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Y4 > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

Name 2 osmotic laxatives

A

Macrogol

Lactulose

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2
Q

Name 2 stimulant laxatives

A

Senna

Docusate

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3
Q

Medication used to treat vertigo

A

Prochlorperazine

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4
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor example

A

Simvastatin

Atorvastatin

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5
Q

Alendronic acid commonly used for which condition

A

Osteoporosis

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6
Q

Name 2 drugs for male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride

Minoxidil

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7
Q

Name 2 drugs for smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

Vareniciline

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8
Q

Codeine is safe to use in children. True or false?

A

False

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9
Q

Name 8 drugs that are teratenogenic

A 
Methotrexate
ACE inhibitor 
ARB 
Carbimazole 
Isotretinoin 
Lithium 
Phenytoin
Sodium valproate 
Warfarin 
Statin
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10
Q

Name 2 drugs contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease

A

Aspirin

NSAID

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11
Q

Name 2 types of drugs contraindicated in CKD

A

NSAID

ACE inhibitor

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12
Q

CCBs are contraindicated in heart failure. True or false?

A

True

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13
Q

Name 2 drugs contraindicated in asthma?

A

B-blocker

NSAID

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14
Q

Which class of drugs are contraindicated in parkinsons disease?

A

Anti-psychotics (haloperidol)

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15
Q

Warfarin interacts with which antibiotic?

A

Clarithromycin

- enhanced anticoagulation

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16
Q

Warfarin interacts with which 3 medications

A

Clarithromycin
NSAIDs
Aspirin

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17
Q

Ciclosporin interacts with which herbal medication

A

St johns wart

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18
Q

Why should you avoid using ACE inhibitors together with diuretics?

A

Hypotension

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19
Q

If a patient has a bradycardia, avoid prescribing which classes of drugs? (3)

A

Beta blocker
Cardiac glycoside (digoxin)
CCB (verapamil)

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20
Q

A HIGH/LOW respiratory rate may be one of the important signs of opioid analgesic or benzodiazepine intoxication

A

Low

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21
Q

Name 2 types of drugs which can exacerbate anaemia

A

NSAIDs

Anti-coagulants

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22
Q

Drugs that should be contra-indicated / prescribed with caution when renal function is reduced (6)

A 
Loop diuretic 
ACE inhibitor 
potassium-sparing diuretic
gentamicin 
NSAIDs
Lithium
Digoxin
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23
Q

First line treatment for IBS

A

Dietary changes
Ispaghula husk - fibre drink (bulk-forming laxative)
Loperamide
Mebeverine (anti-spasmodic)

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24
Q

When diarrhoea is the prominent symptom in IBS, which drug should be used first line?

A

Loperamide

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25
Q

Amitriptyline is second line treatment for IBS. True or false?

A

True

- only use if all first line agents have not been effective

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26
Q

Which class of drug is indapamide?

A

Thiazide like diuretic

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27
Q

For pt with hypertension that is resistant to treatment with three drugs, what is next options?

A

Spironolactone
Doxazosin
The options for Step 4 treatment are (i) low-dose spironolactone (25 mg PO daily) if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/L, and (ii) if blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/L, an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

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28
Q

Don’t mix CCB and beta blocker. True or false?

A

True

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29
Q

Which drug is commonly used to treat hypertension in pregnancy?

A

Methyldopa

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30
Q

Management of acute pulmonary oedema?

A

IV Furosemide 10mg/ml

High conc oxygen

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31
Q

What is the important drug interaction between verapamil and beta blocker

A

Bradycardia

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32
Q

Name 5 culprit drugs for constipation

A

Opioids (coedine, tramadol)

Anti-cholinergics (TCAs, mirabegron, parkinsons drugs)

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33
Q

Name 5 culprit drugs for diarrhoea

A 
Antibiotics 
Colchicine 
Lithium
Metformin 
PPI
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34
Q

Name 5 culprit drugs for dyspepsia

A

Anti-inflammatory (NSAID, aspirin)
Bisphosphonates
Steroids
Metformin

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35
Q

Name some culprit drugs for falls (Dizziness)

A

Anti-hypertensives

CNS suppressant drugs (opioids, benzo)

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36
Q

Which antibiotic can cause hearing loss?

A

Gentamicin

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37
Q

Which 2 types of drugs should be avoided in asthmatics

A

Beta blocker

NSAIDs

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38
Q

Which anti-psychotic should not be used in parkinsons disease?

A

Haloperidol

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39
Q

Oestrogen / progesterone is pro-thrombotic?

A

Oestrogen

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40
Q

Name some drugs which cause respiratory depression

A

Morpine, oxycodone
Benzo: diazepam, lorazepam
gabapentinoids

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41
Q

Name 3 drugs which can cause a tremor?

A

Salbutamol
Levothyroxine
Aminophyline

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42
Q

Name 3 classes of drug which can cause bruising

A

Anti-platelet
Anti-coagulant
Corticosteroids

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43
Q

Name 5 drugs which can impair renal functin

A 
NSAIDs
ACE inhibitor 
Diuretics (furosemide)
Gentamicin 
Radiological contrast agents
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44
Q

Name 5 drugs which can impair liver function

A 
Paracetamol
Statin 
Tuberculosis drugs (isoniazid) 
amiodarone 
anti-epileptic drug
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45
Q

Digoxin is rarely a cause of renal impairment. true or false?

A

True

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46
Q

Donepezil can cause tachy/brady cardia?

A

Bradycardia

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47
Q

What are typical early features of digoxin toxicity?

A

Bradycardia
Nausea
Vomiting
Diarrhoea

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48
Q

First line treatment of hypertension in patient with T2DM of any age?

A

ACE inhibitor / ARB

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49
Q

First line treatment of hypertension in patient of african/american descent?

A

CCB

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50
Q

Treatment for resistant hypertension (4th line) if potassium is BELOW 4.5 mmol/L

A

Spironolactone

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51
Q

Name 3 types of drug that can exacerbate heart failure?

A

NSAIDs
CCB (verapamil)
Anti-arrhythmic drugs

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52
Q

Statins are safe in pregnancy. True or false?

A

False

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53
Q

Loop diuretics - electrolyte side effect

A

HYPOkalaemia

Renal impairment

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54
Q

Gentamicin levels should be taken X hours after the start of the infusion

A

between 6-14 hours

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55
Q

Pt starts statin - what is monitoring requirement

A

Check LFTs at 3 months and 12 months

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56
Q

Lithium levels should be taken at which time after administration?

A

6 hours post dose

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57
Q

Digoxin levels should be taken at which time after administration?

A

6 hours post dose

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58
Q

Name 4 drugs which cause hyponatraemia

A 
Loop diuretics 
Thiazide diuretics 
SSRI 
TCA
PPI
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59
Q

ACE inhibitors cause hypo/hyperkalaemia?

A

Hyperkalaemia

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60
Q

2 treatment options for confirmed PE?

A 
Anticoagulation
- unfractionated heparin IV 
Thrombolysis 
- streptokinase 
- alteplase
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61
Q

Maintenance fluid in patient with renal impairment

A

20-25ml/kg/day
1000ml
over 8-12 hours

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62
Q

Potassium daily requirements

A

1mmol/kg/day

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63
Q

Maintenance fluid in patient without renal impairment

A

25-30ml/kg/day

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64
Q

ANY type 2 diabetic regardless of age or ethnicity should be treated with whihc antihypertensive first line?

A

ACE inhibitor

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65
Q

First line medication for erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil

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66
Q

High TSH level with High T4 level suggests issues with compliance to levothyroxine. True or false?

A

True

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67
Q

Important common side effects of omeprazole

A

Nausea
Diarrhoea
abdominal pain

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68
Q

Which of the following drugs is most liekly to cause exacerbation of heart failure?

  • spironolactone
  • lisinopril
  • metoprolol
  • diclofenac
  • metformin
A

Diclofenac

- NSAIDs increase the risk of cariovascular events including MI, stroke, exacerbation of heart failure

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69
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in asthma?

A

Bisoprolol

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70
Q

Treatment of acute severe hyperkalaemia

A

Calcium gluconate 10% solution 10ml IV infusion

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71
Q

21 week pregnant woman with hypertension. What is first line management?

A

Labetolol

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72
Q

Patient with anaphylaxis. IM adrenaline administered but patient still has life threatening symptoms/signs. What is the next step in management?

  • IV hydrocortisone
  • Neb salbutamol
  • IM adrenaline
  • IV chlorphenamine
A

IM adrenaline
- if patient doesn’t respond after 2 doses of IM adrenaline, IV adrenaline can be attempted by a specialist.

Antihistamines (IV chlorphenamine) are 2nd line treatment

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73
Q

SSRIs are known to increase/decrease risk of GI bleeding

A

Increase

- can deplete platelets

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74
Q

Sertraline and which herbal medication can increase the risk of seratonin syndrome

A

St Johns wort

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75
Q

Which medication blocks the effect of opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone IV

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76
Q

Name a treatment of endocarditis

A

IV benzylpenicillin

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77
Q

Atropine increases/decreases the heart rate?

A

Increases

- used to treat bradycardia due to beta blocker

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78
Q

WHat is the most likely adverse effect of nexplanon implant?

A

Irregular bleeding

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79
Q

Which medication is known to cause bone marrow suppression

- pancytopenia

A

Methotrexate

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80
Q

Fractional inhaled nitric oxide testing is used in which condition and why?

A

Used in asthma

  • aid chronic management
  • aid diagnosis
  • not used in acute setting
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81
Q

Gentamicin requires both PRE and POST dose serum testing. True or false?

A

True

- to monitor for effects of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

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82
Q

In a patient receiving ONCE DAILY gentamicin, it is more important to check PRE/POST dose serum?

A

PRE

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83
Q

Patient started on statin at 3 month review ALT is raised. What do you do?

A

By how much is it raised?

- if it is raised LESS than 3 times the upper limit of normal, continue at current dose

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84
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

IV access established
sodium chloride 0.9% 1000 mL over 1 hour (not too fast)
an infusion of soluble insulin 0.1 unit/kg/hour.

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85
Q

Diclofenac causes which electrolyte abnormality

A

Hyperkalaemia

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86
Q

Amlodipine can cause headache. True or false?

A

True

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87
Q

Treatment of chlamydia in pegnancy?

A

Erythromycin

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88
Q

Name 2 medications that can cause hypothyroidism

A

Lithium

Amiodaraone

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89
Q

Management of acute pericarditis

A

NSAIDs - ibuprofen

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90
Q

When prescribing vancomycin - which blood results should you pay close attention to when deciding dosing?

A

Renal

- creatinine

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91
Q

FIrst line Tx CAP

A

Amoxicillin

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92
Q

First line Tx CAP if penicillin allergic

A

Clarithromycin

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93
Q

Metformin is known to cause

  • weight loss
  • weight gain
A

Weight loss

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94
Q

Bacterial meningitis

  • protein: low/high
  • glucose: low/high
A

Protein high

Glucose low

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95
Q

With warfarin, increased INR means more likely to have thinner/thicker blood?

A

thinner

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96
Q

Name 3 medications used in mild alzheimers

A

Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine

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97
Q

What type of laxative is fybogel?

  • osmotic
  • bulk-forming
A

Bulk-forming

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98
Q

Which drug is most important to lower portal hypertension

  • bisoprolol
  • propranolol
  • amlodipine
  • nifedipine
A

Propranolol

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99
Q

Immediate management of acute AF in unstable patient

A

DC cardioversion

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100
Q

What is te standard infusion rate of potassium?

A

10mmol/hr

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101
Q

First line anti-emetic in pregnancy

A

Cyclizine

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102
Q

Ibuprofen is contra-indicated in pregnancy. True or false?

A

True

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103
Q

How much potassium should be used in Tx of DKA along with 0.9% NaCl if the K+ level is above 5.5

A

None - just 0.9% NaCl alone

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104
Q

How much potassium should be used in Tx of DKA along with 0.9% NaCl if the K+ level is between 3.5-5.5

  • 20mmol
  • 40mmol
A

40mmol

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105
Q

What is the immediate treatment of acute pulmonary oedema?

A

IV furosemide

106
Q

Name 2 examples of VTE prophylaxis

A

Dalteparin

Rivaroxaban

107
Q

What is first line IV treatment of hypoglycaemia?

A

IV 20% glucose

108
Q

Dalteparin causes which electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hyperkalaemia

109
Q

Which medications are typically stopped up to 7 days before surgery?

A

Anti-platelets : aspirin, clopidogrel

Anti-coagulants

110
Q

Whenever a patient has an AKI, which anti-hypertensives are stopped temporarily?

A

ACE inhibitor

ARBs

111
Q

Allopurinol should be stopped during AKI. True or false?

A

True

112
Q

Prednisolone, synthetic steroid, can cause hyperglycaemia. True or false?

A

True

113
Q

SSRI cause hypo/hyper natraemia?

A

Hyponatraemia

114
Q

It is generally advised that THE SAME / DIFFERENT opiate drug should be prescribed for both regular and breakthrough pain relief?

A

THE SAME

- ie if fentanyl regular then give fentanyl breakthrough

115
Q

First line treatment in alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

116
Q

If patient usually on warfarin but stopped prior to surgery. If INR is > 1.5 on the day before surgery, how should this be managed?

A

Administer IV vitamin K

117
Q

Small rise in creatinine after starting ACE inhibitor. What should you do?

A

Continue - but monitor U+Es in 1 week

118
Q

Corticosteroids cause blood glucose levels to increase / decrease?

A

Increase

119
Q

First line treatment for adult CAP mild/mod

A

Amoxicillin

120
Q

First line treatment for adult CAP if penicillin allergic mild/mod

A

Doxycycline OR

Clarithromycin

121
Q

First line treatment for severe CAP if penicillin allergic

A

Levofloxacin

122
Q

First line treatment for SEVERE CAP

A

IV Co-amoxiclav + oral doxycycline

123
Q

Bacterial meningitis 2 Treatments

A

IV ceftriaxone

IV dexamethasone

124
Q

Viral encephalitis treatment

A

IV aciclovir

125
Q

Treatment in epiglottitis

A

IV cefotaxime

126
Q

Treatment of NON SEVERE c.diff infection?

A

oral metronidazole

127
Q

Treatment of SEVERE c.diff infection?

A

oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole

128
Q

Triple antibiotic therapy for GI sepsis

A

IV amox, met, gent

129
Q

When can you NOT give trimethoprim in pregnancy

A

DO NOT give in FIRST TRIMESTER

130
Q

When can you NOT give nitrofurantoin in pregnancy

A

DO NOT give in TERM baby

131
Q

Treatment of gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone

132
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

Oral doxycycline

133
Q

Treatment of syphilus

A

IM benpen

134
Q

Treatment of septic arthritis

A

Flucloxacillin

135
Q

First line anti-hypertensive agent in patient of any age with diabetes

A

ACE inhibitor / ARB

136
Q

Pt with HTN on triple therapy (ACEI + CCB + diuretic), K+ is LESS than 4.5….which agent will you add in

A

Spironolactone

137
Q

Pt with HTN on triple therapy (ACEI + CCB + diuretic), K+ is MORE than 4.5….which agent will you add in?

A

Alpha blocker

Beta blocker

138
Q

Afro-carribean patient first line HTN medication despite age?

A

CCB

139
Q

First line anti-hypertensive in pregnancy

A

Labetolol

2nd line is nefedipine

140
Q

Which class of medications is acetazolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

141
Q

Furosemide causes hypo/hyper kalaemia

A

Hypokalaemia

142
Q

Thiazide diuretics cause what K+ abnormality

A

Hypokalaemia

143
Q

Unpleasant GI side effects to metformin, what do you do?

A

Prescribe Metformin MR

144
Q

2 options for absence seizure treatment

A

Sodium valproate

Ethosuximide

145
Q

2 options for focal seizures treatment

A

Lamotrigine

Carbemazapine

146
Q

SSRI and which drug interact

A

NSAID

147
Q

Treatment of acute dystonia

A

Procyclidine

148
Q

Heparin is safe in pregnancy. True or false?

A

True

149
Q

Why should aspirin be avoided in patient’s taking warfarin?

A

Increased risk of bleeding

150
Q

Treatment of ischaemic stroke within 4.5 hours

A

Thrombolysis using alteplase

151
Q

If a patient is on long term corticosteroid herapy - during periods of stress (ie intercurrent infection / trauma / surgery) what should you do with steroid dose?

  • same
  • decrease
  • increase
  • stop temporarily
A

Increase

152
Q

Pt on warfarin, INR 5-8, no bleeding - what do you do

A

Withold one / two doses of warfarin

153
Q

pt on warfarin, INR 5-8, minor bleeding - what do you do ?

A

Administer IV Vitamina K

154
Q

Which medication is used for thrombolysis in stroke patient?

A

Alteplase

155
Q

In DKA what should you do with insulin?

A

Stop short acting insulin

Carry on as usual with long acting insulin

156
Q

Blood-glucose concentration < 4 mmol/litre, with or without symptoms, and conscious and able to swallow
- what is the management

A

Oral carbohydrate
Oral glucojuice
Glucose tablet
o If necessary, repeat treatment after 15 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 treatments in total

157
Q

Blood-glucose concentration < 4 mmol/litre, with or without symptoms, and conscious and able to swallow. Tried 3x oral glucose but no improvement. What do you do?

A

IM glucagon / IV glucose 10%

158
Q

In patients who have a hypo that are on ANTI-COAGULATION. What is best management?
- IM glucagon or IV glucose

A

IV glucose

159
Q

Patient having hypo with decreased conscious level or unconscious in community
- what is first line option

A

IM glucagon

160
Q

Patient having hypo with decreased conscious level or unconscious on anticoagulation
- what is first line option

A

IV glucose

161
Q

Patient having hypo who is unconscious and in hospital

- what is first line option

A

IV glucose

162
Q

First line anti-emetic in parkinsons patient

A

Domperidone

163
Q

First line anti-emetic in pregnancy

A

Cyclizine

164
Q

First line post op anti emetic

A

Ondansetron

165
Q

Side effect of ondansetron

A

Prolongation of QTc

166
Q

Name 2 first line anti-emetics used in chemotherapy

A

Ondansetron

Prochlorperazine

167
Q

Anti-emetic used in palliative care often

A

Levomepromazine

168
Q

Common routine maintenance fluid

A

NaCl

169
Q

Resuscitation of patient with IV

  • fluid
  • volume
  • time
A

0.9% NaCl / Hartmans
500ml
Stat (15 mins)

170
Q

Resuscitation of ELDERLY/RENAL IMPAIRMENT/CARDIAC FAILURE patient

  • fluid
  • volume
  • time
A

0.9% NaCl / Hartmans

250ml over 15 mins OR 500ml over 30 mins

171
Q

Fluid resuscitation in severe sepsis

A

4-5% human albumin solution

172
Q

The rate of administration of POTASSIUM must not exceed X mmol/hr

A

10 mmol/hr MAX

173
Q

Fluid resuscitation in child

A

a bolus over <10 minutes of a glucose-free crystalloid containing sodium in the range of 131-154 mmol/L is used (sodium chloride 0.9% with or without potassium OR Hartmann’s solution)
o 20mL/kg for children/young people
o 10-20mL/kg for term neonates

174
Q

Which fluid is used for replacement in children?

A

Sodium chloride with potassium

175
Q

Maintenance fluid in children

A

Maintenance = sodium chloride 0.9% or Hartmann’s solution
o 100ml/kg/day for first 10kg
o 50ml/kg/day for next 10kg
o 20ml/kg/day for after this

176
Q

Which fluid is commonly used for replacement if D&V ?

A

0.9% NaCl or Hartmans

177
Q

Which fluid is commonly used for dehydration

A

Dextrose-saline

178
Q

Emergency resuscitation - what is the best fluid to prescribe?

A

NaCl 0.9%

179
Q

When would you use 0.18% NaCl ?

A

Baby with meningitis

- don’t use as FY1 therefore wont be in exam

180
Q

When would you use 0.45% NaCl ?

A

In Hypernatraemia

181
Q

Always use which fluid in resuscitation?

A

NaCl 0.9%

182
Q

Which type of laxative used for constipation in pregnancy?

A

bulk forming laxative first line
- ispagla husk

also lactulose

183
Q

What is the only anti-emetic safe in parkinsons?

A

Dmperidone

184
Q

What is treatment summary for nausea

A

Nausea and labrynth disorder

185
Q

What is treatment summary for meningitis

A

Central nervous system infection

186
Q

What is treatment summary for anticoagulation

A

Type in anticoagulation

187
Q

Treatment summary for constipation / laxatives

A

Constipation

188
Q

Treatment summary for AF, SVT, VT etc

A

Arrhythmias

189
Q

Treatment summary for acute asthma

A

Asthma acute

190
Q

Treatment summary for chronic asthma

A

Asthma chronic

191
Q

Treatment summary for endocarditis

A

Cardiovascular infections

192
Q

Treatment summary for c.diff

A

Gastrointestinal

193
Q

Treatment of dry eye

A

Hypermellose

194
Q

Treatment summary for STIs

A

Genital infection

195
Q

Treatment summary for CAP

A

Respiratory infections

196
Q

Treatment summary for BPH

A

Urogenital infection

197
Q

Which drug that is not one of the 4 C antibiotics, can increase the risk of developing C. diff ?

A

Omeprazole

198
Q

If a patient has been given 2 lots of NaCl already on a fluid prescription chart you should not administer further NaCl for fear of Nacl overload. What should you prescribe instead?

A

Glucose 5% and potassium chloride 0.3% solution is best

199
Q

What is the daily requirement for NaCl ?

A

80 mmol

200
Q

How much Na Cl is in a L of 0.9% NaCl

A

154 mmol

201
Q

What is the daily requirement for potassium>

A

80 mmol

202
Q

0.3% potassium chloride contains how much potassium in mmol?

A

40 mmol

203
Q

Patient on transdermal pathch for HRT but having withdrawal bleeds. What do you do to stop the withdrawal bleeds?

A

Switch to continuous HRT formulation

204
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in peripheral arterial disease?

A

Bisoprolol

205
Q

If both oral steroid and ICS are used in a patients DHx - which one is most likely to cause candidiasis?

A

oral steroid

206
Q

How long should both men and woman use effective contraception for after stopping methotrexate and before trying to conceive?

A

6 months

207
Q

What is best management for nausea and vomiting in a patient with acute small bowel obstruction?

A

NG ryles tube

- drug therapy would have little benefit in this patient as there is obstruction

208
Q

Which anti-emetic should not be used at all in bowel obstruction?

A

Metochlopramide

209
Q

How does alcohol cause hypoglycaemia?

A

By inhibiting gluconeogenesis

210
Q

INCREASED INR means increased/decareased anticoagulant effect?

A

Increased

211
Q

All hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated in patients with current / past breast cancer. True or false?

A

True

212
Q

Someone on long term steroids for RA is ill. What do you do to steroid dose?

A

Double it

213
Q

SSRIs cause increased bleeding / clotting ?

A

bleeding

214
Q

Prolonged prothrombin time increases/decreases risk of bleeding?

A

Increases

215
Q

Which 2 things does raised urea usually indicate?

A

Renal failure

Upper GI haemorrhage

216
Q

Staggered OD of paracetamol, what do you do?

A

Treat with NAC

217
Q

How much adrenaline is given for treatment of anaphylaxis

A

500 micrograms 1:1000

218
Q

HHS management is more common in T1DM or T2DM ?

A

T2DM

219
Q

HHS management is the same as DKA management. True or false?

A

True

  • IV fluid bolus stat 500ml NaCl over 15 mins
  • IV fixed rate insulin infusion
220
Q

Oestrogen / progesterone is required for HRT to protect the uterus?

A

Progesterone (protects against unopposed oestrogen to minimise risk of cancer)

221
Q

Emergency treatment of hypoglycaemia in an unconscious patient in hospital?

A

15g IV 20% glucose

222
Q

High / Low TSH indicates poor adherance to thyroxine medication in patient with hypothyroidism?

A

High Tsh

223
Q

In GP and suspect patient has meningitis. What treatment do you administer

A

Benzylpenicillin -> transfer to hospital for IV ceftriaxone + IV dex

224
Q

In a patient who is on anticoagulation and is hypoglycaemic, which is preferred

1) IV glucose
2) IM glucagon

A

1) IV glucose

225
Q

Paediatric resuscitation fluids

A

20ml/kg over 10 mins 0.9% NaCl

226
Q

Name some drugs which can cause urinary retention?

A

morphine, benzodiazepines, NSAIDs, CCBs, antihistamines, alcohol, anticholinergics, alpha-adrenoceptor agonists

227
Q

Stop DOAC how many days before surgery?

A

2 days

228
Q

Which drugs should you stop in AKI ?

A

ACE inhibitor / ARB
NSAID
Furosemide

229
Q

Which people do you avoid giving adenosine to?

A

Asthmatics

230
Q

Which drug is known to cause thrombophlebitis?

A

Amiodarone

231
Q

Name 3 ways to control rhythm in AF

A

DC cardioversion

Prarmacological cardioversion

  • flecanide
  • amiodarone
232
Q

Which investigation is used as an early indicator of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Albumin creatine ratio

- microalbuminaemia indicates need for ACE inhibitor

233
Q

What are 3 licensed drugs in mild/moderate alzheimers?

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

234
Q

Name 2 stimulant laxatives

A

Senna

Bisocodyl

235
Q

1% (as in 1% lidnocaine) means

A

1g in 100ml = 1000mg in 100ml = 10mg in 1 ml

236
Q

0.1% (as in 0.1% lidnocaine) means

A

0.1g in 100ml
100mg in 100ml
1mg in 1 ml

237
Q

Adrenaline 1 in 1000 =

A

1g in 1000ml

238
Q

How to find overdoses (including alcohol) in the BNF

A

poisoning

239
Q

What do you give first line in alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide

Diazepam

240
Q

What do you give in an alcoholic to prevent relapse?

A

Acamprost

241
Q

Heavy drinker with agitation, confusion, paranoia, hallucinations. What is this and what do you prescribe?

A

Delirium tremens

Prescribe lorazepam

242
Q

What is long term management of ACS

A 
ACE inhibitor 
Statin 
Clopidogrel 
Beta blocker 
Aspirin
243
Q

How to find digoxin toxicity on the BNF

A

Cardiac glycosides

244
Q

Antibiotics used in the management of neutropenic sepsis ?

A

Piperacillin + Tazocin

245
Q

Emergency management of hyperkalaemia

A

10-20ml 10% calcium gluconate

IV insulin 8-10 units in 100ml Dextrose 20%

246
Q

Interaction between tramadol and SSRI

A

Serotonin syndrome

247
Q

Therapeutic drug monitoring: If the peak is high increase/decrease the dose?

A

Decrease

248
Q

Therapeutic drug monitoring: If the trough is high, increase/decrease the interval between doses

A

Increase the interval between doses

249
Q

monitoring requirement for digoxin?

A

Renal function

250
Q

monitoring requirement for vancomycin?

A

Renal function

251
Q

Management of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbemazapine

252
Q

1st line laxative in pregnanct

A

Bulk forming - ispagula husk

253
Q

What is cyclizine contraindicated in?

A

Heart failure

254
Q

Which anti-emetic is typically used for motion sickness?

A

Cyclizine

255
Q

If you are prescribing fluids and patient has already received enough sodium for the day, what should you prescribe?

A

5% glucose + potassium if they need potassium

256
Q

For surgery - what do you do with steroid dose?

A

Increase

257
Q

Oral diabetic drugs and surgery

A

Omit on day of operation

258
Q

You have omitted warfarin 5 days before surgery as suggested. If you check the patient’s INR on the morning of operation and it is greater than 1.5 what do you do?

A

Give IV vitamin K

259
Q

Which class of drugs can exacerbate heart failure >

A

CCB

260
Q

Patients on steroids are at risk of hypertension / hypotension>

A

Hypertension

261
Q

Naproxen can cause ankle oedema. True or false?

A

True

262
Q

When are stimulant laxatives contraindicated?

A

When there is cramping

Y4 (23 decks)

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