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Y4 > Medications and SE etc > Flashcards

Medications and SE etc Flashcards

1
Q

Potential side effect of furosemide is hypo/hyper -kalaemia?

A

Hypokalaemia

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2
Q

Name 2 potential side effects of spironolactone

A

Gynaecomastia

Hyperkalaemia

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3
Q

Beta blocker increases/decreases sympathetic drive to the heart

A

Decreases

- slows the HR

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4
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose if within 1 hour

A

Activated charcoal

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5
Q

Management of paracetamol overdose if over 1 hour since ingestion

A

N-acetylcystine

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6
Q

Management of opiate / opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

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7
Q

Patient takes overdose of beta blockers which causes bradycardia. What is the management?

A

Atropine

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8
Q

What is the first line anti-psychotic for a delirious patient?

A

Halloperidol

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9
Q

Which cardiac drug can cause widespread ST depression

A

Digoxin

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10
Q

Pre-menopausal woman with breast cancer. Staging suggests early disease and she has a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. Pathology results show that the tumour is oestrogen receptor positive, HER2 negative. Which adjuvant therapy should be used?

  • Herceptin
  • Tamoxifen
  • Letrozole
  • Anastrozole
A

Tamoxifen

- used in pre-menopausal woman when patient has a +ve hormonal receptor

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11
Q

Post-menopausal woman with breast cancer. Staging suggests early disease and she has a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. Pathology results show that the tumour is oestrogen receptor positive, HER2 negative. Which adjuvant therapy should be used?

  • Herceptin
  • Tamoxifen
  • Letrozole
  • Anastrozole
A

Anastrozole

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12
Q

What is the first line medication for PBC ??

A

Urseodeoxycholic acid

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13
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for cellulitis in pregnancy if the patient is penicillin allergic

A

erythromycin

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14
Q

Which medication is contra-indicated in ventricular tachycardia?

A

Verapamil

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15
Q

What is prescribed for patients who present with a first episode of an unprovoked PE (and for how long is it prescribed for)

A

DOAC (eg apixaban)

for 6 months if unprovoked

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16
Q

What is prescribed for patients who present with a first episode of an provooked PE (ie they have risk factors) AND for how long is it prescribed for

A

DOAC (eg apixaban)

for 3 months if provoked

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17
Q

Which dose of atorvastatin should be administered for PRIMARY prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

20mg

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18
Q

Which dose of atorvastatin should be administered for SECONDARY prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

80mg

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19
Q

What is the first line treatment for gestational hypertension

A

labetolol

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20
Q

If someone is biten by an animal which drew blood but no signs of infection, what do you prescribe?

A

a prophylactic dose (3 days) co-amoxiclav

21
Q

What is the investigation of choice for genital herpes?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

22
Q

Diuretics increase urine output by blocking reabsorption of?

A

Na+

- this causes excretion of Na+ and water as WAFS

23
Q

Which part of the nephron do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolimide) work?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

24
Q

Which drug typically acts on the thick ascending loop of henle?

A

Loop diuretic

25
Q

Which drug typically acts on the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Thiazide diuretics

26
Q

Which drug typically acts on the collecting duct of the nephron?

A

Spironolactone

27
Q

Loop diuretics cause hyper/hypokalaemia

A

Hypokalaemia

28
Q

Which type of diuretic is most likely to be used in renal failure

  • loop
  • thiazide
29
Q

Thiazide diuretics cause hyper/hypokalaemia

A

Hypokalaemia

30
Q

Which diabetic medication can cause weight loss

A

SGLT2 inhibitor

31
Q

Which diabetic medication can cause glycosuria

A

SGLT2 inhibitor

32
Q

What are the 2 first line treatments for heart failure

A

ACE inhibitor

Beta blocker

33
Q

What is the second line treatment for heart failure

A

Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)

34
Q

ACE inhibitor causes hyper/hypo kalaemia

A

Hyperkalaemia

35
Q

What is third line treatment options for heart failure

A

Digoxin /
Hydralazine /
Ivabradine

36
Q

Secondary pneumothorax <1cm, how should you manage?

A

admit and give oxygen for 24 hours

37
Q

patients with a primary pneumothorax with a rim of air < 2cm, how should you manage?

A

Discharge and follow up as out patient

38
Q

patients with a primary pneumothorax with a rim of air >2cm, how should you manage?

A

Aspiration

39
Q

First line treatment in COPD therapy

A

SABA / SAMA

40
Q

Second line treatment in COPD therapy (two routes)

A

Asthma features: SABA + LABA + ICS

No-asthma features: SABA + LABA + LAMA

41
Q

Patient on warfarin presents with minor bleeding and INR 4.7 What is the management

A

Vitamin K

Stop warfarin temporarily

42
Q

Patient on warfarin presents with major bleeding and INR 5.2 What is the management

A

Prothrombin complex
Vitamin K
Stop warfarin temporarily

43
Q

First line therapy for mild C diff infection

A

Oral metronidazole

44
Q

If patient with C diff infection does not respond to oral metronidazole, what should you do?

A

Oral vancomycin

45
Q

life threatening C diff infection, what is the treatment

A

Oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole

46
Q

Management of a tension pneumothorax

A

Immediate needle thoracocentesis

47
Q

Patient with neuropathic pain. Treated with amitryptiline but not working. What do you do next?

  • add duloxetine
  • add gabapentin
  • switch to pregabalin
  • switch to tramadol
A

Switch to pregablin

- try to keep monotherapy for neuropathic pain meds

48
Q

What is the mechanism of action of odansetron?

  • 5-HT1 antagonist
  • 5-HT2 antagonist
  • 5-HT3 antagonist
  • 5-HT4 antagonist
A

5-HT3 antagonist

49
Q

What is the treatment for Bell’s Palsy?

A

Prednisolone

Y4 (23 decks)

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