

A
  1. External digital compression / pressure
  2. Cautery (with silver nitrate)
  3. Nasal packing
234
Q

Treatment of chronic sinusitis?

A

Surgical enlargement of sinus drainage opening when maximal medical therapy (antibiotics / nasal vasoconstrictors) has failed

235
Q

How to classify rhinitis

A
Infective 
- viral usually (rhinosinusitis) 
Non-infective 
- allergic
- non-allergic (polyps)
236
Q

What are the most common allergens of allergic rhinitis

A

Grass and tree pollen

237
Q

How to classify intermittent vs persistent rhinitis?

A

Intermittent = less than 4 days per week or less than 4 weeks

Persistent = more than 4 days per week AND more than 4 weeks

238
Q

Name 2 investigations for allergic rhinitis

A

Skin prick testing

RAST

239
Q

Medical management of nasal polyps

A

topical +/- oral steroids

240
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of sore throat?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (group A strep)

241
Q

Name 4 potential complications that can occur with bacterial sore throat?

A

Peritonsilar abscess (quinsy)
Rheumatic fever
Glomerulonephritis

242
Q

Severe sore throat with grey-white membrane across the pharynx

A

Diphtheria

243
Q

Which virus causes infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV

244
Q

Sore throat, fever, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, malaise, lethargy, rash. On examination white exudate coats tonsils. What does this make you think

A

Infectious mononucleosis

245
Q

Investigations for infectious mononucleosis

A
Bloods 
- atypical lymphocytes (B lymphocytes) 
- low CRP (surprising) 
EBV IgM 
- Monospot test 
- Paul Bunnel test 
Maybe have raised LFT
246
Q

Management of infectious mononucleosis

A

Self limiting

If severe, oral corticosteroids

247
Q

What happens if you give a patient with sore throat antibiotics? (presumed to be bacterial but its actually infecious mononucleosis)

A

Generalised macular rash

248
Q

Chromafin positive gangliomas are usually above/below the diaphragm and produce ____?

A

Below

Produce adrenaline

249
Q

Which is more likely to present with lymphadenopathy: viral or bacterial tonsilitis?

A

Bacterial

250
Q

Throat swab is recommended in tonsilitis. True or false?

A

False

- core species do not always correlate with commensal surface bacteria

251
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat bacterial tonsilitis?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

252
Q

Surgery (tonsilectomy) is only considered if patient has X or more episodes of tonsilitis per year?

A

7 or more

253
Q

Criteria used to differentiate between bacterial and viral sore throat

A

CENTOR criteria

  • absence of cough
  • tonsilar Exudates
  • tender cervical lymphadenopathy
  • temperature
  • age under 15 - add 1 point
  • age over 44 - subtract 1 point
254
Q

CENTOR criteria score 0-1 management

A

Self limiting, viral cause

255
Q

CENTOR criteria 2-3 management

A

Antibiotics if symptoms persist, possible bacterial infection

256
Q

CENTOR criteria 4-5 management

A

Treat empirically with antibiotis

257
Q

Hx of preceding tonsilitis then unilateral throat pain, odynophagia, lock jaw

A

Peritonsilar abscess

258
Q

What is the management of a peritonsilar abscess

A

Aspiration

259
Q

What is the most common cause of noisy breathing in infancy?

A

Laryngomalacia

260
Q

What are the 2 types of benign HPV

A

6 and 11

261
Q

What are the 2 types of malignanct HPV

A

16 and 18

262
Q

What condition causes subglottic stenosis ?

A

Small vessel vasculitis

263
Q

Cancer of the vocal cords is very likely / unlikely to metastasise?

A

Very unlikely

264
Q

Supra glottis tumours spread to which lymph nodes

A

Deep cervical lymph nodes

265
Q

Infra glottis tumours spread to which lymph nodes

A

Paratracheal lymph nodes

266
Q

Salivary gland tumours - which gland is most often affected?

A

Parotid gland

267
Q

Where does a pleomorphic adenoma commonly occur?

A

Parotid gland

268
Q

Name 4 risk factors for head and neck cancer

A

Smoking (elderly)
Alcohol (elderly)
Viruses (HPV and EBV) - younger onset
Betel nut chewing

269
Q

Red flag symptoms suggestive of throat cancer

A
Persisting sore throat 
Hoarse voice 
Change in voice (recurrent laryngeal nerve) 
Stridor 
Dysphagia 
Odynophagia 
Neck lump
270
Q

Head and neck cancer: small tumour, big lymph nodes

A

HPV

271
Q

What is the first line investigation in suspicious neck mass?

A

US + FNA

272
Q

Examining cervical lymph nodes

A

Zig zag

  • medial to lateral using finger prints
  • down anterior triangle using pincer grip
  • along clavicle area using flat hands
  • pre auricular, post auricular
  • occipital
273
Q

39 year old overweight female with soft supraclavicular swelling. US normal, bloods normal. What is the likley diagnosis?

A

Supraclavicular fat pad

274
Q

Neck swelling + dilated veins

A

?SVC obstruction

275
Q

Swollen lymph glands + young patient …

A

Think ?lymphoma

276
Q

2 common locations for HPV cancer

A

Base of tongue

Tonsils

277
Q

Treatment of non severe nasal polyps

A

Topical steroids

278
Q

Treatment of severe nasal polyps

A

Oral steroids

279
Q

What is a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

Benign salivary gland tumour

280
Q

Which salivary gland is most affected by tumour (benign or malignant) ?

A

Parotid gland

281
Q

Which muscle is good for distinguishing between anterior and posterior triangle of neck?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

282
Q

B-symptoms (?lymphoma) in neck lump

A

Night sweats

Weight loss

283
Q

When feeling for neck lump what should you report (4)

A

Where is it located
Is there only one lump?
Is it mobile or fixed?

284
Q

What imaging investigation is good for staging head and neck cancer

A

CT scan

285
Q

What imaging investigation is good for salivary glands

A

MRI sca n

286
Q

Rule of 80’s for cervical lymph nodes

A

80% cancerous
80% metastasis, only 20% lymphoid (ie lymphoma)
80% of primary sites are above level of clavicle

287
Q

Rule of 80’s for salivary gland tumour

A

80% parotid gland
80% benign
80% pleomorphic adenoma

288
Q

Name 2 benign salivary gland tumours?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

Warthins tumour

289
Q

Features of malignant salivary gland tumour

A

Facial nerve palsy
Pain
Lymphadenopathy

290
Q

Thyroid lumps move on swallowing. True or false?

A

True

291
Q

2 most important things to ask in thyroid pathology Hx?

A

Hx of radiation exposure

FHx thyroid cancer

292
Q

Thyroid cyst - what are the TFTs like

A

Normal

293
Q

Investigation of thyroid cyst

A

US

CT scan

294
Q

Multinodular goitre investigation

A

US - benign

295
Q

Multinodular goitre TFTs

A

Normal

296
Q

Hashimotos thyroiditis TFTs

A

Hypothyroid (T3/T4 low, TSH high)

TPO elevated

297
Q

Graves disease TFTs

A

Hyperthyroid (T3/T4 high, TSH low)

298
Q

Most common type of thyroid cancer

A

Papillary

299
Q

Rapid onset neck mass, midline, airway issues and hoarseness. Which type of cancer is this

A

Anaplastic

300
Q

Mainstay of management for thyroid papillary cancer

A

Surgery and radioactive iodine

301
Q

Most common cause of lymph nodes in children?

A

Reactive lymphadenopathy (infectious cause)

302
Q

Congenital neck lumps: dermoid

  • location
  • treatment
A

location: midline, can have a hair in it
Treatment: surgery

303
Q

Congenital neck lumps: thyroglossal cyst

- location

A

Location: midline, moves on swallowing, over larynx and below hyoid usually

304
Q

Congenital neck lumps: cystic hygroma

  • location
  • treatment
A

Location: posterior triangle
Treatment: surgery or sclerotherapy

305
Q

Branchial cyst location

A

Anterior triangle

306
Q

Cystic hygroma is common in elderly / young?

A

Young - present at birth

307
Q

Name top 3 head and neck malignancies in children?

A

Lymphoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Neuroblastoma

308
Q

MEN is associated with which type of thyroid cancer?

A

medullary

309
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer is most common in children?

A

Medullary

310
Q

A patient will be diagnosed to have recurrent Urinary tract infections (UTIs), if the frequency of UTIs episode is at least:

A

3 in one year
or
twice in 6 months

311
Q

Which 1 of the following findings on urine dipstick would suggest a patient is likely to have UTI?

  • presence of leukocytes
  • presence of nitrites
  • presence of blood
  • pH >7.5
A

Presence of nitrites

312
Q

Name 3 classes of antibiotics effective in the treatment of prostatitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Co-trimoxazole

313
Q

Young patient, age 30, with multiple recurrent UTIs. US urinary tract shows no abnormalities. What is the next best investigation?

  • CT urogram
  • CT stone search
  • flexible cystoscopy
  • KUB X-ray
A

FLexible cystoscopy

314
Q

? bladder cancer. Flexible cystoscopy done and did not show any abnormality. What is next investigation?

  • CT urogram
  • Urine culture and sensitivities
  • US urinary tract
  • PSA level
A

CT urogram

315
Q

Staghorn calculi are associated with what types of urinary stone?

A

magnesium ammonium phosphate stone

Proteus?

316
Q

A male patient is admitted with history of left ureteric colic. CT stone search showed, radiolucent 5 mm left distal ureteric stone. His observations are stable and afebrile but pain is persisting and blood tests showed worsening renal function.

What is next step in management and WHY?

  • ureteric stent insertion
  • ESWL (lithroplasty)
A

Ureteric stent insertion

  • over 5mm in size so must be removed
  • worsening renal function
317
Q

When do you use ureteric stent insertion over ESWL for ureteric stone removal

A

If infection or obstruction present, use stent insertion

318
Q

A 60-year-old diabetic male, has bothersome mild to moderate lower urinary tract symptoms, along with erectile dysfunction.

Which of following medications will be the best choice to alleviate his symptoms?

  • phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (tadalafil)
  • 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (finasteride)
  • alpha blocker (tamsulosin)
  • muscarinic receptor inhibitor (tolteridine)
A

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (tadalafil)

319
Q

patient with sudden visual blurring bilaterally and light sensitivity. BP 191/127. On dilated fundoscopy both optic discs re swollen, cotton wool spots and flame haemorhages. What is likely diagnosis and what is first line Tx?

A

Hypertensive retinopathy

IV labetolol

320
Q

Only way air can get into the middle ear is through

A

Eustachian tube

321
Q

What is Jacobson’s nerve

A

Branch of CN IX

322
Q

What is Arnold’s nerve

A

Branch of CN X

323
Q

Name 5 areas that the CN V3 supplies

A
Anterior 2/3rd of tongue 
Inferior oral cavity 
Floor of mouth 
Lower teeth 
Salivary glands
324
Q

What supplies posterior 1/3rd tongue

A

CN IX

325
Q

Otalgia + hearing loss makes you think

A

?obstruction

326
Q

Otalgia + tinnitus or vertigo? where is the problem likely to be?

A

In the inner ear

327
Q

TMJ problems tend to affect women/men ?

A

Women

328
Q

Which is a red flag in ENT: unilateral or bilateral neck mass?

A

Unilateral

329
Q

Patient with otalgia + unusual looking tonsil ?malignancy what imaging investigation is done?

A

CT scan

330
Q

Management of CN IX neuralgia

- unilateral tingling / throbbing type of pain ?

A

Carbamazepine
Gabapentin
Amitryptiline

331
Q

What is necrotising otitis externa?
What is the common causative organism?
What is the treatment?

A

When otitis externa extends into the temporal bone

Pseudomonas aerguinosa

Hospitalisation for 6 weeks IV antibiotics

332
Q

Patient with chronic earache

  • normal ENT exam
  • normal dental exam

What do you do?

A

MRI

333
Q

Which 2 things to do when examining TMJ

A
  1. look at patient straight on and assess symmetry

2. feel TMJ for crepitus whilst patient opens and shuts mouth

334
Q

Which nerves can cause referred otalgia (4)

A

C2 and C3
CN V3
CN IX
CN X

335
Q

How can C2 and C3 spinal nerves cause otalgia?

A

Through arthritis / cervical spondylosis

336
Q

Name 3 ways which CN V3 can cause otalgia (3)

A
Dental disease (eg tooth impaction, abscess) 
TMJ dysfunction 
Nasopharyngeal disease
337
Q

Name 2 ways which CN IX can cause otalgia

A

tongue base tumor

Almost any oropharyngeal infective process (tonsilitis, pharyngitis, quinsy)

338
Q

Name 1 way in which CN X can cause otalgia ?

A

Malignancy or larync and hypopharynx

339
Q

Stertor is caused by obstruction of airway above/below the larynx?

A

Above

340
Q

Low pitched snoring or snuffly sound

A

Stertor

341
Q

In which condition do you get stertor

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea

342
Q

Stridor is due to air flow changes within the larnynx, trachea or main bronchi. True or false?

A

True

343
Q

Continuous noise, whistling in nature

A

Wheeze

344
Q

Wheeze is common by conditions affecting upper/lower respiratory tract?

A

Lower

345
Q

What does normal voice production require

A

Vocal cords need to come together, dring the closure they vibrate

346
Q

laryngectomy vs tracheostomy

A

laryngectomy - complete removal of the larynx, trachea brought to the skin as a stoma, person can only breathe through stoma

tracheostomy - hole made in the trachea, person can breathe through nose and mouth

347
Q

Speech through speaking valve can be done in laryngectomy / tracheostomy?

A

Tracheostomy

348
Q

Airway emergency (eg stridor) management

A

OXYGEN
Heliox (helium and oxygen)
nebulised adrenaline

349
Q

How to secure an airway obstruction - get in above/below cause of obstrution?

A

Below

350
Q

3 options for securing an airway if patient has an airway obstruction

A

Intubation
Cricothyroidotomy
Tracheostomy

351
Q

When may you use a nasopharyngeal airway instead of oropharyngeal airway?

A

Severe anaphylaxis so tongue is swollen and there is no way of getting tube down the mouth

Severe fractures of the jaw so can’t open mouth

352
Q

Cricothyroidotomy is usually temporary measure / permentent?

A

Temporary measure

353
Q

What is used to treat cancer of the larynx? tracheostomy / laryngectomy?

A

Laryngectomy

354
Q

Causes of nose bleeds

A
Trauma 
Tumour 
Medication - warfarin 
Patient's with low platelets 
GPA 
HHT - hereditary haemorrhagic telangectasia
355
Q

Pubertal boy with recurrent epistaxis

A

juvenile nasal angiofibroma

356
Q

Which autoimmune condition causes epistaxis

A

GPA

357
Q

Name 2 principle parts of the body that GPA affects

A

Renal

Lungs

358
Q

If GPA in the nose is not treated, what happens to the nose?

A

Saddle deformity

nasal septum gone.

359
Q

First line management of epistaxis in any situation

A

Apply external compression
Lean forward - so that you don’t swallow the blood
Suck on ice

360
Q

Treating of epistaxis in A+E

A

Adrenaline + lidocane gauze up nose to stop bleeding (constricts vessels and numbs nose) + tranexamic acid
then cauterisation
Then packs

361
Q

85 y/o patient with epistaxis, tried everything including packing but nothing helping. Not fit to go under GA. What do you do?

A

Interventional radiology - embolize

362
Q

Unmasked bone conduction,

A

Hear it in the ear that hears best

363
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss at high frequency

A

Presbycusis

364
Q

4K dip on audiogram, sensorineural, what is the likely cause

A

Noise exposure

365
Q

low frequency sensorineural hearing loss is classically what you get in which condition?

A

Menieres disease

366
Q

How can you tell if you’re looking at T1 or T2 MRI

A

Fat is bright on T1 and T2, bone is black on T1 and T2
Water is bright in T2
Water is dark in T1

367
Q

Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, What do you do?

A

MRI scan to check for vestibular schwanoma

368
Q

Name 6 treament options (in order) for epistaxis

A
  1. external compression + ice
  2. Cauterisation with silver nitrate
  3. Nasal packing
  4. Endoscopic ligation of sphenopalatine artery
  5. ligation of the external carotid artery
  6. embolisation
369
Q

Name the 5 vessels which supply the nasal cavity

A
Greater palatine artery 
Sphenopalatine artery 
Anterior ethmoidal artery 
Posterior ethmoidal artery 
Superior labial branch of the facial artery
370
Q

The sphenopalatine artery mainly supplies which area of the nose?

A

Lateral wall

371
Q

Antihistamines used in allergy are more specifically antagonists of which histamine receptors? H1/H2/H3/H4

A

H1

372
Q

Which symptoms might be caused by chronic ottitis media with effusion?

  • recurrent otalgia
  • recurrent ear discharge
  • hearing loss
  • none
  • all of the above
A

All of the above

373
Q

What would tympanic membrane look like in chronic ottitis media with effusion?
- name 2 features

A

Retracted and dull

374
Q

HPV head and neck cancer usually responds well/poorly to treatment?

A

Well

375
Q
Patient with vertigo episodes 
- last up to 4 hours 
- preceding aural fullness 
- tinnitus 
what is likely diagnosis?
A

Meniere’s disease

376
Q

Which 2 of the following features make quinsy more likely than tonsilitis

  • voice change
  • history of previous tonsilitis
  • change in sense of taste
  • loss of appetite
  • headache
  • laterality of sore throat
A

Laterality of sore throat

Voice change

377
Q
Which feature in the full blood count might be helpful in demonstrating infectious mononucleosis? 
Microcytic anaemia 
Neutropenia 
Lymphocytosis 
Thrombocytopenia 
Neutrophilia
A

Lymphocytosis

378
Q

Sudden unilateral hearing loss (sensorineural) then vertigo later. What is likely?

A

Vestibular schwannoma

379
Q

Prolonged vertigo for a number of days (can last for 3 weeks)
Patient may feel nauseous and vomit
No associated tinnitus
No associated hearing loss

A

Vestibular neuronitis

380
Q

What investigation do you do to confirm if a patient has middle ear effusion? and what will it show?

A

Tympanogram - flat line

381
Q

What is the main complication to be aware of of acute otitis media?

A

Acute mastoiditis

382
Q

gradual onset conductive hearing loss with normal examination findings

A

Otosclerosis

383
Q

Which treatment is contraindicated in patients with otosclerosis?

A

HRT

384
Q

B cells / T cells produce IgE ?

A

B cells

385
Q

Name 2 things which mast cells produce

A

Histamine

Leukotrienes

386
Q

Patient presents to GP with nose blockage. Fixed and always present in Right side. Name 2 possibilities

A

Septal deviation

Nasal polyps in right

387
Q

Patient with allergic rhinitis in GP. How long should they be treated for and what are examples of treatment

A

Treat for 3 months

Avoidance of trigger
Anti-histamines - certirazine, loratidine
Topical steroids - fluticasone, beclometasone
LTRA

388
Q

Patient with hoarseness should be referred from GP -> secondary care if the hoarseness persists beyond ???

A

3 weeks

389
Q
Patient with the following symptoms 
- persistent dysphonia 
- stridor / airway obstruction
- dysphagia 
- otalgia 
- neck nodes 
What is likely diagnosis?
A

Laryngeal cancer

390
Q

Majority of people with laryngeal cancer will need a laryngectomy. True or false?

A

False

- most treated with radiotherapy / chemoradiotherapy / laser surgery

391
Q

Cricoid cartilage is above/below thyroid cartilage

A

Below

392
Q

All laryngeal muscles are supplied by which nerve?

Apart from which muscle?

A

All laryngeal muscles are supplied by RLN apart from cricothyroid muscle.

393
Q

What would happen if the patient had a bilateral vocal cord palsy ? What would they need?

A

Wouldn’t be able to speak or difficulty swallowing

- needs tracheotomy

394
Q

Which nerve is involved in vocal cord paralysis?

A

Vagus nerve

395
Q

What is the most common cause of renkie’s oedema?

A

Smoking

396
Q

Which nerve supplies the middle ear?

And what specifically is it called?

A

CN IX

Jacob’s nerve

397
Q

Management of TMJ dysfunction

A

NSAIDs
Soft diet
Dental guard
Refer to dentist

398
Q

What is hairy leukoplakia associated with?

A

EBV

399
Q

? suspicious lesion in salivary gland. What is best investigation? CT or MRI?

A

MRI

400
Q

Causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss non-genetic (2)

A

Maternal infection

Alcohol/drug misuse during pregnancy

401
Q

Causes of acquired sensorineural hearing loss (7)

A

Presbyacusis (age related)
Noise induced
Inflammatory (meningitis, mumps, measles, syphilis)
Autoimmune (GPA, sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis)
Vestibular schwannoma
Meniere’s disease
Ototoxic drugs

402
Q

Rapidly progressing, fluctuating, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. What is likely cause and how would you treat

A

Autoimmune

  • GPA / sarcoidosis / rheumatoid arthritis
  • Tx: steroids +/- immunosuppression
403
Q

Patients presenting with unilateral sensorineural hearing loss should have what investigation and why

A

MRI

Check for vestibular schwannoma

404
Q

menieres disease is typically low/high frequency hearing loss

A

Low

405
Q

Name 2 drugs which are ototoxic

A

Gentamicin

Platinum based chemotherapy agents

406
Q

Newborn undergoes hearing assessment on the ward and fails. What is next step?

A

Re-test

407
Q

Newborn undergoes hearing assessment and fails, then fails the re-test. What is next step?

A

Brainstem evoked response audiometry

408
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss present at birth / develops in childhood
Retinitis pigmentosa (gradual onset visual impairment)
balance problems
Autosomal recessive

A

Usher’s syndrome

409
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss presetn at birth
Different coloured iris
White patch of hair
What is this syndrome called and what is mode of inheritance?

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

Autosomal Dominant

410
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss
Goitre (with normal or reduced thyroid function)
What is the syndrome and what is mode of inheritance?

A

Pendred’s syndrome

Autosomal recessive

411
Q

Where in the nose are nasal packs inserted in epistaxis?

A

Along the hard palate

412
Q

Patient has ongoing epistaxis despite first aid cauterisation and nasal packing, what is the most common operation?

A

Sphenopalatine artery ligation

413
Q

Patient has ongoing epistaxis despite first aid cauterisation and nasal packing, what is the last line operation?

A

Embolisation with IR

414
Q

Whats the treatment of Bell’s palsy

A

Early high dose steroids

415
Q

What is ramsay hunt syndrome

A

Shingles affecting the facial nerve

416
Q

Parotid swelling + facial nerve palsy suggests

A

Parotid malignancy

417
Q

Which systemic disease can cause a facial palsy

A

Lymes disease

418
Q

What is the treatment of ramsay hunt syndrome

A

Oral steroids (5 days) + oral antiviral (aciclovir - 7 days)

419
Q

Name 3 complications of obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Pulmonary hypertension
- cor pulmonale
- cardiac dysrhythmias
Daytime solemnence

420
Q

OSA and DVLA

A

Must tell DVLA you have OSA

421
Q

OSA and DVLA and HGV

A

Can’t drive HGV until OSA treated

422
Q

Management of OSA in children

A

Adenotonsillectomy

423
Q

Hypermetropia is a risk factor for open/closed angle glaucoma?

A

Closed angle

424
Q

Visual field defect in the macula will be

A

Central scotoma

425
Q

Which of the following fundoscopy findings is a key feature of grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy?

  • AV nipping
  • cotton wool spots
  • papilloedema
  • flame haemorrhages
A

Pappiloedema

426
Q

Myopia is a risk factor for which condition?

A

Retinal detachment

427
Q

26 year old seeks medical attention for red eye. He wears contact lenses, and apart from redness is entirely asymptomatic. What is likely cause?

A

Episcleritis

428
Q

Risks for subconjunctival haemorrahge

A

Straining

  • cough
  • sneeze
429
Q

Treatment of choice for CMV retinitis

A

Gancyclovir

430
Q

Temporal lobe lesions cause a homonymous SUPERIOR/INFERIOR quadrantopia

A

Superior

- PITS

431
Q

AV nipping is an early/late change seen in hypertensive retinopathy

A

Early

432
Q

Branchial cydt
Cystic hygroma

Which is more common in children?

A

Cystic hygroma

433
Q

What is the investigation of choice for acoustic neuroma?

A

MRI scan

434
Q

Patient over 45 with visible haematuria that persists or recurs following UTI. What should you suspect?

A

Bladder cancer

435
Q

Patient with BPH and urinary retention. Has TWOC but fails. What should you do?

A

TURP procedure

436
Q

What does the lingual nerve supply?

A

Taste for the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue

437
Q

What is the treatment of ottitis externa?

A

Topical antibiotics +/- steroids 7 days