Surgical Principles Flashcards

1
Q

The three Phases of wound healing and the time periods

A

Inflammatory phase 2-5 days

Proliferative phase 2-3 weeks

Maturation phase 3 weeks - indefinitely.

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2
Q

What are the major cell types in the wound healing phases?

A

Inflammatory: Neutrophils

Proliferative: Macrophages and Fibropblasts

Maturation: Fibroblasts

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3
Q

When do wounds reach the tensile strength of suture. How does this strength compare to the original strength of the skin?

A

The wound will reach tensile strength during the proliferative phase at about 14 days.

This skin strength is only 35% of the original strength.

Scars carry only 80% of the original skin strength.

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4
Q

What is the most important cell involved in wound healing?

A

Macrophages!
Only inflammatory cell able to participate in the low oxygen levels of the wound edges.

Ingests debris, bacteria, forms capillarys, process antigens.

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5
Q

Which two vitamins effect wound healing?

A

Vitamin A

Vitamin C (Collagen production)

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6
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary bone healing?

A

Primary is seen with stable fixation and works via cutting cone fusion. (Haversian remodeling)

Secondary is seen with unstable fractures/casting and involves the formation of a bony callous.

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7
Q

What are the phases of secondary bone healing?

A

Hematoma formation Days 1-3

Fibrocartilagenous callus: Osteoclastic phagocytosis of necrotic bone with osteoblastic differentiation into cartilage. (10d - 6 wks)

Primary bone callous forms 6-10 weeks

Primary bone callus is absorbed and forms the secondary bone callus at 2.5 - 4 months.

Remodeling occurs secondary to wolf’s law (form follows function)

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8
Q

What law describes final bony maturation in secondary bone healing?

A

Wolf’s law

Form will follow function.

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9
Q

What is the name of the classification for non union

A

Weber and Check after 8-9 months of no healing.

Breaks it down into hypertrophic and atrophic.

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10
Q

What are the hypertrophic non-unions?

A

Elephants foot
Horse Hoof
Oligotrophic

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11
Q

What are the atrophic non-unions?

A

Atrophic
Defect
Torsion wedge
Cominuted

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12
Q

What is a Papineau grafting technqiue?

A

Described for osteomyelitis
Excise necrotic bone, use cancellous bone grafting with overlying skin coverage.

It is designed for rapid revascularization.

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13
Q

Hyaline vs Fibrocartilage

A

Hyaline: Has type II cartilage and glycosaminoglyxan matrix to maintain compressive forces.

Fibrocartilage is type I and is mostly responsible for tensile forces.

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14
Q

What cell type can differentiate into hyaline cartilage?

A

Mesenchymal stem cells!

Typically form into fibrocartilage as hyaline cartilage rarely ever reforms.

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15
Q

Whats the name of the classification that covers the extent of damage done directly to a nerve?

A

Seddons!
Neuropraxia
Axonotmesis
Neurotmesis

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16
Q

What is the name of the classification that covers the type of nerve deficit a patient might be experiencing?

A

Sunderlands!

Breaks it into 1st degree to 6th degree.

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17
Q

Which nerve degeneration involves wallerian degeneration?

A

Axonotmesis!
The axon is damaged but the structural framework is intact allowing for internal reconstruction.

Neurotmesis has wallerian degeneration as well distal to the transection resulting in a stump neuroma.

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18
Q

Autolytic debridement

A

The bodies own enzym removal and moisture.

It is selective in that only necrotic tissue is removed.

Facilitated with hydrocolloid, hydrogels, and transparent films.

Advantages: Safe, body removes and effective.

Disadvantages: Not as rapid as surgical, may promote anaerobic growth with occlusives.

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19
Q

What is mechanical debridement?

A

Typical Wet to dry, non selective debridement that poses a risk to healthy tissue.

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20
Q

Name the 5 types of debridement

A
Autolytic
Manual
Enzymatic
Surgical
Biological (Maggots)

“SAME B”

21
Q

Pros vs cons of thin/split thickness skin grafts.

A

Pros: Take very quickly, require less nourishment.

Cons: Graft is fragile and shrinks up to 75%

22
Q

Which has better survivability

FTSG or STSG?

A

Split thickness skin grafts have better survivability but are burdened by being weaker and shrinkage.

23
Q

What are the ideal angles for Z-plasty skin grafts?

A

60 degree angles to gain up to 75% in additional length.

24
Q

What are the three phases of skin graft healing?

A

Plasmitic 1-2 days (Fibrin anchor layer, nutrition is through diffusion.

Inosculation 2-4 days Capillary budding and lymphatic drainage begins.

Reorganization >5 days
Capillaries invade and the graft begins to reinervate. Will not be normal for a few years.

25
Q

How does hyponatremia present and how is it treated?

A

Presents with confusion, anorexia, lethargy, N/V, coma, an seizures.

Treated with insulin if the patient is just hyperglycemic

If the patient is hypotonic or dehydrated just give isotonic saline or salt tablets.

26
Q

How does hypokalemia present and how is it treated?

A

Hypokalemia presents with respiratory arrest, arythmias, renal effects.

Simply treat this by giving either oral potassium or IV potassium (dangerous)

27
Q

How does hyperkalemia present and how should it be treated?

A

Presents with EKG changes

  • Spiked T waves
  • ST depression
  • Prolonged PR intervals
  • QRS widening
  • Prolonged QT intervals

can be caused by renal failure, administration of boood, or salt substitutes.

Treat with…

  • Calcium chloride tablets
  • Sodium Bicarbonate
  • Glucose
  • Insulin
28
Q

Name the five W’s of post operative fevers

A
Wind 
Water
Walk 
Wound 
Wonderdrugs
29
Q

What ion does tourniquette use elevate?

A

Elevates calcium levels!

30
Q

Tourniquette pressures for the ankle vs thigh

A

Ankle: +100 SBP
Thigh: 275-350 with max of 500 mmHg

31
Q

Time limit of the tourniquette

A

Do not exceed two hours.

Release for 15-20 minutes for break

32
Q

What defects can end up causing clubbed nails?

A

Congenital heart defects
Respiratory ailments
Liver cirrhosis

33
Q

What is the Lovibond’s angle?

A

Used to determine clubbed nails.
Defined as an angle >160.

Can also use diamonds sign for this condition.

34
Q

What are Mee’s lines?

A

Horizontal striations due to ARSENIC POISONING OR THALLIUM POISONING

35
Q

Cause of blue nails

A

Cancer

36
Q

Cause of black/brown nails

A

Addisons

Melanoma

37
Q

Cause of white nails

A

Hereditary
Anemia
Fungal
Infection

38
Q

Pitted white nails

A

psoriasis

39
Q

White and pink nails

A

Anemia of chronic dz

Nephrotic syndrome

40
Q

what is Onychauxis

A

Thickened nails that might be deviated laterally commonly seen in the elderly.

41
Q

If NaOH is used for a nail avulsion what can be used for neutralization?

A

5% acetic acid.

42
Q

Frost nail avulsion?

A

L shaped incision

43
Q

What is a whitney nail avulsion?

A

A bilateral Frost

AKA L incisions on both sides of the nail.

44
Q

What is the winograd nail avulsion?

A

1/4 of the nail edge is removed along with the matrix.

45
Q

Steps of a hammer toe release?

A
Extensor tenotomy
Extensor hood release
Resection of the proximal phalange head
Capsulotomy of MTPJ
Release of the plantar plate

Arthrodesis with 0.45 or 0.65 dependent on MPTJ fusion..

46
Q

What are the three types of hammer toe arthrodesis procedures?

A

End to end: Selig

Peg in hole fusion

Lambrinudi (fusion of PIPJ and DIPJ for claw toe)

V- arthrodesis

47
Q

Which metatarsals have indicidual axis of motion?

A

Metatarsal 1 and 5

48
Q

What is the normal degree of metatarsal declination?

A

Approximately 15 degrees