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Y4 > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Haemarthrosis without trauma is typically a feature of

A

Haemophilia

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2
Q

Normal/increased/reduced for the following if the patient has haemophilia
APTT
PT
bleeding time

A

APTT - increased
PT - normal
Bleeding time - normal

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3
Q

Normal/increased/reduced for the following if the patient has von wilebrand disease
APTT
PT
bleeding time

A

APTT - increased
PT - normal
Bleeding time - increased

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4
Q

‘starry sky appearance’ think

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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5
Q

myeloproliferative disorders can progress into

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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6
Q

Which mutation is commonly associated with myeloproliferative disorders?

A

JAK2 mutation

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7
Q

Main FBC finding in polycythaemia

A

Raised Hb

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8
Q

Tear dropped shaped RBCs (poikilocytes) are seen in

A

Myelofibrosis

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9
Q

First line treatment of polycythaemia

A

Venesection

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10
Q

Inheritance pattern for von wilebrands disease

A

Autosomal dominant

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11
Q

Haemophilia A - deficiency in

A

Factor XIII

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12
Q

Haemophilia B - deficiency in

A

Factor IX

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13
Q

Inheritance pattern for Haemophilia A and B

A

X linked recessive

- afects males

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14
Q

Recognised treatment for haemophilia A

A

Dedmopressin

Factor VIII supplementation

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15
Q

Philadelphia chromosome is associated with

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

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16
Q

Massive splenomegaly occurs in chronic myeloid leukaemia. True or false?

A

True

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17
Q

Howel jolly bodies - think

A

Splenectomy

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18
Q

What inheritance pattern does sickle cell disease carry

A

Autosomal recessive

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19
Q

Urinary bence jones proteins - think

A

Myeloma

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20
Q

Protein C deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency and factor V leiden are all causes of

A

thrombophilia

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21
Q

What has a SHORTER duration of action

  • LMWH
  • unfractioned heparin
A

Unfractioned heparin

22
Q

Which has better prognosis:

  • low grade non-hodgkins lymphoma
  • high grade non-hodgkins lymphoma
A

High grade non-hodgkins lymphoma

23
Q

Burkitts lymphoma is associated with which infection

A

EBV

24
Q

Pruritis developing after a hot bath makes you think of which condition

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera

25
Q

If someone has microcytic anaemia with profound microcytosis, what do you think?

A

Thalassaemia

26
Q 
Newborn baby with prolonged jaundice and anaemia of unknown cause. Blood film shows reticulocytosis with round red cells. 
Direct coomb's test -ve. 
What is most likely 
- hereditary spherocytosis 
- haemolytic disease of the newborn
A

Hereditary spherocytosis

27
Q

Patients with G6PD deficiency are highly susceptible to developing haemolysis when given which drug?

A

Nitrofurantoin

28
Q

The characteristic triad of

  • splenomegaly
  • neutropenia
  • rheumatoid arthritis
A

Felty’s syndrome

29
Q

Sudden onset of bleeding in a young child after trivial viral illness suggests

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

30
Q

Which of the following combinations of blood results are most likely to be seen in sickle cell patients
Haemoglobin: increased/normal/reduced
Reticulocyte count: increased/normal/reduced
MCV: increased/normal/reduced

A

Haemoglobin: reduced
Reticulocyte count: increased
MCV: normal

AKA normocytic anaemia with raised reticulocyte count

31
Q

Subacute degeneration of the spinal cord with which anaemia

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • proprioception gone
  • can’t balance properly
32
Q

If iron deficiency anaemia present, and you give the patient iron supplement, what is the first thing that should change on the bloods?

A

Reticulocytes

- an appropriate response would be a high reticulocyte count

33
Q

WHat is the test that measures different types of Hb. Indicated in ?thalassaemia?

A

Hb electrophoresis

34
Q

A 7-year-old girl has a history of intermittent jaundice and fatigue, usually occurring just after she has had a cold. Her Dad had a splenectomy as a child. Her laboratory results are as follows:
Hb 90 g/L
MCV 85 fl
WBC 6 x 109/l
Platelets 550 x 109/l
Bilirubin 50 µmol/l
What condition might this suggest?

A

Haemolysis

Probs autoimmune haemolysis

35
Q

Microcytic anaemia. Defect in

  • cytoplasm
  • nucleus
A

Cytoplasm

- ie problem with haemoglobinisation

36
Q
  • Serum ferritin = normal or increased
  • % transferrin saturation = reduced
  • MCV = normal (can be reduced)
    What pitcture does this suggest?
A

Anaemia of chronic disease

37
Q

Which antiplatelet inhibits COX

A

Aspirin

38
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine sulphate

39
Q

What are the 4 Vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X

40
Q

DIC is caused by (examples)

A

Massive blood loss
RTA
Obstetric emergencies

41
Q

Mild transfusion reaction. Is it safe to continue with the transfusion?

A

Yes - but slow it down

42
Q

Best place to take bone marrow biopsy in a child

A

Tibia

43
Q

Best place to take bone marrow biopsy in a young adult

A

Femur

44
Q

Best place to take bone marrow biopsy in an adult

A

PSIS

Sternum

45
Q

Patient with recurrent nose bleeds and infections after chemotherapy. Which type of anaemia?

A

Aplastic anaemia

46
Q

What do burr cells indicate

A

Uraemia

47
Q

Howel jolly bodies

  • hypersplenism
  • hyposplenism
A

Hyposplenism

48
Q

Philadelphia chromosome with which leukaemia

A

CML

49
Q

severe itch after hot bath think

A

Polycythaeia rubra vera

50
Q

First line pain relief for bony mets

A

Ibuprofen

Y4 (23 decks)

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