Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia?

A

MRSA or MSSA

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2
Q

You should consider changing a peripheral venous catheter (line) if it has been in situ for over ___ hours?

A

Over 72 hours

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3
Q

When looking at blood culture bottles, the bottom ‘sediment’ should be what colour? Greenish or Orange

A

Greenish

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4
Q

What is important to remember when filling blood culture bottles?

A

Make sure the bottles are kept upright

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5
Q

What should you take first - blood cultures or blood samples?

A

Blood cultures

- taking blood samples first would increase the risk of contamination

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6
Q

Blood cultures should aim to be taken before/after initiation of antibiotic therapy?

A

Before antibiotics are administered

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7
Q

If patient has started antibiotics before blood cultures are taken, when is the best time to take blood cultures?

A

Immediately before the next dose of antibiotics is due

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8
Q

Which class of antibiotics are used to treat atypical pneumonias?

A

Macrolides (clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin)

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9
Q

Bronchiolitis is most commonly due to which virus?

A

RSV

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10
Q

Which investigation is done to look for virus?

A

PCR

  • nasopharyngeal swab
  • throat swab
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11
Q

Blood cultures should ideally be taken at different times. True or false?

A

True

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12
Q

What is the name of the criteria used for endocarditis?

A

Duke criteria

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13
Q

Blood cultures are taken for suspected infective endocarditis but all 3 blood cultures have come back -ve. What is the next investigation?

A

Serology

- for atypical organisms

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14
Q

If there is a clinical suspicion of endocarditis, which imaging investigation should be carried out?

A

Transthoracic echo

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15
Q

Which type of echo should be done initially: transthoracic or trans oesophageal?

A

Trans oesophageal

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16
Q

Patient with red eye, gritty sensation, lots of pus and sticky discharge. Started unilaterally and now spread bilaterally. Vision is unaffected. What is the likely condition?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

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17
Q

What is the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Self limiting

- chloramphenicol drops make infection clear up faster

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18
Q

Patient with bacterial conjunctivitis but the causative organism is pseudomonas aerginosa. What is the management>

A

Gentamicin

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19
Q

Chronic unilateral follicular conjunctivitis is a buzzword for which type?

A

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

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20
Q

Patient with watery eyes that are pink. There is a red velvety appearance of the conjunctiva. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Viral conjunctivitis

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21
Q

Patient presents with a painful eye which is red around the limbus. There is reduced vision and a white lump is visible in the cornea. what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Bacterial keratitis

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22
Q

Investigation for bacterial keratitis

A

Corneal scrape

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23
Q

Management of bacterial keratitis

A

Hourly drops of ofloxacin (must be admitted to hospital)

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24
Q

What is a dendritic ulcer associated with (condition)

A

Viral keratitis

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25
Patient presents with painful eye which is red around the limbus and also complains of reduced vision. There is profuse lacrimation. On examination, there is a thin white appearance in the cornea which looks like branches of a tree. what is the most likely diagnosis?
Viral keratitis (dendritic ulcer)
26
Management of dendritic ulcer
Antiviral (aciclovir)
27
Which medication causes a geographical ulcer in a patient with viral keratitis
Steroids | - avoid this
28
Patient presents with an extremely red and painful eye post surgery. What is the likely diagnosis?
Endophthalmitis
29
Main cause of orbital cellulitis in children?
Sinusitis
30
Child with pain and redness around the orbit. Also has a swollen tender eyelid and mucous dripping out of their nose. What is the likely diagnosis and how should it be investigated
Diagnosis: orbital cellulitis Investigation: CT
31
What is the important investigation to carry out for orbital cellulitis
CT scan
32
Bilateral conjunctivitis in young adults. What should you suspect?
Chlamydial conjunctivits
33
What is the most common causative organism for endophthalmitis?
staph epidermidis
34
investigation for endophthalmitis
Aqueous / vitreous for culture
35
Chloramphenicol is bacteriocidal / bacteriostatic for staph?
Bacteriostatic
36
Chloramphenicol is bacteriocidal / bacteriostatic for strep?
Bacteriocidal
37
Side effect of chloramphenicol
Aplastic anaemia
38
What class of antibiotic is ofloxacin
Quinolone
39
Which specific bacteria does chloramphenicol not treat
Pseudomonas aerginosa
40
Hand foot and mouth disease is caused by which virus?
Coxsackie virus
41
Which patients with sore throats definitely SHOULD NOT receive a throat swab?
Patient with stridor
42
What is the most common cause of a bacterial sore throat
Tonsilitis | - group A strep (strep pyogenes)
43
Strep pyogenes (group A strep) gram +ve or gram -ve Cocci or bacilli haemolysis: complete, partial or none
Gram +ve Cocci Complete haemolysis
44
Why should you be careful with carbimazole
It can cause neutropenia
45
Name 3 things which can cause neutropenia
Carbimazole Chemotherapy HIV with low CD4 count
46
Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is caused by which virus?
EBV
47
What is the management of infectious mononucleosis?
Selt limiting | - steroids if very severe
48
Investigations for infectious mononucleosis
EBV IgM monospot test paul bunnell test
49
CMV and infectious mononucleosis present similarly. What is the difference to differentiate them by investigation
In CMV - negative monospot test - negative paul bunnell test - fewer atypical lymphocytes
50
Name 3 causes of candida in the mouth
post antibiotics immunosuppressed inhaled steroids
51
Management of candida
Fluconazole
52
You should swab pus in acute ottitis media. True or false?
False | - only do this if the eardrum has perforated
53
Management of ottitis media
In first 4 days - self limiting If over 4 days - first line: amoxicillin - second line: erythromycin
54
What is usually the causative organism of malignant ottitis?
Pseudomonas aerginosa
55
What is malignant ottitis?
Extension of otitis externa into the nearby bones (temporal, mastoid) and causes osteomyelitis
56
Name 3 bacterial causes of ottitis externa
Staph aureus Proteus Pseudomonas aerginosa
57
You should use topical / oral antibiotics for treatment of ottitis media?
Topical
58
Persisting sinusitis infection over 10 days. Which antibiotic is used to treat?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
59
Which criteria is used for differentiating viral vs bacterial tonsilitis
centor criteria
60
What is the management of bacterial tonsilitis
Penicillin
61
Bacterial meningitis - which types of cells will be present
Abundant neutrophils
62
Which antibiotic is used in bacterial meningitis
2b IV ceftriaxone BD
63
Management of bacterial meningitis
IV ceftriaxone 2g IV BD | IV dexamethasone 10mg QDS
64
Patient has bacterial meningitis. They have been started on ceftriaxone at 0800. At 2200 that evening, the doctor goes to prescribe dexamethasone. Is this ok and why>
No, if dexamethasone hasnt been started within first 12 hours of antibiotic therapy then don't include it
65
What is the purpose of using dexamethasone in the treatment of bacterial meningitis?
It is used to cover pneumococcal organism. If the organism comes back and IS pneumococcal, continue dexamethasone for 4 days. If the organism comes back and is a DIFFERENT ORGANISM, stop dexamethasone
66
Patient with a gradual onset of stupor and confusion. What is the likely diagnosis?
encephalitis
67
Management of encephalitis
IV aciclovir
68
Meningitis clinical features
``` Severe Headache Neck stiffness Non blanching rash N+V Confusion Drowsy Severe muscle pain ```
69
Age 10-21, what is the most likely organism causing bacterial meningitis?
Neiserria meningitides
70
Age over 21, what is the most likely organism causing bacterial meningitis?
Strep pneumoniae | then Neiserria meningitides
71
Patient having neurosurgery and gets bacterial meningitis. What is the most likely causative organism?
Staph aureus
72
Patient has fractured cribriform ethmoid plate and gets bacterial meningitis. What is the most likely cause?
Strep pneumoniae
73
Patient has basilar skull fracture and gets bacterial meningitis. What is the most likely causative organism?
Strep pneumoniae
74
Most common causative organism of bacterial meningitis in children under 4 years old?
Haemophilus influenzae B
75
antibiotic of choice for treatment of listeria infection?
Amoxicillin | or Ampicillin
76
For meningitis, in which patients is penicillin resistant pneumococci a posibility?
Travelers | - give them prophylactic IV vancomycin or PO rifampicin
77
Treatment of bacterial meningitis in a patient who is allergic to ceftriaxone?
Chloramphenicol
78
Every patient with suspected bacterial meningitis should get a lumbar puncture. true or false?
False | - only if clinically feasible
79
Typical CSF findings for bacterial meningitis - predominant cells - WBC count (high/low) - protein (high/low) - glucose (high/low)
abundant neutrophils WBC = high Protein = high Glucose = low
80
Typical CSF findings for viral meningitis - predominant cells - protein (high/low) - glucose (high/low)
lymphocytes protein = normal, maybe slightly high glucose = normal
81
Typical CSF findings for TB meningitis
lymphocytes protein = very high glucose = low
82
Provided the patient's airway, breathing and circulation are under control, what is the initial management of meningitis in the hospital setting?
Blood for blood culture Initial Tx (ceftriaxone, dexamethasone) Throat swab
83
Some patients need to undergo CT prior to lumbar puncture. Which patient groups are these?
``` Immunocompromised patients Hx CNS disease New onset seizure Papilloedema Focal neurological deficit ```
84
In bacterial meningitis, which should be given first....antibiotics or lumbar puncture?
Antibiotics first | - if LP will be performed under 30 mins then can do LP first. otherwise, antibiotics first
85
Management of bacterial meningitis in patients with GCS < 12 or fluctuating consciousness levels
``` Secure airway high flow oxygen IV 2g ceftriaxone IV dexamethasone 10mg DO NOT WAIT FOR CT / LP ```
86
All clinically suspected meningitis cases must be reported to public health. True or false?
True
87
Contact prophylaxis regieme for bacterial meningitis
PO rifampicin 600mg 12-hourly for 4 doses
88
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram negative bacilli. true or false?
True
89
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a coliform. True or false?
False
90
Best antibiotic to treat a pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
Ciprofloxacin
91
Ciprofloxacin is safe / unsafe to use in pregnant woman
unsafe
92
Which 2 groups of people should you NOT do urinalysis on
Elderly patients | Catheterised patients
93
In urinalysis (dipstick urine), what features point towards a UTI diagnosis
``` Leukocyte esterase (indicates presence of WBC) Nitrites (indicates presence of bacteria in urine) ```
94
Urine microscopy is a common investigation for UTI. True or false?
False | - only in selected (urgent) cases
95
Over 10 to the power ?? of organisms/ml urine suggests a probable UTI
Over 10 to the power 5 (10^5)
96
For a lower UTI, ideally the antibiotic used should be excreted where ?
Excreted in the Urine
97
What is abacterial cystitis
Patient has symptoms of Lower UTI | No organisms grown on culture
98
Define asymptomatic bacteruria
Over 10^5 organisms/ml urine present | Patient is asymptomatic
99
Antibiotic treatment is required for asymptomatic bacteruria. True or false?
False | - not required
100
Which one group of patients requires antibiotic treatment for asymptomatic bacteruria?
Pregnant woman
101
Gentamicin is safe / unsafe to use in pregnancy?
Unsafe
102
Which UTI antibiotic should be avoided in the first trimester?
Trimethoprim
103
Which antibiotic is ONLY for lower UTI and not used to treat upper UTI
Nitrofurantoin
104
What is a c.diff infection?
1. Patient receives antibiotics. 2. This alters normal gut flora 3. Pts are exposed to c.diff and can become colonised 4. A - asymptomatic colonisation 4. B - c. diff multiplies and releases toxins causing c.diff infection
105
Name the 4 C antibiotics
Co-amoxiclav Cephlasporins Ciprofloxacin Clindamycin
106
What is the main risk factor for the development of C. diff infection?
Previous exposure to antibiotics
107
What is the most common bacterial cause of healthcare associated GI infection in adults?
C. diff
108
What is the main symptom of c. diff infection?
Diarrhoea
109
When do symptoms of C.diff usually occur?
Between day 4 and day 9 of antibiotic treatment
110
How is c.diff spread
Faecal-oral route
111
How does c.diff bacteria most commonly get into the environment?
Diarrhoea
112
Where should a patient with c. diff infection be treated?
Side room
113
How should you perform hand hygeine when faced with c. diff infection?
SOAP AND WATER
114
When is a patient considered to be clear of a c diff infection?
if patient has been symptom free for over 48 hours
115
A young male patient has a 3 day history of pain and swelling in his left knee. He is a keen footballer and developed his symptoms 3 days following trauma to his knee. His temperature is 38ºC, respiratory rate 16 per minute and pulse 60 per minute. He has a hot, swollen left knee with tenderness along the joint margins and a reduced range of movement. What is the likely diagnosis?
Septic arthritis
116
In a young otherwise fit patient with septic arthritis, what is the most common causative organism?
Staph aureus
117
A 30 year old immigrant from India with a history of non productive cough, weight loss and night sweats for three weeks. Chest x-ray shows right apical consolidation. What is the likely diagnosis?
TB
118
A 30 year old immigrant from India with a history of non productive cough, weight loss and night sweats for three weeks. Chest x-ray shows right apical consolidation. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate diagnosis that would help support the diagnosis?
Bronchoscopy with lavage
119
A young child is admitted with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea for 4 days. Renal function indicates renal failure. What test is most appropriate to diagnose the likely source of infection? - stool toxin test - stool microscopy - stool culture
stool culture
120
Patients admitted for elective joint replacements (eg hip, knee) should receive prophylactic antibiotics before the surgery. True or false?
True
121
For patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics before joint replacement, how long should the course of antibiotics be
No longer than 24 hours
122
Name 3 blood borne viruses
HIV Hep B Hep C
123
IVDU and phlebotomist gets a needlestick injury. What infection is most likely to be acquired following exposure to this patient? - Hep C - HIV
Hep C
124
Which hepatitis is a common and important cause of liver disease in the UK
Hep C
125
What is the treatment for giardia infection
Metronidazole 5 days