Medications and SE etc Flashcards

1
Q

Potential side effect of furosemide is hypo/hyper -kalaemia?

A

Hypokalaemia

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2
Q

Name 2 potential side effects of spironolactone

A

Gynaecomastia

Hyperkalaemia

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3
Q

Beta blocker increases/decreases sympathetic drive to the heart

A

Decreases

- slows the HR

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4
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose if within 1 hour

A

Activated charcoal

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5
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose if over 1 hour since ingestion

A

N-acetylcystine

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6
Q

Management of opiate / opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

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7
Q

Patient takes overdose of beta blockers which causes bradycardia. What is the management?

A

Atropine

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8
Q

What is the first line anti-psychotic for a delirious patient?

A

Halloperidol

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9
Q

Which cardiac drug can cause widespread ST depression

A

Digoxin

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10
Q

Pre-menopausal woman with breast cancer. Staging suggests early disease and she has a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. Pathology results show that the tumour is oestrogen receptor positive, HER2 negative. Which adjuvant therapy should be used?

  • Herceptin
  • Tamoxifen
  • Letrozole
  • Anastrozole
A

Tamoxifen

- used in pre-menopausal woman when patient has a +ve hormonal receptor

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11
Q

Post-menopausal woman with breast cancer. Staging suggests early disease and she has a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. Pathology results show that the tumour is oestrogen receptor positive, HER2 negative. Which adjuvant therapy should be used?

  • Herceptin
  • Tamoxifen
  • Letrozole
  • Anastrozole
A

Anastrozole

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12
Q

What is the first line medication for PBC ??

A

Urseodeoxycholic acid

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13
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for cellulitis in pregnancy if the patient is penicillin allergic

A

erythromycin

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14
Q

Which medication is contra-indicated in ventricular tachycardia?

A

Verapamil

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15
Q

What is prescribed for patients who present with a first episode of an unprovoked PE (and for how long is it prescribed for)

A

DOAC (eg apixaban)

for 6 months if unprovoked

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16
Q

What is prescribed for patients who present with a first episode of an provooked PE (ie they have risk factors) AND for how long is it prescribed for

A

DOAC (eg apixaban)

for 3 months if provoked

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17
Q

Which dose of atorvastatin should be administered for PRIMARY prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

20mg

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18
Q

Which dose of atorvastatin should be administered for SECONDARY prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

80mg

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19
Q

What is the first line treatment for gestational hypertension

A

labetolol

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20
Q

If someone is biten by an animal which drew blood but no signs of infection, what do you prescribe?

A

a prophylactic dose (3 days) co-amoxiclav

21
Q

What is the investigation of choice for genital herpes?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

22
Q

Diuretics increase urine output by blocking reabsorption of?

A

Na+

- this causes excretion of Na+ and water as WAFS

23
Q

Which part of the nephron do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolimide) work?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

24
Q

Which drug typically acts on the thick ascending loop of henle?

A

Loop diuretic

25
Which drug typically acts on the distal convoluted tubule?
Thiazide diuretics
26
Which drug typically acts on the collecting duct of the nephron?
Spironolactone
27
Loop diuretics cause hyper/hypokalaemia
Hypokalaemia
28
Which type of diuretic is most likely to be used in renal failure - loop - thiazide
Loop
29
Thiazide diuretics cause hyper/hypokalaemia
Hypokalaemia
30
Which diabetic medication can cause weight loss
SGLT2 inhibitor
31
Which diabetic medication can cause glycosuria
SGLT2 inhibitor
32
What are the 2 first line treatments for heart failure
ACE inhibitor | Beta blocker
33
What is the second line treatment for heart failure
Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)
34
ACE inhibitor causes hyper/hypo kalaemia
Hyperkalaemia
35
What is third line treatment options for heart failure
Digoxin / Hydralazine / Ivabradine
36
Secondary pneumothorax <1cm, how should you manage?
admit and give oxygen for 24 hours
37
patients with a primary pneumothorax with a rim of air < 2cm, how should you manage?
Discharge and follow up as out patient
38
patients with a primary pneumothorax with a rim of air >2cm, how should you manage?
Aspiration
39
First line treatment in COPD therapy
SABA / SAMA
40
Second line treatment in COPD therapy (two routes)
Asthma features: SABA + LABA + ICS No-asthma features: SABA + LABA + LAMA
41
Patient on warfarin presents with minor bleeding and INR 4.7 What is the management
Vitamin K | Stop warfarin temporarily
42
Patient on warfarin presents with major bleeding and INR 5.2 What is the management
Prothrombin complex Vitamin K Stop warfarin temporarily
43
First line therapy for mild C diff infection
Oral metronidazole
44
If patient with C diff infection does not respond to oral metronidazole, what should you do?
Oral vancomycin
45
life threatening C diff infection, what is the treatment
Oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole
46
Management of a tension pneumothorax
Immediate needle thoracocentesis
47
Patient with neuropathic pain. Treated with amitryptiline but not working. What do you do next? - add duloxetine - add gabapentin - switch to pregabalin - switch to tramadol
Switch to pregablin | - try to keep monotherapy for neuropathic pain meds
48
What is the mechanism of action of odansetron? - 5-HT1 antagonist - 5-HT2 antagonist - 5-HT3 antagonist - 5-HT4 antagonist
5-HT3 antagonist
49
What is the treatment for Bell's Palsy?
Prednisolone