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Y4 > GP block > Flashcards

GP block Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 common side effects of statins

A

Headache
Aesthesia (decreased muscle strength, lack of energy)
Flatulence

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2
Q

Which long term medication should be stopped if you start clarithromycin antibiotic?

A

Statin should be stopped

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3
Q

Statins should be stopped during pregnancy. True or false?

A

True

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4
Q

Headache red flags

A

Pain wakes patient up at night

Worse on coughing

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5
Q

3 features which are most indicative of a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

A

BMI <17.5
Distorted body image perception
Amenorrhoea

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6
Q

Which type of spots are associated with measles

A

Koplik spots

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7
Q

What kind of vaccine is the MMR?

  • killed
  • conjugate
  • live attenuated
A

Live attenuated

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8
Q

A child with egg allergy can have the MMR vaccine. True or false?

A

True

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9
Q

Children with egg allergies are most likely to develop side effects to which vaccine?

A

Flu vaccine

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10
Q

which class of anti-depressants commonly have headaches and nausea as transient side effects?

A

SSRI

- fluoxetine, sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, paroxetine

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11
Q

What is the Q-fit test?

A

Check for specific type of blood in stool which would suggest colorectal cancer

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12
Q

Which medication can cause leg swelling and breathlessness?

A

Amlodipine

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13
Q

Side effect of GTN spray (initial usage)

A

Thumping headache, faint feeling

- vasodilates blood vessels

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14
Q

Management of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Prednisolone

  • long course (several months)
  • must titrate dose down slowly
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15
Q

What scoring system is used for sleep apnoea?

A

Epworth score

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16
Q

When taking a Hx from someone with suspected sleep apnoea, what is important to ask in SHx?

A

Does the patient drive?
Weight?
Alcohol?
Smoking?

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17
Q

Which antidepressant is used first line if the patient has insomnia (as the medication has a sedative effect) ?

A

Mirtazapine (atypical anti-depressant)

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18
Q

If patients get mirena coil, most of them will/will not have periods?

A

85% will not have periods

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19
Q

Hard skin on foot with central punctum. What is the likely diagnosis and what is the treatment?

A

Diagnosis: corn
Tx: corn plasters

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20
Q

What are some first line treatments of anxiety?

A

Sertraline

Propranolol

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21
Q

Name 2 radiological features which could be present with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Osteopenia

Periarticular Erosions

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22
Q

First line treatment for hypertension in patient under 55

A

ACE inhibitor

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23
Q

First line treatment for hypertension in patient over 55

A

CCB (amlodipine)

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24
Q

If a patient is started on ACE inhibitor for hypertension, when should they be followed up?

A

Check U+E’s 7 days after initiation of ACE inhibitor

Check BP within 1 month

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25
Q

Patient on ACE inhibitor for hypertension but not effective. What is done?

A

ACE inhibitor + CCB
OR
ACE inhibitor + thiazide-like diuretic

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26
Q

ACE inhibitor + CCB but BP still uncontrolled. What is the next step?

A

ACE inhibitor + CCB + thiazide-like diuretic

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27
Q

If patient is on ACE inhibitor + CCB + thiazide-like diuretic but BP is still uncontrolled, what is the next step?

A

Spironolactone or
beta blocker
or alpha blocker

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28
Q

Name 2 alpha blockers

A

Doxazosin

Tamsulosin

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29
Q

What is tamsulosin used to treat?

A

Prostate problems - BPH

30
Q

In the treatment of BP, when should specialist help be required?

A

Once on quadruple therapy

31
Q

A 2-year-old boy presents with a harsh cough and pyrexia. His symptoms worsened overnight and on examination stridor is noted. What is the likely diagnosis and what is the best management?

A

Diagnosis: croup

Treatment: oral dexamethasone

32
Q

Worsening lower limb weakness following gastroenteritis think which condition?

A

Guillian barre syndrome

33
Q

A clinical disease involving the loss of fine motor control and coordination, gait dysfunction and imaging showing cervical cord compression

A

Cervical myelopathy

34
Q

Cervical myelopathy is UMN or LMN pathology?

A

UMN pathology

35
Q

Disc herniation usually causes a myelopathy or radiculopathy?

A

Radiculopathy

36
Q

Symptoms in a radiculopathy are unilateral/bilateral?

A

Unilateral

37
Q

Symptoms in a myelopathy are unilateral/bilateral?

A

Bilateral

38
Q

myelopathy/radiculopathy has a specific nerve root pattern ?

A

Radiculopathy

39
Q

Radiculopathy is UMN or LMN pathology?

A

LMN pathology

40
Q

What is the defining difference between cervical radiculopathy and cervical myelopathy?

A

cervical radiculopathy - LMN

cervical myelopathy - UMN

41
Q

What is the preferred antiplatelet therapy for secondary prevention following a stroke?

A

Clopidogrel

42
Q

Ataxia
Dementia
Urinary incontinence
what does this triad of symptoms make you think of?

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

43
Q

Acute episode of gout treatment

A

Colchicine

44
Q

Which of the following treatments are licensed for prevention of migraine?

  • amitriptyline
  • propranolol
  • sodium valproate
  • topiramate
  • pizotifen
A

Pizotifen
Propranolol
Topiramate

45
Q

What specific monitoring is required for ACE inhibitors

A

Renal function, U+E

blood pressure checks

46
Q

If you have never had chicken pox, you should avoid people who have chicken pox or shingles. This is true for what medication?

A

Prednisolone (steroids)

47
Q

Allopurinol can cause rash. True or false?

A

True

48
Q

After non-cardioembolic stroke, what secondary prevention should be prescribed? (3)

  • anti-coagulant
  • anti-hypertensive
  • anti-platelet
  • thrombolytic
  • statin
A

Anti-hypertensive
Anti-platelet
Statin

49
Q

thrombolytic drugs are for acute stroke / secondary prevention of stroke?

A

Acute stroke

50
Q

If a patient is over 65 and requires an NSAID, what should they be co-prescribed?

A

PPI (omeprazole) for gastric protection

51
Q

If a patient has a CVD risk of over 20% what treatment should they be started on for primary prevention?

A

Statin

52
Q

what are the 3 triple whammy medications

A

ACE inhibitor / ARB
Diuretic
NSAID

53
Q

Why should you give statin at night?

A

Most cholesterol is made when dietary intake is at its lowest (ie throughout sleeping hours)

54
Q

After an MI, which medications should a patient be on acutely?

A

Stain
Anti-platelet
ACE inhibitor
beta blocker

55
Q

What is the medication quinine sulphate commonly used for

A

Restless legs

nocturnal leg cramps

56
Q

ACE inhibitors cause hyper/hypo -kalaemia?

A

Hyperkalaemia

57
Q

Varenicline (Champix) is used for what?

A

Smoking cessation

58
Q

Patient (lorry driver) with T2DM is on metformin but on annual check up has HbA1c of 62mmol/l. and BMI of 32. Should a sulphonylurea be added?

A

Avoid sulphonylurea - patient is a lorry driver and risk of hypo with sulphonylurea. Also sulphonylurea causes weight gain

59
Q

Eye pain, lasts for days, associated with tearing and reddening of the eye. Also has a runny nose. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Cluster headache

60
Q

What is prophylactic treatment for cluster headache?

A

Verapamil

61
Q

Patient with hepatomegaly and has a glass eye. What do you think of?

A

Metastasis from melanoma (eye)

62
Q

79 M, presents with shortness of breast, there is no chest pain. He has been a lifelong smoker and is known to be hypertensive. GP recently started him on new meds to help control BP. CXR shows bilateral pulmonary oedema. What is the diagnosis?

A

Renal artery stenosis
- Recently started andihypertensive medication is likely to be ACE inhibitor which on the background of bilateral renal artery stenosis has precipitated flash pulmonary oedema.

63
Q

In GBS, the weakness is symmetrical or asymmetrical?

Which muscles tend to be affected first: proximal or distal?

A

Symmetrical

Proximal muscles affected first

64
Q

Pale optic discs suggest optic neuritis. True or false?

A

True

65
Q

Type 2 diabetics medication
1st line
2nd line
3rd line

A

1st line - metformin
2nd line + sulphonylurea / SGLT2 inhibitor
3rd line + GLP1 agonist, DPPIV inhibitor

66
Q

Bells palsy is an UMN / LMN condition?

what does this mean: partial / whole side of face affected

A

LMN condition

Whole side of face affected

67
Q

Adenosine should be avoided in people with which condition?

A

Asthma

68
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism most commonly due to?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

69
Q

The ECG in Eisenmenger’s syndrome shows

  • right ventricular hypertrophy
  • left ventricular hypertrophy
A

Right ventricular hypertrophy

70
Q

In relation to the JVP, what is kussmal sign related to?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

Y4 (23 decks)

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