Subfertility Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells secrete AMH?

A

Granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What proportion of anovulatory infertility is caused by PCOS?

A

> 80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main mechanism by which hyperprolactinaemia causes 2dry amenorrhoea?

A

Inhibition of LH pulsatility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the test for biochemical detection of hyperandrogenism?

A

Free Androgen Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What proportion of women with PCOS are overweight/obese?

A

40-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the estimated prevalence of endometriosis in infertile women?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the prevalence of endometriosis in women of reproductive age?

A

2-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What endometrial thickness should be achieved prior to frozen embryo transfer?

A

5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which contraception is most associated with delay in return of fertility?

A

Depoprovera

Up to 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What percentage of >35yo will take longer than a year to conceive?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal semen volume?

A

1.5 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Normal sperm concentration?

A

15 million/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal total number of sperm in ejaculate?

A

39 million per ejaculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal total motility?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal sperm forms?

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What outcomes favour letrozole over clomiphene?

A

Higher live birth rate
Lower multiple pregnancy rate
Lower incidence of OHSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does letrozole work as ovulation inductor?

A

Competitively and reversibly binds to haem component of CYP450 unit to reduce oestrogen production (selective E-receptor modulator)

Does not inhibit production of mineralocorticoids/corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the NICE guidance for treatment of Group 2 anovulatory infertility?

A

Clomiphene for 6/12

Lap ovarian drilling or clomiphene + metformin or gonadotropins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for Group 1 anovulatory subfertility?

A
Optimise BMI (>19)
Pulsatile GnRH or gonadotrophins with LH activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the chance that laparoscopy confirms findings of tubal occlusion at HSG?

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for male infertility secondary to Kallman’s?

A

Gonadotrophins or pulsatile GnRH pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percentage of male infertility is due to post-testicular causes?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the average pregnancy rate with ICSI?

A

33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What percentage of women with recurrent miscarriage have antiphospholipid antibodies?
What is the background population risk?

A

15%

<2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the live birth rate in women with recurrent miscarriage associated with antiphospholipid antibodies with no intervention?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the main causes of infertility in the UK (and percentages)?

A
Unexplained - 25%
Ovulatory - 25%
Tubal - 20%
Male - 30%
Uterine or peritoneal - 10%
40% - disorders in both female and male
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the Rotterdam criteria?

A
  1. Polycystic ovaries (>=12 peripheral follicles or volume >10cm3)
  2. Oligo- or anovulation
  3. Clinical and or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the recommended screening tests for PCOS?

A

TSH
PRL
Free Androgen Index (testosterone and SHBG)
If testosterone >5 - 17hydroxyprogesterone

29
Q

What measures predict high response to gonadotrophins in IVF?

A

Total antral follicle count >16
AMH >25
FSH <4

30
Q

What measures predict low response to gonadotrophins in IVF?

A

Total antral follicle count <4
AMH 5.4
FSH >8.9

31
Q

What percentage of tubal factor infertility is due to proximal disease?
What is the most common cause?

A

15%

Salpingitis isthmica nodosa

32
Q

What are the criteria for negligible transmission rates of HIV (ie when can normal sexual intercourse take place in men with HIV) where male is HIV positive

A

Man compliant with HAART
Viral load <50 for more than 6/12
No other infections
Unprotected intercourse is limited to time of ovulation

If met sperm washing doesn’t reduce chance of transmission

33
Q

What percentage of male factor infertility is secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism?

A

<1%

34
Q

Which circulating androgens can activate receptors?

A

DHT
Testosterone
NOT DHEAS

35
Q

How is testosterone metabolised and excreted?

A

In the liver into androsterone and etiocholanolone, conjugated, and excreted as 17-ketosteroids in the urine

36
Q

What metabolic problems are there in CAH?

A

Deficiency of synthesis of cortisol

Most common - deficiency of 21 hydroxylase activity (90-95%)

37
Q

What is the incidence of raised prolactin in infertile but ovulatory women?

A

3.8-11.5%

38
Q

What are the surgical indications for prolactinomas?

How are prolactinomas treated in pregnancy?

A
  1. Failure of medical therapy
  2. Expanding lesion with neurological or ophthalmological deficits not responding to med therapy
  3. Pituitary apoplexy (potentially life threatening haemorrhage/infarction)

8.5% of macroprolactinomas may need surgery in pregnancy - continue medical treatment (usually stops in early pregnancy in microprolactinomas

39
Q

What are the applications of AMH in fertility practice?

A
  1. Predicting over-response and OHSS and altering stimulation protocols accordingly
  2. Predicting poor response to stimulation and altering protocols accordingly to optimise oocyte yield
  3. Diagnositc marker in PCOS (high levels associated with high androgens and insulin insensitivity)
  4. Counselling re: poor response to avoid disappointment
40
Q

Male factor alone contributes what percentage of infertile couples?

A

30%

41
Q

What percentage of infertile couples have both male and female factor infertility?

A

40%

42
Q

What proportion of men with low sperm quality have no cause found?

A

50%

43
Q

What is the role of FSH in sperm production and which cells respond to it?

A

Increases spermatogonial number and matures to spermatocytes

Binds to Sertoli cells

44
Q

What is the role of LH in sperm production and which cells respond to it?

A

Necessary for testosterone production by Leydig cells

Essential role in spermatid maturation

45
Q

How long is spermatogenesis?

A

3 months

46
Q

What type of male infertility is characterised by decreased FSH, LH and testosteone?

A

Pretesticular - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

47
Q

What type of male infertility is characterised by elevated FSH and LH, low testosterone, with non-obstructive azoospermia?

A

Testicular failure - hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

Can have isolated FSH rise with normal LH and testosterone - isolated spermatogenic failure without Leydig cell damage

48
Q

What is the prevalence of varicocele in men with normal and abnormal semen?

A

11.7% and 25.4%

49
Q

What type of male infertility is characterised by normal FSH and LH with evidence of complete spermatogenesis at biopsy?

A

Post-testicular

50
Q

What number of men with varicocele have a concurrent renal abnormality?

A

30%

51
Q

What are the indications for IUI?

A
  1. Mild male factor infertility
  2. Immunologic infertility
  3. Mechanical problems of sperm delivery

(Up to 6 cycles recommended by NICE)

52
Q

What are the indications for ICSI?

A
  1. Uncorrectable severe male factor infertility

2. Fertilisation failure in previous IVF cycle

53
Q

What are pregnancy rates per embryo transfer following ICSI?

A

33%

54
Q

How much less is the chance of pregnancy with a man >40yo vs >35yo?

A

50%

55
Q

What is the rate of twin pregnancy following single and double embryo transfer?

A

Single - 2%

Double - 25-30%

56
Q

What is the lifetime incidence of infertility?

A

17% (1 in 6 couples)

57
Q

At what stage of the menstrual cycle should HSG be performed?

A

Day 7 - 12
Sens: 53%
Spec: 87%

1-3% risk pelvic infection

58
Q

What is HyCoSy?

A

Hysterosalpingo contrast sonography
water soluble contrast TVUS
Avoids radiation exposure

59
Q

What is the risk of perforation and ectopic pregnancy with tubal catheterisation?

A

Perf - 2%

Ectopic - 3%

60
Q

What is transvaginal hydrolaparoscopy (THL)?

A

0.4-0.6L fluid into posterior fornix
Small diameter endoscope
Can visualise POD, adnexa, tubes and perform small procedures e.g. ovarian drilling under LA as OP
Risk of bowel perf 0.61%

61
Q

What is the difference between salpingoscopy and falloposcopy?

A

Salpingoscopy is the endoscopic visualisation of the
endosalpinx of the tubal infundibulum and ampulla at
laparoscopy and/or THL, whereas falloposcopy is the
endoscopic visualisation of the whole endosalpinx at
hysteroscopy

62
Q

What is fertiloscopy?

A

Fertiloscopy is an outpatient technique that combines

hysteroscopy, THL and salpingoscopy

63
Q

what is the best assay for measuring chlamydia trachomatis antibodies?

A

Micro-immune fluorescence (MIF)

64
Q

How many cases of tubal infertility are due to proximal disease?

A

15%

65
Q

What is salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)?

A
  • Most common cause proximal tubal infertility
  • Inflammatory aetiology associated with infective PID stigmata
  • Endosalpingeal diverticula encased in myosalpingeal hypertrophy and fibrosis resulting in a firm proximal tubular nodule which can be seen on laparoscopic examination
  • Can be mimicked by endo
66
Q

By how much do ongoing pregnany rates increase following salpingectomy for hydrosalpinx?

A

x2

67
Q

What are good prognostic factors for successful reversal of sterilisation?

A

Age <35

Residual length >4cm

68
Q

What % of women presenting with subfertility are hyperthyroid?

A
  1. 3%

1. 5% general population