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POLY SCI 201 > STUDY GUIDE Exam 2 > Flashcards

STUDY GUIDE Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q 
1. (p. 328) The framers of the Constitution saw this as the preeminent component of the federal government: 
A. the Supreme Court.
B. the bureaucracy.
C. the Congress.
D. the president.
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. the Congress.

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2
Q
  1. (p. 329) In the nation’s first century,
    A. service in Congress was even more of a lifetime career than it is now.
    B. members of Congress would move from House to Senate and back with little concern for the relative power and prestige of the chambers.
    C. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.
    D. service in Congress was restricted by the imposition of term limits in many states.
    E. service in Congress was greatly preferred to service in state government.
A

C. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.

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3
Q
  1. (p. 329) The modern Congress is different from the nineteenth century Congress in that most members
    A. are now professional politicians who want to stay in Congress.
    B. are now amateur politicians who want only to spend a short time in Congress.
    C. are now minorities or women.
    D. now have previously been governors of their home states.
    E. return to their respective state legislatures after their congressional service is over.
A

A. are now professional politicians who want to stay in Congress.

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4
Q 
4. (p. 330) Approximately \_\_ percent of House incumbents win reelection. 
A. 57
B. 65
C. 74
D. 82
E. 92
A

E. 92

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5
Q 
5. (p. 330) Approximately \_\_ percent of Senate incumbents win reelection. 
A. 57
B. 65
C. 74
D. 87
E. 98
A

D. 87

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6
Q 
6. (p. 330) In an average election, about 1 in \_\_ House seats is a truly competitive election. 
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
A

E. 6

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7
Q 
7. (p. 330) Legislation whose tangible benefits are targeted solely at a particular legislator's constituency is 
A. pork-barrel legislation.
B. logrolling.
C. gerrymandering.
D. private legislation.
E. public interest legislation.
A

A. pork-barrel legislation.

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8
Q
  1. (p. 331) Congressional staffers spend most of their time on
    A. constituency service and legislative matters.
    B. legislative matters.
    C. constituency service and public relations.
    D. legislative matters and constituency service.
    E. public relations.
A

C. constituency service and public relations.

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9
Q
  1. (p. 332) Campaign spending tends to be a much greater task for
    A. challengers than for incumbents.
    B. Republican candidates.
    C. Democratic candidates.
    D. candidates in urban areas than for candidates in rural areas.
    E. men than for women.
A

A. challengers than for incumbents.

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10
Q 
10. (p. 332) In 2010, the average Senate race saw about \_\_ million dollars in campaign spending. 
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 15
E. 34
A

D. 15

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11
Q 
11. (p. 333) Nearly \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of all PAC contributions go to the incumbents. 
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 70
E. 85
A

E. 85

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12
Q 
12. (p. 333) Redistricting happens after the census, which is conducted every \_\_ years. 
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
A

C. 10

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13
Q
  1. (p. 334) Redistricting
    A. happens every 4 years.
    B. is conducted by state legislatures.
    C. must be approved by Congress.
    D. must be approved by the highest court in each state.
    E. has little appreciable effect on who wins or loses congressional races.
A

B. is conducted by state legislatures.

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14
Q
  1. (p. 334-336) Incumbents may have some problems in reelection campaigns if
    A. disruptive issues such as general public discontent with Congress become prominent.
    B. the incumbent is tainted with charges of personal misconduct or corruption.
    C. the election is a midterm election, and the incumbent is of the same party as the president.
    D. through redistricting, the incumbent is placed in a disadvantageous district.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

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15
Q
  1. (p. 335) In midterm elections,
    A. the president’s party usually loses seats.
    B. voter turnout is substantially higher than in presidential elections.
    C. half the House is up for reelection.
    D. voters are more likely to have weaker ties to political parties.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. the president’s party usually loses seats.

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16
Q
  1. (p. 336) Compared to House incumbents, Senate incumbents are more likely to face the problem of
    A. raising enough money to run a strong campaign.
    B. an electorate that is inclined to judge their fitness for reelection in the context of pork-barrel legislation and other favors for the local community.
    C. a strong challenger.
    D. name recognition.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

insert but probably:

C. a strong challenger

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17
Q 
17. (p. 337-338) One must be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years of age to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years of age to serve in the U.S. Senate. 
A. 18; 21
B. 21; 25
C. 25; 30
D. 35; 45
E. 40; 50
A

C. 25; 30

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18
Q 
18. (p. 338) Which of the following groups is overrepresented in Congress? 
A. blue-collar workers
B. homemakers
C. clerical workers
D. women
E. lawyers
A

E. lawyers

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19
Q 
19. (p. 339) In which of the following legislative sessions did Democrats have the majority in the House of Representatives? 
A. 2003-2004
B. 2005-2006
C. 2009-2010
D. 2011-2012
E. 2013-2014
A

C. 2009-2010

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20
Q
  1. (p. 339) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Political parties are unimportant in the organization of the U.S. Congress.
    B. Party-line voting rarely occurs in Congress.
    C. Party-line voting has increased in recent years.
    D. Partisanship makes virtually no difference in the votes cast in Congress.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. Party-line voting has increased in recent years.

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21
Q
  1. (p. 339) In the 1970s, roll-call votes
    A. generally demonstrated the power of incumbents.
    B. generally demonstrated an increase in party loyalty.
    C. generally did not pit most Republicans against most Democrats.
    D. were less common than voice votes.
    E. were generally not used to record each member’s vote.
A

C. generally did not pit most Republicans against most Democrats.

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22
Q 
22. (p. 340) What percentage of state legislators are women? 
A. less than 5 percent
B. more than 20 percent
C. about 50 percent
D. about 60 percent
E. more than 40 percent
A

B. more than 20 percent

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23
Q
  1. (p. 341) The second-most powerful federal official (after the president) is often said to be the
    A. chair of the House Appropriations Committee.
    B. president pro tempore of the U.S. Senate.
    C. Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.
    D. chair of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee.
    E. Senate majority leader.
A

C. Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.

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24
Q
  1. (p. 341-342) Compared with the Senate majority leader, the Speaker of the House has more power because
    A. the House places more limits on debate.
    B. the House is the larger chamber in terms of membership.
    C. the House has less of a tradition as a chamber of equals.
    D. the Speaker is that chamber’s presiding officer.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

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25
Q 
25. (p. 344) The most powerful person from the minority party in the House is the 
A. minority whip.
B. minority leader.
C. deputy whip.
D. Speaker of the House.
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. minority leader.

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26
Q
  1. (p. 345) In contrast with the Speaker of the House, the Senate majority leader
    A. plays a key role in formulating the majority party’s legislative positions.
    B. seeks to develop influential relationships with his/her colleagues.
    C. is not the presiding officer of his/her chamber.
    D. holds a position that is defined in the Constitution.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. is not the presiding officer of his/her chamber.

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27
Q
  1. (p. 345) Senators are generally less likely to take directions from their leaders than House members because
    A. senators are prohibited by their state legislatures from taking orders from others.
    B. senators think of themselves as being equals and are only willing to be led by persuasion.
    C. senators are more highly paid than House members and are thus immune from financial threats.
    D. House rules mandate that all party members on major bills must vote according to the directions of their leaders.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

B. senators think of themselves as being equals and are only willing to be led by persuasion.

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28
Q
  1. (p. 345) A standing committee in the House or Senate
    A. is a permanent committee.
    B. has jurisdiction over a particular policy area.
    C. has authority to draft, amend, and recommend legislation.
    D. is usually organized according to the seniority principle.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

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29
Q
  1. (p. 345) Most of the legislative work of Congress is performed by
    A. the standing committees and their subcommittees with jurisdiction over particular policy areas.
    B. the joint committees chosen to coordinate actions between the two chambers of Congress.
    C. the select committees chosen to study special problems on a temporary basis.
    D. the steering committees that decide how the party stands on particular bills.
    E. party leaders in both chambers.
A

A. the standing committees and their subcommittees with jurisdiction over particular policy areas.

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30
Q
  1. (p. 347) Committee staffs within Congress
    A. concentrate on constituency relations.
    B. perform an almost entirely legislative function.
    C. concentrate on public relations.
    D. split their time between legislative functions and public relations.
    E. are devoted to logistical functions and committee public relations
A

B. perform an almost entirely legislative function.

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31
Q 
31. (p. 347) When the House and Senate pass different versions of a bill, the differences are resolved by a 
A. conference committee.
B. standing committee.
C. select committee.
D. rules committee.
E. joint committee.
A

A. conference committee.

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32
Q
  1. (p. 347) A bill has been approved in the House and Senate, albeit in slightly different versions. The bill now goes to
    A. the president for his or her veto or signature.
    B. a conference committee.
    C. the standing committees in the House and Senate where the bill originated.
    D. the House Rules Committee.
    E. the Senate Rules Committee.
A

B. a conference committee.

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33
Q
  1. (p. 349) Which one of the following statements about the seniority principle is MOST accurate?
    A. The seniority principle is based on the length of time the member has spent in Congress.
    B. Because of seniority, committee chairs exercise absolute power over their committees.
    C. Seniority is no longer absolute in the selection of committee chairs, but it is usually followed.
    D. Seniority is no longer used at all in the choice of committee chairs.
    E. Seniority is used in the Democratic Party, but not the Republican Party.
A

C. Seniority is no longer absolute in the selection of committee chairs, but it is usually followed.

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34
Q 
34. (p. 352) Bills are formally introduced in Congress by 
A. members of Congress only.
B. executive agencies.
C. interest groups.
D. the Supreme Court.
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. members of Congress only.

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35
Q
  1. (p. 352) Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done
    A. by committees and their respective subcommittees.
    B. on the floor of the House and Senate.
    C. by conference committees.
    D. by the president.
    E. by bureaucratic agencies.
A

A. by committees and their respective subcommittees.

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36
Q 
36. (p. 352) Committees kill more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of the bills submitted in Congress. 
A. 10
B. 25
C. 40
D. 66
E. 90
A

E. 90

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37
Q
  1. (p. 352) “Mark up” of a bill means that
    A. a president has crossed out sections of the bill that he or she finds personally objectionable.
    B. a bill has been approved after floor debate has finished.
    C. witnesses at committee hearings suggest modifications of the bill.
    D. the House Speaker and Senate majority leader have written a bill in a way that they favor.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

insert but probably:

E. None of these answers is correct

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38
Q 
38. (p. 352) Defining the conditions and scheduling a bill for floor debate in the House of Representatives is the responsibility of the 
A. Ways and Means Committee.
B. Rules Committee.
C. Budget Committee.
D. Appropriations Committee.
E. Judiciary Committee.
A

B. Rules Committee.

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39
Q
  1. (p. 352) If the Rules Committee applies the “closed rule” to a bill,
    A. no amendments will be permitted.
    B. the bill will not be allowed a vote.
    C. the bill will require a 2/3 majority for passage.
    D. no further floor debate is allowed.
    E. no filibusters will be allowed to prevent a vote.
A

A. no amendments will be permitted.

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40
Q 
40. (p. 353) The scheduling of bills in the Senate is left up to 
A. the Senate Scheduling Committee.
B. the Senate majority leader.
C. each of the Senate committees.
D. the Senate historian.
E. the Senate parliamentarian.
A

B. the Senate majority leader.

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41
Q 
41. (p. 353) What is the strategy employed in the Senate to prevent a bill from coming to a vote? 
A. mark up
B. filibuster
C. cloture
D. pocket veto
E. conference committee
A

B. filibuster

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42
Q
  1. (p. 353) Through a vote for cloture, the Senate
    A. confirms presidential appointees.
    B. can end a filibuster.
    C. overrides a presidential pocket veto.
    D. accepts the House version of a bill.
    E. closes its legislative session for the year.
A

B. can end a filibuster.

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43
Q
  1. (p. 354) For a bill to pass in either chamber of Congress, it must
    A. receive the support of a third of its members.
    B. receive the support of a simple majority of its members.
    C. receive the support of two-thirds of its members.
    D. be passed within two weeks of its passage by the other chamber.
    E. be passed within a month of its passage by the other chamber.
A

B. receive the support of a simple majority of its members.

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44
Q
  1. (p. 354) To override a presidential veto, Congress must vote by
    A. a simple majority.
    B. a three-fifths majority.
    C. a two-thirds majority.
    D. a four-fifths majority.
    E. a simple majority in the House and a three-fifths majority in the Senate.
A

C. a two-thirds majority

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45
Q
  1. (p. 354) A pocket veto differs from a regular presidential veto in that the pocket veto
    A. applies only to a section of the legislation in question.
    B. applies only to expenditure legislation.
    C. occurs when the president decides to veto a bill he had previously signed.
    D. can take effect only when the Congress is not in session.
    E. occurs when the president goes before Congress to announce a veto.
A

D. can take effect only when the Congress is not in session.

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46
Q
  1. (p. 355) The dominant policymaking political institution during most of the nineteenth century was
    A. the president and the executive branch.
    B. Congress.
    C. the Supreme Court.
    D. the bureaucracy.
    E. the mass media
A

B. Congress.

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47
Q 
47. (p. 355) Which of the following is one of the three major functions of Congress's policymaking role? 
A. lawmaking
B. check the president
C. appease special interests
D. inform the people
E. check the Supreme Court
A

A. lawmaking

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48
Q
  1. (p. 356) Congress’s inability to consistently provide leadership on broad national issues is primarily due to
    A. the lack of talented leadership in Congress.
    B. the fragmented nature of Congress.
    C. constitutional restrictions on Congress’s lawmaking powers.
    D. the constant threat of a presidential veto.
    E. opposition from the mass media.
A

B. the fragmented nature of Congress.

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49
Q 
49. (p. 356) There are currently \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ voting members of the U.S. House of Representatives and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ voting members of the U.S. Senate. 
A. 535; 100
B. 435; 100
C. 150; 31
D. 300; 100
E. 600; 300
A

B. 435; 100

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50
Q
  1. (p. 356-357) In initiating broad legislative proposals, the president enjoys all the following advantages over Congress EXCEPT
    A. the president being more likely to take a national perspective on policy issues.
    B. the president being granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking.
    C. the president’s actions receiving more attention overall from the national media.
    D. the president having the authority to make policy decisions even when there are conflicting views within the executive branch, while congressional leaders cannot impose their views on other members who disagree with them.
    E. a lack of fragmentation.
A

B. the president being granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking.

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51
Q
  1. (p. 356) Most members of Congress are
    A. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones.
    B. controlled by special interest groups.
    C. interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve.
    D. opposed to the seniority system.
    E. more interested in oversight than in making laws.
A

A. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones

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52
Q
  1. (p. 357) Congress typically takes presidential proposals
    A. only as a starting point.
    B. only if the dominant party is the same as the president’s party.
    C. and most often fast-tracks them into law.
    D. and tables them until they expire.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. only as a starting point.

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53
Q
  1. (p. 358) Since the founding of the United States, the debate over the representation function of Congress has centered on whether
    A. key decisions should be made by a small number of representatives in committee or by the whole membership in floor debate.
    B. the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency.
    C. congressional or presidential authority should dominate on broad issues.
    D. the House or the Senate is more responsive to the public.
    E. the House or the Senate should take the lead on foreign policy issues.
A

B. the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency.

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54
Q
  1. (p. 359) Which nation does NOT have a one-house dominant legislature?
    A. Canada
    B. Germany
    C. the United States
    D. Great Britain
    E. None of these answers is correct, as all these nations have one-house dominant legislatures.
A

C. the United States

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55
Q 
55. (p. 360) The trading of votes between members of Congress so that each gets the legislation he or she wants is called 
A. gerrymandering.
B. pandering.
C. logrolling.
D. pork-barreling.
E. cloturing.
A

C. logrolling.

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56
Q
  1. (p. 362) Which of the following statements is TRUE about congressional members over the last three decades?
    A. Republicans have become more conservative.
    B. Republicans have continued to be moderate.
    C. Republicans have become more liberal.
    D. Democrats have become more moderate.
    E. Democrats have become more conservative.
A

A. Republicans have become more conservative.

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57
Q
  1. (p. 363) In Beyond Ideology, political scientist Frances Lee shows that
    A. the number of bills passed each year by Congress has dropped dramatically from year to year because of partisan gridlock.
    B. lawmakers generally avoid partisan negotiations or attacks when dealing with low-stakes issues in order to get more business done.
    C. the congressional agenda is less and less shaped by partisan consideration rather than reelection priorities.
    D. even on low-stake issues, lawmakers exploit negotiation and floor debate to attack opponents and promote their party’s image.
    E. the congressional agenda is increasingly shaped by policy priorities rather than partisan consideration.
A

D. even on low-stake issues, lawmakers exploit negotiation and floor debate to attack opponents and promote their party’s image.

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58
Q
  1. (p. 364-365) The oversight responsibility of Congress is
    A. relatively easy to carry out.
    B. becoming less and less important to the nation.
    C. more interesting to most legislators than policy making responsibilities.
    D. the most time-consuming task for most legislators.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

insert but probably:

E. None of these answers is correct

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59
Q
  1. (p. 364) What is the BIGGEST reason that Congress does not vigorously pursue its oversight function?
    A. the sheer magnitude of the task
    B. its inadequacy as a means to control the bureaucracy
    C. its inadequacy as a means to control the power of the president
    D. its inadequacy as a way to generate publicity for members of Congress
    E. its inadequacy as a means to control the judiciary
A

A. the sheer magnitude of the task

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60
Q
  1. (p. 365) Congressional oversight is MOST likely to occur when it involves
    A. White House activities with the opposition party in control of one or both chambers of Congress.
    B. congressional activities of a questionable nature.
    C. allegations of misconduct by individual low-level bureaucrats.
    D. allegations of misconduct by state governments.
    E. unpopular decisions of the Supreme Court.
A

A. White House activities with the opposition party in control of one or both chambers of Congress.

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61
Q
  1. (p. 365) By and large, partisanship is
    A. irrelevant to the work of Congress.
    B. a huge source of both cohesion and division within Congress.
    C. relevant only in the context of local representation.
    D. important in lawmaking and representation but not in oversight.
    E. more important in foreign policy than in domestic policy.
A

B. a huge source of both cohesion and division within Congress.

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62
Q 
1. (p. 369) In early 2014, President Obama's approval rating was about \_\_ percent, while shortly after he entered office, it had been about \_\_ percent. 
A. 40; 70
B. 50; 60
C. 60; 70
D. 70; 50
E. 80; 60
A

A. 40; 70

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63
Q
  1. (p. 371) The presidency is an
    A. extraordinarily strong office with sufficient powers to enable the president to control national policy under virtually all circumstances.
    B. inherently weak office, in that presidents have almost no capacity to influence the major directions of national policy.
    C. office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed.
    D. office where power depends almost entirely on its occupant; strong leaders are always successful presidents, and weak ones never succeed.
    E. office where power is fairly constant, regardless of the occupant or the circumstances.
A

C. office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed.

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64
Q
  1. (p. 371) A president’s accomplishments have largely depended on
    A. the margin of victory in the presidential campaign.
    B. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership.
    C. the president’s ability to come up with good ideas.
    D. the president’s skill at balancing the demands of competing groups.
    E. mid-term elections.
A

B. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership.

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65
Q 
4. (p. 372) Which of the following did the framers want from a president? 
A. national leadership
B. administration of the laws
C. statesmanship in foreign affairs
D. command of the military
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

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66
Q 
5. (p. 372) Congress has formally declared war \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ times in U.S. history. 
A. 2
B. 5
C. 55
D. 200
E. 6,500
A

B. 5

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67
Q 
6. (p. 372) The presidency was created by Article \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the U.S. Constitution. 
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. VII
A

B. II

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68
Q
  1. (p. 372) What did Alexander Hamilton argue about war in Federalist No. 69?
    A. Congress is the only body with enough deliberative powers to be able to justly declare war.
    B. War under any circumstances is unjust, even in self-defense.
    C. A president should be allowed to declare war, because only the executive can react quickly enough.
    D. A surprise attack on the United States is the only justification for war by presidential action.
    E. Building a strong military for engagement in foreign wars would be a key ingredient to establishing executive authority.
A

D. A surprise attack on the United States is the only justification for war by presidential action.

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69
Q
  1. (p. 372) What did the Supreme Court rule about executive agreements in 1937?
    A. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.
    B. They can only be issued in matters of national security.
    C. They will only be binding if reviewed and approved by both houses of Congress.
    D. They can only be made with the approval of a president’s entire cabinet.
    E. They were ruled unconstitutional and are no longer used by the executive
A

A. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.

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70
Q
  1. (p. 374) The president’s constitutional roles, such as chief executive and commander in chief,
    A. are based on very precise constitutional grants of power.
    B. are rooted in tradition only; they have no basis in the language of the Constitution.
    C. are not subject to check by Congress.
    D. have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended.
    E. are absolute powers under the Constitution.
A

D. have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended.

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71
Q
  1. (p. 375) The Whig theory holds that the presidency
    A. is a shared office where the president and the cabinet are equally powerful.
    B. is a limited office whose occupant is confined to the exercise of expressly granted constitutional powers.
    C. is the office most representative of the people.
    D. should provide strong leadership in the area of foreign policy but not in domestic policy.
    E. is subordinate to the Supreme Court.
A

B. is a limited office whose occupant is confined to the exercise of expressly granted constitutional powers.

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72
Q
  1. (p. 375) How did Theodore Roosevelt change the conception of the presidency?
    A. He altered the stewardship theory to reduce the power of the presidency while remaining an activist president.
    B. He sought to act only within the confines of expressly-granted constitutional authority.
    C. He rejected the idea of the “strong presidency.”
    D. He cast aside the stewardship theory in favor of the Whig theory.
    E. He cast aside the Whig theory in favor of the stewardship theory.
A

E. He cast aside the Whig theory in favor of the stewardship theory.

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73
Q
  1. (p. 376-377) Which of the following is a reason that the nation did not routinely need a strong president during most of the nineteenth century?
    A. the small policymaking role of the federal government
    B. the sectional nature of the nation’s major issues
    C. the U.S. government’s small role in world affairs
    D. all of these factors: the small policymaking role of the federal government; the sectional nature of the nation’s major issues; and the U.S. government’s small role in world affairs
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

insert but probably:

D. all of these factors: the small policymaking role of the federal government; the sectional nature of the nation’s major isssues; and the U.S. government’s small role in world affairs

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74
Q
  1. (p. 377) The president’s role in foreign policy increased largely because
    A. Congress proved so inept in foreign affairs that the American people demanded a change.
    B. America became more of a world power.
    C. of the need to coordinate national economic policy and foreign policy, a task to which the presidency was well suited.
    D. of the desire of U.S. business to expand into Latin America and Asia, which required executive action at the highest level.
    E. of attitudes held by the American public.
A

B. America became more of a world power.

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75
Q
  1. (p. 378) What aspect of presidential election did Andrew Jackson try but fail to achieve?
    A. elimination of the Electoral College
    B. elimination of candidate selection by primary
    C. elimination of the unit rule
    D. the equalization of Electoral College votes, eliminating population as a factor
    E. an increase in the number of presidential candidates per party
A

A. elimination of the Electoral College

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76
Q 
15. (p. 378) Under which president did the Electoral College selection process change to a popular vote? 
A. George Washington
B. Thomas Jefferson
C. James Madison
D. Andrew Jackson
E. Martin Van Buren
A

D. Andrew Jackson

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77
Q
  1. (p. 379) The use of the primary system to select delegates to the presidential nominating convention began in
    A. the early 1800s during the presidency of Thomas Jefferson.
    B. the 1830s during the presidency of Andrew Jackson.
    C. the early 1900s during the Progressive era.
    D. the 1930s during the presidency of Franklin Roosevelt.
    E. the 1970s in the aftermath of the Vietnam War and student protests.
A

C. the early 1900s during the Progressive era.

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78
Q
  1. (p. 379) The primary election as a means of choosing presidential nominees
    A. was introduced during the Jacksonian era.
    B. is used in Europe as well as in the United States.
    C. has been used more extensively in recent decades.
    D. is designed to strengthen the political parties.
    E. was introduced during the Cleveland era.
A

C. has been used more extensively in recent decades.

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79
Q 
18. (p. 379) After which presidential election year did the Democrats force major changes in the presidential nominating process? 
A. 1948
B. 1960
C. 1968
D. 1984
E. 1992
A

C. 1968

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80
Q
  1. (p. 380) The invisible primary
    A. takes place in the year prior to a presidential election.
    B. is typically won by the person who is either the most liberal or the most conservative.
    C. takes place in the Republican Party, but not the Democratic Party.
    D. takes place in the Democratic Party, but not the Republican Party.
    E. is another term for the presidential caucuses.
A

A. takes place in the year prior to a presidential election.

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81
Q
  1. (p. 380) Candidate strategy in the early presidential nominating contests is designed chiefly to gain
    A. momentum.
    B. the support of the party’s organizational leaders.
    C. the support of the party’s congressional leaders.
    D. the endorsement of the mass media.
    E. the support of partisan rivals.
A

A. momentum.

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82
Q 
21. (p. 380) This state typically holds the first presidential caucus: 
A. Kansas.
B. Minnesota.
C. Iowa.
D. Nevada.
E. Nebraska.
A

C. Iowa.

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83
Q 
22. (p. 380) This state typically holds the first presidential primary: 
A. Vermont.
B. New Hampshire.
C. New York.
D. California.
E. Florida.
A

B. New Hampshire.

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84
Q 
23. (p. 381) Through the 2012 presidential election, the most money ever spent to win a party's nomination for president was by this candidate: 
A. Hillary Clinton in 2008.
B. George W. Bush in 2000.
C. Mitt Romney in 2012.
D. Barack Obama in 2008.
E. Mitt Romney in 2008.
A

D. Barack Obama in 2008.

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85
Q
  1. (p. 382) The selection of the vice presidential nominee at the national convention is based on the
    A. results of the primaries and caucuses; the candidate who places second in these contests is nominated as the running mate of the candidate who finishes first.
    B. convention delegates’ judgment as to the candidate who would make the best vice president.
    C. results of public opinion polls taken just before the convention begins.
    D. presidential nominee’s choice of a running mate.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. presidential nominee’s choice of a running mate.

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86
Q 
25. (p. 382) In 2012, Mitt Romney selected \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as his vice presidential running mate. 
A. Sarah Palin
B. Dick Cheney
C. John Roberts
D. Paul Ryan
E. John Boehner
A

D. Paul Ryan

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87
Q 
26. (p. 383) What is the total number of votes in the Electoral College? 
A. 100
B. 435
C. 538
D. 765
E. 1,024
A

C. 538

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88
Q 
27. (p. 383) How many Electoral College votes are needed to secure victory for a presidential candidate? 
A. 51
B. 218
C. 270
D. 321
E. 430
A

C. 270

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89
Q 
28. (p. 383) Over the last 80 years, the most successful third party or independent presidential candidate has been 
A. Henry Wallace in 1948.
B. George Wallace in 1968.
C. Ralph Nader in 2004.
D. John Anderson in 1980.
E. Ross Perot in 1992.
A

E. Ross Perot in 1992.

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90
Q
  1. (p. 383) According to the U.S. Constitution, if no one candidate receives a majority vote of the Electoral College, who chooses the president?
    A. the U.S. Senate
    B. the U.S. House of Representatives
    C. both the Senate and House in joint session
    D. the Supreme Court
    E. the people, in a runoff election
A

B. the U.S. House of Representatives

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91
Q 
30. (p. 383) Which of the following presidents failed to win an electoral majority, but still won the presidency by decision of the House of Representatives? 
A. John Quincy Adams
B. Rutherford B. Hayes
C. Benjamin Harrison
D. George W. Bush
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. John Quincy Adams

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92
Q 
31. (p. 383) The U.S. House of Representatives last decided the outcome of a presidential election in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1928
B. 1892
C. 1856
D. 1824
E. 1800
A

D. 1824

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93
Q
  1. (p. 383) States that apply the unit rule
    A. grant all their electoral votes as a unit to the candidate who wins the state’s popular vote.
    B. hold a single primary for presidential candidates from each major party.
    C. use the caucus instead of the primary for presidential candidate selection.
    D. do not use the Electoral College system.
    E. are not considered to be states in which there is a competitive race between candidates.
A

A. grant all their electoral votes as a unit to the candidate who wins the state’s popular vote.

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94
Q 
33. (p. 383) The only two states that are exceptions to the unit rule are 
A. Michigan and Montana.
B. New Hampshire and Vermont.
C. Maine and Nebraska.
D. Georgia and Louisiana.
E. Rhode Island and Oregon.
A

C. Maine and Nebraska.

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95
Q
  1. (p. 384) Whereas today candidates rely on the media, previously they based their campaigns on the
    A. work of grass-roots organizers.
    B. party organizations.
    C. mass mailing of campaign literature.
    D. staging of personal appearances.
    E. efforts of friendly civilian and corporate group efforts.
A

B. party organizations

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96
Q 
35. (p. 385) Which of the following states gives one Electoral College vote to the winner of each congressional district and two Electoral College votes to the statewide winner? 
A. Texas
B. Maine
C. New York
D. New Hampshire
E. Iowa
A

B. Maine

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97
Q 
36. (p. 385) Which of the following states is MOST likely to vote Democratic in the next presidential election? 
A. Washington
B. North Carolina
C. Montana
D. Ohio
E. Indiana
A

A. Washington

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98
Q 
37. (p. 385) Which of the following states is MOST likely to vote Republican in the next presidential election? 
A. Pennsylvania
B. New York
C. Vermont
D. Colorado
E. Texas
A

E. Texas

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99
Q 
38. (p. 385) Which of the following states is MOST likely to be a battleground state in the next presidential election? 
A. North Dakota
B. New York
C. Alabama
D. Colorado
E. California
A

D. Colorado

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100
Q
  1. (p. 386) Which of the following is a formal constitutional requirement for becoming president?
    A. must be at least 40 years of age
    B. must be a resident in the United States for at least 10 years
    C. must be a natural-born citizen
    D. must be a white male
    E. must be a Protestant
A

C. must be a natural-born citizen

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101
Q 
40. (p. 387) Which one of the following did NOT serve as a state governor prior to being president? 
A. Ronald Reagan
B. Bill Clinton
C. John Kennedy
D. George W. Bush
E. Jimmy Carter
A

C. John Kennedy

102
Q
  1. (p. 388) Which of the following is true of the vice presidency?
    A. Presidents in the nineteenth century paid more attention to their vice presidents and granted them more authority.
    B. The Constitution assigns no executive authority to the vice president.
    C. Jimmy Carter reduced the power of the vice presidency by removing the vice president’s office from the White House.
    D. The constitutional powers of the vice presidency have been increased by Congress twice during U.S. history.
    E. Daniel Webster and Henry Clay accepted nominations to the vice presidency as stepping stones to the presidency.
A

B. The Constitution assigns no executive authority to the vice president.

103
Q 
42. (p. 389) The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 1789
B. 1804
C. 1865
D. 1888
E. 1939
A

E. 1939

104
Q 
43. (p. 389) Which of the following is part of the Executive Office of the President? 
A. Office of Management and Budget
B. National Economic Council
C. National Security Council
D. Office of Legislative Affairs
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

105
Q 
44. (p. 389) The presidential advisory unit that, as a whole, has declined significantly as an advisory resource for the president in the twentieth century is the 
A. National Economic Council.
B. Office of Management and Budget.
C. White House Office.
D. National Security Council.
E. Cabinet (as a whole).
A

E. Cabinet (as a whole).

106
Q 
45. (p. 390) The president is able to appoint about \_\_\_\_\_ people to top positions in the administration. 
A. 250
B. 800
C. 2,000
D. 8,000
E. 24,000
A

C. 2,000

107
Q
  1. (p. 392) The president is LEAST likely to get his way with
    A. the courts.
    B. the bureaucracy.
    C. the Executive Office of the President.
    D. Congress.
    E. his or her chief of staff.
A

D. Congress.

108
Q 
47. (p. 392) Because of the circumstances of the country, this president was able to accomplish more in the first few months of his presidency than any other president: 
A. Ronald Reagan.
B. Dwight Eisenhower.
C. Richard Nixon.
D. Barack Obama.
E. Franklin Roosevelt.
A

E. Franklin Roosevelt.

109
Q
  1. (p. 394) The honeymoon period occurs during
    A. a president’s second term only.
    B. the first part of a president’s term.
    C. the period of a president’s term immediately following a successful foreign policy initiative.
    D. the period of a president’s term immediately following a successful domestic policy initiative.
    E. the State of the Union address.
A

B. the first part of a president’s term.

110
Q
  1. (p. 394) A president is likely to propose the most new programs
    A. during his or her first year in office.
    B. after reelection to a second term.
    C. immediately after Congress enacts a major presidential initiative.
    D. when international conditions are stable.
    E. during his or her last year in office.
A

A. during his or her first year in office.

111
Q 
50. (p. 395) Political scientist Aaron Wildavsky's "two presidencies" thesis holds that a president is likely to be most successful with Congress on policy initiatives involving 
A. social welfare policy.
B. foreign policy.
C. tax policy.
D. economic policy.
E. environmental policy
A

B. foreign policy.

112
Q
  1. (p. 396) Why did President Obama sign the 2014 farm bill?
    A. He wanted the support of farm states for his reelection bid.
    B. It was almost exactly the bill he wanted.
    C. It was close to the bill he wanted, with a few exceptions.
    D. He recognized he had no chance of getting a better farm bill.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. He recognized he had no chance of getting a better farm bill.

113
Q
  1. (p. 397) Which of the following is true of the president’s veto power?
    A. Presidents are limited in their use of the veto on legislation directly affecting national security or economic policy.
    B. The threat of a veto has never proven to be enough to make Congress bend to the president’s demands.
    C. Congress can usually muster the two-thirds majority in each chamber required to override a presidential veto.
    D. The veto is as much a sign of presidential weakness as of strength, because it arises when Congress refuses to accept the president’s ideas.
    E. President George W. Bush used the veto less and less during the course of his presidency so as not to cause his popularity to fall.
A

D. The veto is as much a sign of presidential weakness as of strength, because it arises when Congress refuses to accept the president’s ideas.

114
Q 
53. (p. 397) Political scientist Richard Neustadt argues that the most important presidential power is the power to 
A. threaten.
B. persuade.
C. veto.
D. make war.
E. appoint Supreme Court justices.
A

B. persuade.

115
Q
  1. (p. 398) What is the MOST important factor that determines whether or not a president will get what he wants from Congress?
    A. the partisan makeup of Congress
    B. how often the president threatens to veto bills
    C. whether or not the president has ever served in Congress
    D. the president’s ability to do personal favors for members of Congress
    E. whether a president is serving a first term or a second term
A

A. the partisan makeup of Congress

116
Q 
55. (p. 399) If the U.S. House of Representatives chooses to impeach a president, who conducts the trial? 
A. the U.S. Supreme Court
B. the U.S. House of Representatives
C. the U.S. Senate
D. the Federal Bureau of Investigation
E. the Department of Justice
A

C. the U.S. Senate

117
Q
  1. (p. 399) The forced removal of a president from office through impeachment and conviction requires action by the
    A. House of Representatives only.
    B. Senate only.
    C. House and Senate in a joint session.
    D. House and Senate in separate proceedings.
    E. Supreme Court in a judicial proceeding.
A

insert but probably:

D. House and Senate in separate proceedings

118
Q 
57. (p. 399) This president narrowly survived an impeachment conviction: 
A. Andrew Johnson.
B. John Quincy Adams.
C. Theodore Roosevelt.
D. Warren Harding.
E. Calvin Coolidge.
A

A. Andrew Johnson.

119
Q 
58. (p. 399) How many presidents have been impeached in U.S. history? 
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
A

C. 2

120
Q
  1. (p. 400) The War Powers Act was enacted in order to
    A. guide the military in its use of force in field situations where it is impractical to seek direction from the president.
    B. allow the president more leeway in committing U.S. troops to combat.
    C. define the relationship between the United States and its allies.
    D. limit the president’s war-making power.
    E. weaken Congress in foreign policy matters.
A

D. limit the president’s war-making power.

121
Q
  1. (p. 400) Which of the following is a provision of the War Powers Act?
    A. It prohibits the president from sending troops into combat.
    B. It requires hostilities to end within sixty days unless Congress extends the period.
    C. It requires Congress to consult with the president whenever feasible before passing measures that will restrict president-ordered military action.
    D. It requires the president to inform Congress within one month of the reason for the military action.
    E. It removes from Congress the power to restrict the timing or size of president-initiated military actions.
A

B. It requires hostilities to end within sixty days unless Congress extends the period.

122
Q
  1. (p. 402) A president’s policy initiatives are significantly more successful when the president
    A. has the strong support of the American people.
    B. is a former member of Congress.
    C. is on good terms with other world leaders.
    D. is in office when the economy goes bad, which creates a demand for stronger leadership.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. has the strong support of the American people.

123
Q 
62. (p. 402) Which president was helped by a strong economy during his reelection bid? 
A. Jimmy Carter
B. Gerald Ford
C. Bill Clinton
D. George H. W. Bush
E. Barack Obama
A

C. Bill Clinton

124
Q 
63. (p. 404) In the modern era, the equivalent practice of using the presidency as a bully pulpit (Theodore Roosevelt) could best be summed up in the phrase, "\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_." 
A. going public
B. spin control
C. air wars
D. lobbying the bureaucracy
E. manipulating the media
A

A. going public

125
Q 
64. (p. 405) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was known as the "Great Communicator." 
A. Ronald Reagan
B. George H. W. Bush
C. Jimmy Carter
D. Lyndon Johnson
E. George W. Bush
A

A. Ronald Reagan

126
Q
  1. (p. 405) Which of the following describes what political scientist Hugh Heclo calls “the illusion of presidential government”?
    A. the inability of the president to influence the legislative priorities of Congress, even though the party in power pays lip-service to the president’s agenda
    B. the presidential image-building through public relations that contributes to the idea that the president is in charge of the national government
    C. the belief by the public that Congress should follow the presidential agenda, regardless of whether or not the majority part is the same party of the president
    D. the image-building that the president’s foreign policy strength lends to the rest of his agenda
    E. the image strength lent by the sheer size of the executive establishment, even though the president has little direct control over most of it
A

B. the presidential image-building through public relations that contributes to the idea that the president is in charge of the national government

127
Q 
1. (p. 409) Which federal agency was lax in requiring the proper safety procedures that could have prevented the 2010 Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico? 
A. Environmental Protection Agency
B. Department of Labor
C. Department of Transportation
D. Minerals Management Service
E. Executive Office of the President
A

D. Minerals Management Service

128
Q
  1. (p. 409) Which of the following is a principle of bureaucratic organization?
    A. hierarchical authority
    B. job specialization
    C. formalized rules
    D. hierarchical authority, job specialization, and formalized rules
    E. None of these answers is correct
A

D. hierarchical authority, job specialization, and formalized rules

129
Q
  1. (p. 410) Modern bureaucracy in America is BEST characterized in terms of
    A. inefficiency, inflexibility, and red tape.
    B. hierarchy, specialization, and rules.
    C. honesty, efficiency, and patronage.
    D. corruption, incompetence, and spoils.
    E. waste, red tape, and lack of rules.
A

B. hierarchy, specialization, and rules.

130
Q
  1. (p. 411) In promoting their agency’s goals, bureaucrats rely on
    A. their expert knowledge.
    B. the backing of the president and Congress.
    C. the support of clientele groups.
    D. all of these: their expert knowledge; the backing of the president and Congress; and the support of clientele groups.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. all of these: their expert knowledge; the backing of the president and Congress; and the support of clientele groups.

131
Q 
5. (p. 411) Which of the following agencies or departments is likely to have strong allies from a group of particular states in Congress? 
A. the Department of Defense
B. the Central Intelligence Agency
C. the Environmental Protection Agency
D. the Department of Agriculture
E. the Federal Trade Commission
A

D. the Department of Agriculture

132
Q
  1. (p. 411) In the late 1800s, rapid economic growth placed new demands on the federal government and led it to
    A. create new federal departments built around economic interests.
    B. establish the Senior Executive Service.
    C. reorganize the cabinet in order to make it the center of economic policy making.
    D. both create new federal departments built around economic interests, and establish the Senior Executive Service.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. create new federal departments built around economic interests.

133
Q 
7. (p. 411) The Department of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was founded in 1889. 
A. Health and Human Services
B. State
C. Labor
D. Homeland Security
E. Agriculture
A

E. Agriculture

134
Q 
8. (p. 412) The number of employees in the federal bureaucracy is about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. 10 million
B. 2.5 million
C. 5 million
D. 700,000
E. 1 million
A

B. 2.5 million

135
Q
  1. (p. 412) Compared to the president and Congress, the bureaucracy
    A. is held in higher esteem by the public.
    B. is authorized by a constitutional amendment rather than by the original Constitution.
    C. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.
    D. has changed very little during the nation’s history.
    E. is more easily controlled by the voters.
A

C. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.

136
Q 
10. (p. 413) The cabinet department with the largest number of full-time civilian employees is the Department of 
A. State.
B. Defense.
C. Labor.
D. Health and Human Services.
E. Education
A

B. Defense.

137
Q 
11. (p. 414) The Department of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was created in 2002. 
A. Transportation
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Veterans Affairs
E. Homeland Security
A

E. Homeland Security

138
Q
  1. (p. 414) Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the typical independent agency?
    A. It has a more narrow area of responsibility than that of cabinet departments.
    B. Its head is appointed by an independent commission.
    C. It is divided into a number of smaller operating units.
    D. It exists independently of cabinet departments.
    E. Its head is appointed by the president.
A

B. Its head is appointed by an independent commission.

139
Q 
13. (p. 414) Whenever Congress has a perceived need for ongoing control of an economic activity, it has tended to create a 
A. regulatory agency.
B. cabinet department.
C. presidential commission.
D. government corporation.
E. blue ribbon panel.
A

A. regulatory agency

140
Q
  1. (p. 414) The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are
    A. all agencies within cabinet departments.
    B. all independent agencies.
    C. respectively, an independent agency, an agency within a cabinet department, and a regulatory agency.
    D. two cabinet departments and a regulatory agency.
    E. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency.
A

E. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency.

141
Q 
15. (p. 414) Federal regulatory agencies have responsibility primarily in the area of 
A. economic policy.
B. social welfare policy.
C. foreign and defense policy.
D. law enforcement policy.
E. environmental policy.
A

A. economic policy.

142
Q
  1. (p. 414) Regulatory agencies have
    A. administrative, legislative, and judicial functions.
    B. legislative and executive functions, but no judicial functions.
    C. adjudicative and law enforcement functions.
    D. multilateral, law enforcement, and executive functions.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. administrative, legislative, and judicial functions.

143
Q 
17. (p. 416) Amtrak is an example of a(n) 
A. cabinet department.
B. government corporation.
C. independent agency.
D. regulatory agency.
E. presidential commission.
A

B. government corporation.

144
Q
  1. (p. 416) Most federal employees are hired on the basis of
    A. merit criteria.
    B. patronage.
    C. previous job experience in the private sector.
    D. the personal preferences of immediate supervisors.
    E. a lottery system.
A

A. merit criteria.

145
Q
  1. (p. 416) When it was developed during the Jackson administration, the patronage system was designed to
    A. provide jobs to merit appointees.
    B. tie the administration more closely to the people it served.
    C. increase congressional control of the bureaucracy.
    D. increase judicial control of the bureaucracy.
    E. provide jobs to lawyers.
A

B. tie the administration more closely to the people it served.

146
Q
  1. (p. 416) As distinct from the patronage system, the merit system for managing the bureaucracy
    A. allows the president to appoint top officials of executive agencies, thus making the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes.
    B. provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy, thus giving it greater coordination and direction.
    C. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.
    D. provides that all programs will be evaluated regularly to determine whether they merit continued funding.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

C. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.

147
Q 
21. (p. 417) The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ established a merit system for certain federal positions. 
A. Morrill Act
B. Hatch Act
C. Pendleton Act
D. Taft-Hartley Act
E. National Performance Review
A

C. Pendleton Act

148
Q
  1. (p. 417) The federal bureaucracy today is
    A. extremely wasteful and unresponsive to the public it serves.
    B. an ineffective institution in comparison with bureaucracies of democracies with unitary systems.
    C. more responsive to the public at large than to the particular interests that depend on its various programs.
    D. a mix of the patronage and merit systems.
    E. mostly dominated by patronage politics.
A

D. a mix of the patronage and merit systems

149
Q
  1. (p. 417) The administrative concept of neutral competence holds that the bureaucracy should
    A. be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens.
    B. stay out of conflicts between Congress and the president.
    C. be structured on the basis of the principles of specialization, hierarchy, and formal rules.
    D. not allow in-fighting between agencies.
    E. be staffed by partisan presidents.
A

A. be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens.

150
Q
  1. (p. 417-418) Which of the following is true of federal employees and labor unions?
    A. Federal employees are prohibited from forming labor unions.
    B. Federal employees can form labor unions, but their unions by law have limited authority.
    C. There are no restrictions on the creation and powers of labor unions by federal employees.
    D. Among federal employees, only employees of government corporations can legally form labor unions.
    E. Federal employees can form labor unions but are not allowed to participate in collective bargaining.
A

B. Federal employees can form labor unions, but their unions by law have limited authority.

151
Q
  1. (p. 418) Federal civil service employees cannot legally
    A. be fired from their jobs.
    B. go on strike.
    C. belong to a union.
    D. be restricted in their election activities.
    E. contribute to political campaigns.
A

B. go on strike.

152
Q
  1. (p. 418) At the start of the annual budget cycle, the OMB assigns each agency a budget limit based on
    A. the president’s directives.
    B. its own projections of what is affordable.
    C. the Justice Department’s instructions.
    D. Congressional guidelines.
    E. the guidelines of the Commerce Department.
A

A. the president’s directives.

153
Q
  1. (p. 419) Which of the following steps in the federal budgetary process occurs EARLIEST?
    A. agencies work on their budgets
    B. president consults with OMB on agency instructions
    C. Congress completes work on appropriations bills
    D. Congress adopts a budget resolution
    E. president submits budget proposals to Congress
A

A. agencies work on their budgets

154
Q
  1. (p. 419) Which of the following steps in the federal budgetary process occurs LATEST?
    A. agencies work on their budgets
    B. president consults with OMB on agency instructions
    C. Congress completes work on appropriations bills
    D. Congress adopts a budget resolution
    E. president submits budget proposals to Congress
A

C. Congress completes work on appropriations bills

155
Q
  1. (p. 420) Upon reaching Congress, what first happens to the president’s budget proposal?
    A. It is subjected to floor debate.
    B. It goes to the House and Senate budget committees.
    C. It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
    D. It is marked up by the full Senate before moving to the House.
    E. It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees.
A

B. It goes to the House and Senate budget committees.

156
Q 
30. (p. 420) What is the congressional equivalent of the Office of Management and Budget? 
A. House Appropriations Committee
B. Senate Appropriations Committee
C. Congressional Budget Office
D. House Sergeant at Arms
E. General Accounting Office
A

C. Congressional Budget Office

157
Q
  1. (p. 420) What happens to the president’s budget if it is approved by a vote of the House and Senate?
    A. It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
    B. It has reached its final approval and is implemented.
    C. It is sent to the president to sign or veto.
    D. It is given to the president for any further executive changes to be added.
    E. It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees for implementation.
A

insert but probably:

C. It is sent to the president to sign or veto.

158
Q 
32. (p. 421) The federal government's fiscal year starts on 
A. January 1.
B. March 1.
C. April 15.
D. July 1.
E. October 1.
A

E. October 1.

159
Q
  1. (p. 421) Policy implementation refers to the bureaucratic function of
    A. carrying out decisions made by Congress, the president, and the courts.
    B. regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations.
    C. delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy.
    D. both regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations, and delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. carrying out decisions made by Congress, the president, and the courts.

160
Q
  1. (p. 422) What “multiple-use” policy is the U.S. Forest Service tasked with?
    A. preserving forests for recreation, and protecting endangered species
    B. preserving forests in response to environmental concerns, and coordinating with the National Park Service for creating park lands
    C. serving both the interests of lumber sellers and mining interests
    D. opening up forests both for logging and promoting clean air
    E. preserving forests for environmental reasons, and opening them up for logging
A

E. preserving forests for environmental reasons, and opening them up for logging

161
Q 
35. (p. 423) Bureaucrats tend to follow 
A. the wishes of the president.
B. the wishes of Congress.
C. their own agency's point of view.
D. the expectations of the general public.
E. the wishes of federal judges.
A

C. their own agency’s point of view.

162
Q 
36. (p. 424) Bureaucrats are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and elected officials are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. generalists; specialists
B. generalists; generalists
C. specialists; generalists
D. specialists; specialists
E. popular; unpopular
A

C. specialists; generalists

163
Q
  1. (p. 425) ________ is/are most likely to understand trade issues in the United States.
    A. The president
    B. Members of the Senate
    C. Career bureaucrats in the Department of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission
    D. Members of the House
    E. Federal mediators
A

C. Career bureaucrats in the Department of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission

164
Q 
38. (p. 425) The special interests that benefit directly from a bureaucratic agency's programs are called 
A. clientele groups.
B. pressure groups.
C. entitlement groups.
D. programmatic groups.
E. recipient groups.
A

A. clientele groups.

165
Q
  1. (p. 425) The importance of clientele groups was especially clear in 1995 when House Speaker Newt Gingrich threatened to “zero out” funding for the
    A. Social Security System.
    B. Corporation for Public Broadcasting.
    C. Department of Agriculture.
    D. drug education program administered by Health and Human Services.
    E. U.S. Postal Service.
A

B. Corporation for Public Broadcasting

166
Q 
40. (p. 426) Regarding the educational background of bureaucrats, high-ranking civil servants in continental Europe, compared to American bureaucrats, tend to have a college major specializing in 
A. natural sciences and engineering.
B. law.
C. social sciences and the humanities.
D. business management.
E. journalism.
A

B. law.

167
Q
  1. (p. 428) Studies have found that the U.S. federal bureaucracy
    A. becomes far less effective as it grows over time.
    B. is much less accountable than the bureaucracies of European democracies.
    C. compares favorably in performance to government bureaucracies elsewhere.
    D. is one of the least representative of minorities compared to others worldwide.
    E. falls far short of the effectiveness of most foreign bureaucracies.
A

C. compares favorably in performance to government bureaucracies elsewhere.

168
Q
  1. (p. 428) What were the “reinventing teams”?
    A. teams appointed by Congress to propose budget cuts to the federal bureaucracy
    B. groups of executive officials that were under the influence of “agency capture”
    C. Congressional committees designed to find ways to reduce the size of the national bureaucracy
    D. teams that were formed under the National Performance Review to analyze and make recommendations about bureaucratic effectiveness
    E. teams appointed by Congress to decide which branches of the federal bureaucracy could be eliminated
A

D. teams that were formed under the National Performance Review to analyze and make recommendations about bureaucratic effectiveness

169
Q
  1. (p. 429) The National Performance Review addressed which of the following issues about the bureaucracy?
    A. responsiveness
    B. accountability
    C. efficiency
    D. all of these issues: responsiveness, accountability, and efficiency
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. all of these issues: responsiveness, accountability, and efficiency

170
Q 
44. (p. 429) Which of the following was the most recent broad initiative aimed at making the bureaucracy more responsive? 
A. the Brownlow Commission
B. the National Performance Review
C. the Hoover Commission
D. the Volcker Commission
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. the National Performance Review

171
Q 
45. (p. 430) The president can hire about \_\_\_\_\_ full-time partisan employees to help him or her implement the presidential agenda. 
A. 60
B. 150
C. 400
D. 600
E. 2,000
A

E. 2,000

172
Q 
46. (p. 431) The typical presidential appointee spends about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on the job before leaving for other employment. 
A. six months
B. one year
C. two years
D. three years
E. four years
A

C. two years

173
Q 
47. (p. 432) In terms of holding the bureaucracy accountable, the MOST important unit within the Executive Office of the President is the 
A. Office of Policy Development.
B. Office of Management and Budget.
C. Council of Economic Advisors.
D. White House Office.
E. Office of the Vice President.
A

B. Office of Management and Budget.

174
Q
  1. (p. 433) How has the Government Accountability Office’s role changed?
    A. It has acquired wide judicial and adjudication powers to deal with inter-agency disputes.
    B. It has changed from a presidential-executive support agency to largely a congressional support agency.
    C. It has been given broader powers over time to actually grant additional funds or take away funds directly from agencies.
    D. It has had its broad powers limited from general oversight down to keeping track of agency spending.
    E. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress intended.
A

E. It has moved from a limited role of keeping track of agency spending to also monitoring whether the agency is implementing policies in the way Congress intended.

175
Q
  1. (p. 433) Congress oversees the bureaucracy by using
    A. sunset provisions.
    B. the Government Accounting Office.
    C. oversight hearings.
    D. all of these: sunset provisions, the Government Accounting Office, and oversight hearings.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. all of these: sunset provisions, the Government Accounting Office, and oversight hearings.

176
Q 
50. (p. 433) Legally, the bureaucracy derives general authority for its programs from 
A. acts of Congress.
B. federalism.
C. regulatory rulings.
D. court rulings.
E. the will of the people.
A

A. acts of Congress.

177
Q
  1. (p. 433) The courts have tended to support administrators as long as their agencies
    A. choose rules that save money.
    B. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.
    C. follow what the president demands of them.
    D. have adequate funding.
    E. don’t come into conflict with state governments.
A

B. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.

178
Q 
52. (p. 434) The Senior Executive Service was established in \_\_\_\_ and consists of about \_\_\_\_\_ career civil servants. 
A. 1887; 800
B. 1911; 800
C. 1933; 1,300
D. 1961: 1,300
E. 1978; 7,000
A

E. 1978; 7,000

179
Q
  1. (p. 434) The Senior Executive Service (SES)
    A. is composed of civil employees that can be fired more easily than normal career civil servants.
    B. was designed to combat abuse of the patronage system.
    C. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.
    D. has been more successful in practice than its proponents anticipated.
    E. assigns most of its senior executives to work within a different agency than the one in which they originally worked
A

C. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.

180
Q
  1. (p. 434) When an individual believes that he or she was improperly disadvantaged by a bureaucrat’s decision and contests the decision, the dispute is usually handled by
    A. an administrative law judge.
    B. a congressional oversight committee.
    C. a federal appeals court.
    D. a departmental or agency adjudication office.
    E. the Supreme Court.
A

A. an administrative law judge.

181
Q
  1. (p. 435) An administrative law judge
    A. usually works in any agency that needs her or his services.
    B. runs trials, but all decisions are made by juries.
    C. can gather evidence and take testimony.
    D. issues only advisory opinions.
    E. seeks to protect federal agencies, not individual citizens.
A

A. usually works in any agency that needs her or his services.

182
Q
  1. (p. 436) Which of the following is true of the federal government’s demographic representativeness?
    A. Because the federal government has reduced efforts to specifically promote women and minorities, the proportion of white males that hold top administration positions has increased in recent years.
    B. If all employees are taken into account, the federal bureaucracy comes reasonably close to being representative of the nation’s population.
    C. Women and minorities are better represented in Congress and the judiciary than they are among the top ranks of administrators.
    D. The concept of a demographically representative civil service was first endorsed by President Reagan in 1984.
    E. There has been much more improvement in the representation of minorities in the civil service than in the representation of women.
A

B. If all employees are taken into account, the federal bureaucracy comes reasonably close to being representative of the nation’s population.

183
Q
  1. (p. 437) Which group saw the LARGEST percentage increase of GS 13-15 jobs between 1982 and 2011?
    A. Blacks
    B. Hispanics
    C. women
    D. white men
    E. All of these groups had about the same percentage increase.
A

C. women

184
Q 
58. (p. 437) About three in every five managerial and professional positions in the federal bureaucracy are held by 
A. women.
B. white males.
C. African Americans.
D. Latino Americans.
E. Asian Americans.
A

B. white males.

185
Q
  1. (p. 441) In its ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court
    A. invalidated the use of union money in federal election campaigns.
    B. lifted restrictions in corporate and union spending in federal election campaigns.
    C. placed restrictions on the amounts that individuals can donate to federal election campaigns.
    D. placed limits on the amounts that corporations can donate to federal election campaigns.
    E. eliminated the provision for matching federal campaign funds in presidential elections.
A

B. lifted restrictions in corporate and union spending in federal election campaigns.

186
Q
  1. (p. 442) In Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court
    A. issued a decision that led to a decrease in political spending in campaigns.
    B. upheld the 2002 Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act.
    C. ruled that corporations cannot legally be considered persons.
    D. illustrated that it is a political body.
    E. nullified the power of the Federal Election Commission to monitor campaign spending.
A

D. illustrated that it is a political body.

187
Q
  1. (p. 443) Federal judges are
    A. nominated by the Senate and approved by both houses of Congress.
    B. nominated by the president and approved by the Senate.
    C. nominated by the president and approved by both houses of Congress.
    D. elected by majority vote in their respective districts.
    E. elected by majority vote in their respective states.
A

B. nominated by the president and approved by the Senate.

188
Q
  1. (p. 443) What are the constitutional requirements to be a federal judge?
    A. at least 30 years old and a citizen of the United States
    B. at least 25 years old and a citizen of the United States
    C. at least 30 years old and a resident of the specific judicial district
    D. at least 30 years old and a lawyer in good standing with the state bar
    E. There are no constitutional requirements to be a federal judge.
A

E. There are no constitutional requirements to be a federal judge.

189
Q
  1. (p. 443) The constitutional provision that federal judges and justices hold office “during good behavior” has
    A. meant, in effect, that they will serve until they die or choose to retire.
    B. provided them the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress.
    C. enabled presidents to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.
    D. had all of these effects: Federal judges and justices serve, effectively, until they die or choose to retire; they are provided the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress; and presidents are able to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. had all these effects: Federal judges and justices serve, effectively, until they die or choose to retire; they are provided the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress; and presidents are able to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after leaving the White House.

190
Q
  1. (p. 443-444) Federal judges are
    A. nominated by the president.
    B. confirmed by the U.S. Senate.
    C. appointed for an indefinite period, providing they maintain “good behavior.”
    D. all of these: nominated by the president, confirmed by the U.S. Senate, and appointed for an indefinite period providing they maintain “good behavior.”
    E. None of these answers is correct
A

D. all of these: nominated by the president, confirmed by the U.S. Senate, and appointed for an indefinite period providing they maintain “good behavior.”

191
Q
  1. (p. 444) How long do federal judges serve?
    A. two years
    B. four years
    C. eight years
    D. ten years
    E. until they retire, die, or are removed through the impeachment and conviction process
A

E. until they retire, die, or are removed through the impeachment and conviction process

192
Q
  1. (p. 445) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in legal disputes involving
    A. foreign diplomats.
    B. the president.
    C. the Congress.
    D. private parties.
    E. free speech and equal protection issues.
A

A. foreign diplomats.

193
Q
  1. (p. 445) The power of the Supreme Court is MOST apparent in its ability to
    A. issue advisory opinions when Congress is considering a new bill.
    B. impeach federal judges who consistently ignore its rulings.
    C. declare another institution’s action to be unconstitutional.
    D. override any decision of a state court.
    E. issue advisory opinions to the president on a regular basis.
A

C. declare another institution’s action to be unconstitutional.

194
Q
  1. (p. 445) A writ of certiorari is
    A. a request to a lower court to submit to the Supreme Court a record of the case it has been requested to hear.
    B. the statement explaining the reasoning behind a Supreme Court decision.
    C. the official transcript of Supreme Court proceedings.
    D. a statement from a group not directly involved in a Supreme Court case, indicating the group’s opinion on the legal issue at hand.
    E. an application for a waiver of court fees due to indigence.
A

A. a request to a lower court to submit to the Supreme Court a record of the case it has been requested to hear.

195
Q 
11. (p. 445) The Supreme Court is MOST likely to grant \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ when the U.S. government—through the solicitor general—requests it. 
A. original jurisdiction
B. certiorari
C. a per curiam decision
D. a writ of error
E. mandamus
A

B. certiorari

196
Q 
12. (p. 446) The Supreme Court issues about \_\_ opinions a year. 
A. 10
B. 30
C. 85
D. 200
E. 450
A

C. 85

197
Q
  1. (p. 446-447) Regarding Supreme Court procedures, which one of the following statements is NOT accurate?
    A. When part of the majority, the chief justice decides which justice will write the majority opinion.
    B. A concurring opinion is a view written by a justice who votes with the majority and agrees with its reasoning.
    C. A dissenting opinion is an opinion of a judge who votes against the majority.
    D. Attorneys who argue a case before the Supreme Court operate under strict time limits.
    E. The Court has broad standards in choosing the cases it will hear.
A

B. A concurring opinion is a view written by a justice who votes with the majority and agrees with its reasoning.

198
Q
  1. (p. 447) A concurring opinion
    A. explains the chief justice’s position on a case.
    B. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.
    C. is delivered when the Court interprets a constitutional issue.
    D. is delivered when at least two justices, but less than a majority, hold the same opinion in a case.
    E. explains why the Court accepted the case in the first place.
A

B. is a separate view written by a justice who votes with the majority but disagrees with its reasoning.

199
Q 
15. (p. 447) A written Supreme Court opinion that, in the absence of a majority opinion, represents the reasoning of most of the justices who side with the winning party is a 
A. plurality opinion.
B. concurring opinion.
C. leading opinion.
D. prevailing opinion.
E. per curiam.
A

A. plurality opinion.

200
Q 
16. (p. 447) A written Supreme Court opinion that disagrees with what the majority of the justices decided is a 
A. majority opinion.
B. plurality opinion.
C. dissenting opinion.
D. concurring opinion.
E. adjunct opinion.
A

C. dissenting opinion.

201
Q 
17. (p. 447) A written Supreme Court opinion that describes what the majority of the justices decided is a 
A. majority opinion.
B. plurality opinion.
C. dissenting opinion.
D. concurring opinion.
E. adjunct opinion.
A

A. majority opinion.

202
Q
  1. (p. 447) Compared with the decision in a Supreme Court case, the opinion is more significant because it
    A. determines the losing party in a case and the penalty to be imposed on this party.
    B. reveals the conflicts between the justices, which the president and Congress can use in determining their position on judicial appointments and new legislation.
    C. informs others of the Court’s interpretation of the laws and thereby guides their decisions.
    D. addresses the constitutional aspects of a case, whereas the decision addresses the statutory aspects.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. informs others of the Court’s interpretation of the laws and thereby guides their decisions.

203
Q
  1. (p. 447) With regard to the lower courts, the Supreme Court’s primary responsibility is
    A. establishing legal precedents that will guide their decisions.
    B. correcting any technical mistakes the lower courts make in the cases they hear.
    C. settling jurisdictional disputes among federal judges.
    D. settling jurisdictional disputes between state and federal judges.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

insert but probably:

A. establishing legal precedents that will guide their decisions.

204
Q 
20. (p. 447) The lowest level of the federal court system is the 
A. circuit court of appeal.
B. highest level of the state courts.
C. district court.
D. justice of the peace.
E. supreme judicial tribunal.
A

C. district court.

205
Q 
21. (p. 447) There are \_\_ federal district courts. 
A. 2
B. 13
C. 50
D. 94
E. 435
A

D. 94

206
Q
  1. (p. 447-448) The federal district courts
    A. are the chief trial courts of the federal system.
    B. are the only federal courts where the two sides present their case to a jury for a verdict.
    C. are the courts that, in practice, make the final decision in most federal cases.
    D. exist in each state.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

207
Q
  1. (p. 448) Although federal district courts are theoretically bound by Supreme Court precedents, they sometimes deviate because
    A. the facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of similar cases decided by the Supreme Court.
    B. federal judges may misunderstand the Court’s judicial reasoning or position.
    C. ambiguities or unaddressed issues in Supreme Court rulings give lower courts some flexibility in deciding cases.
    D. of all these factors: the facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of similar cases decided by the Supreme Court; federal judges may misunderstand the Court’s judicial reasoning or position; and ambiguities or unaddressed issues in the Court’s rulings give lower courts some flexibility in deciding cases.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. of all these factors: the facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of similar cases decided by the Supreme Court; federal judges may misunderstand the Court’s judicial reasoning or position; and ambiguities or unaddressed issues in the Court’s rulings give lower courts some flexibility in deciding cases.

208
Q 
24. (p. 449) The U.S. courts of appeals 
A. hear new evidence in appealed cases.
B. review trial court decisions.
C. are the highest courts to use juries.
D. decide for the Supreme Court the cases it will review.
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. review trial court decisions.

209
Q 
25. (p. 449) There are \_\_ federal courts of appeal. 
A. 2
B. 13
C. 50
D. 94
E. 435
A

B. 13

210
Q
  1. (p. 449) Of the thirteen U.S. courts of appeals,
    A. all thirteen are assigned geographically to groups of states to deal with disputes over state laws.
    B. one is devoted to issues involving military tribunals and the District of Columbia.
    C. five have jurisdiction over disputes involving foreign territories or countries and the District of Columbia.
    D. eleven have jurisdiction over a “circuit” comprised of the district courts in anywhere from three to five states.
    E. three are devoted to dealing with disputes involving the overlapping contradiction between state and federal laws.
A

D. eleven have jurisdiction over a “circuit” comprised of the district courts in anywhere from three to five states.

211
Q
  1. (p. 450) The United States has two court systems, state and federal. The federal system
    A. has discretionary jurisdiction over all cases arising in the state system.
    B. is the only one with appellate courts.
    C. is the only one based on the constitutional doctrine of the separation of powers.
    D. is the only one that has judges who are appointed to office.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

E. None of these answers is correct.

212
Q 
28. (p. 450) The merit plan applies to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ court system. 
A. selection of judges; federal
B. selection of judges; state
C. jurisdiction; federal
D. jurisdiction; state
E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. selection of judges; state

213
Q
  1. (p. 450) The Supreme Court is likely to grant a hearing when a case involves
    A. an issue of state law as opposed to an issue of federal law.
    B. an issue of private law as opposed to an issue of public law.
    C. an issue that is being decided inconsistently by the lower federal courts.
    D. the possibility that an innocent person has been wrongly convicted of a crime.
    E. an issue dealing with state constitutional law.
A

C. an issue that is being decided inconsistently by the lower federal courts.

214
Q 
30. (p. 450) Fewer than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of the cases heard by federal appeals courts are later reviewed by the Supreme Court. 
A. 1
B. 10
C. 25
D. 33
E. 50
A

A. 1

215
Q
  1. (p. 450) In selecting judges, the states rely on what method?
    A. political appointment
    B. competitive elections of a partisan nature
    C. competitive elections of a nonpartisan nature
    D. merit selection
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct.

216
Q
  1. (p. 450) What is the MOST common method in the states for the selection of judges?
    A. appointment by the state supreme courts
    B. promotion from within the legal establishment
    C. appointment by the governor
    D. election to office
    E. appointment by state legislatures
A

D. election to office

217
Q
  1. (p. 450) The “federal court myth” overlooks the fact that
    A. most cases arise under state law, not federal law.
    B. nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts.
    C. federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.
    D. most cases arise under state law, not federal law; nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts; and federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. most cases arise under state law, not federal law; nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts; and federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision.

218
Q 
34. (p. 450) About \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of the nation's legal cases are decided in state court systems. 
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 95
A

E. 95

219
Q
  1. (p. 452) In most instances,
    A. criminal cases are tried in federal courts and civil cases are tried in state courts.
    B. criminal cases are tried in state courts and civil cases are tried in federal courts.
    C. both criminal cases and civil cases are tried in federal courts.
    D. both criminal cases and civil cases are tried in state courts.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

D. both criminal cases and civil cases are tried in state courts.

220
Q
  1. (p. 452) The Lawrence v. Texas decision in 2003 involved
    A. the Supreme Court reinterpreting a provision of the Constitution.
    B. the Supreme Court striking down federal law.
    C. the Supreme Court invalidating state laws.
    D. the Supreme Court striking down an executive action as unconstitutional.
    E. a U.S. appeals court upholding a lower state court ruling.
A

C. the Supreme Court invalidating state laws.

221
Q 
37. (p. 453) The appointment of federal judges is influenced MOST substantially by 
A. partisanship.
B. logrolling.
C. pork barreling.
D. affirmative action.
E. personal friendships.
A

A. partisanship.

222
Q 
38. (p. 453) When asked if he had made any mistakes as president, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ replied, "Yes, two, and they are both sitting on the Supreme Court." 
A. Ronald Reagan
B. Jimmy Carter
C. Richard Nixon
D. Lyndon Johnson
E. Dwight Eisenhower
A

E. Dwight Eisenhower

223
Q 
39. (p. 453) Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed by President Dwight Eisenhower? 
A. Sandra Day O'Connor
B. John Stevens
C. Earl Warren
D. Louis Brandeis
E. David Souter
A

C. Earl Warren

224
Q
  1. (p. 455) Senatorial courtesy refers to the tradition whereby
    A. nominees for federal judgeships are treated with respect during Senate confirmation hearings, even by senators who plan to vote against the nominee.
    B. senators usually defer to the president’s choice of Supreme Court nominees.
    C. senators are consulted on the nomination of lower-court federal judgeships in their state.
    D. nominations for the federal courts, once committee hearings are concluded, are scheduled for a vote ahead of other Senate business.
    E. House members always defer to the Senate on matters dealing with the judiciary.
A

C. senators are consulted on the nomination of lower-court federal judgeships in their state.

225
Q
  1. (p. 455) Compared to Supreme Court nominations, those for the lower federal courts
    A. are, although much greater in number, irrelevant to a president’s policy agenda.
    B. are not subject to partisan consideration.
    C. have typically involved nominees who held elective office, particularly a seat in the U.S. Senate.
    D. are not subject to senatorial courtesy.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

E. None of these answers is correct.

226
Q 
42. (p. 457) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was the first black justice to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court. 
A. Clarence Thomas
B. Antonin Scalia
C. Robert Bork
D. Thurgood Marshall
E. Laurence Tribe
A

D. Thurgood Marshall

227
Q 
43. (p. 457) Which of the following Supreme Court justices was appointed during the Clinton administration? 
A. Sandra Day O'Connor
B. Clarence Thomas
C. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
D. Robert Bork
E. John Paul Stevens
A

C. Ruth Bader Ginsburg

228
Q
  1. (p. 458) According to the Constitution, the federal courts can issue a decision only
    A. in response to actual legal cases.
    B. in cases where the U.S. government is one of the parties involved in the dispute.
    C. on cases heard previously by a state court and appealed by the losing party.
    D. in cases where the U.S. government is one of the parties involved in the dispute, and where the cases were heard previously by a state court and appealed by the losing party.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. in response to actual legal cases.

229
Q
  1. (p. 458) The laws applicable to a case
    A. reveal the relevant circumstances of the case, and are determined solely by trial courts.
    B. are more important than the facts of a case, and supersede the facts when the two conflict.
    C. constrain the judiciary, because court decisions must be based on applicable laws.
    D. apply only in the area of criminal cases and not in the area of civil disputes.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. constrain the judiciary, because court decisions must be based on applicable laws.

230
Q
  1. (p. 458) The facts of a case
    A. are largely irrelevant, in that the judiciary has wide freedom with decisions.
    B. affect which law or laws will apply to the case.
    C. are important only if the case involves a statutory dispute.
    D. are important only if the case involves a constitutional dispute.
    E. are important about 50 percent of the time.
A

B. affect which law or laws will apply to the case.

231
Q 
47. (p. 459) The term stare decisis refers to 
A. adherence to precedent.
B. judicial activism.
C. judicial restraint.
D. judicial review.
E. excessive partisanship.
A

A. adherence to precedent.

232
Q
  1. (p. 459) Precedent, while not an absolute constraint on the courts, is needed to
    A. preserve the courts as a counter majoritarian institution.
    B. maintain legal consistency over time, so confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided.
    C. check the president in the area of public law.
    D. balance the policy making authority of Congress.
    E. check the president in the area of foreign policy.
A

B. maintain legal consistency over time, so confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided.

233
Q 
49. (p. 459) A judicial decision that establishes a rule for settling subsequent cases of a similar nature is a 
A. writ of certiorari.
B. landmark decision.
C. writ of mandamus.
D. precedent.
E. writ of error.
A

D. precedent

234
Q
  1. (p. 460) Why was the Supreme Court ruling in Faragher v. City of Boca Raton, which relied on the context of the antidiscrimination provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, demonstrative of the ambiguities of the law?
    A. The case arrived at the Supreme Court without the Court requesting a writ of certiorari.
    B. The case involved administrative law, but the Court used statutory law as a basis for its decision.
    C. It involved the votes of justices that had opposed the Civil Rights Act, but who used the Civil Rights Act in the justification for their ruling.
    D. The minority dissenting opinion refused to use the Civil Rights Act as a justification.
    E. The case dealt with sexual harassment in the workplace, which is not mentioned in the Civil Rights Act.
A

E. The case dealt with sexual harassment in the workplace, which is not mentioned in the Civil Rights Act.

235
Q 
51. (p. 461) The appointment of this Supreme Court justice in 2006 swung the Supreme Court to the right: 
A. Ruth Bader Ginsburg.
B. Samuel Alito.
C. John Roberts.
D. Elena Kagan.
E. Antonin Scalia.
A

B. Samuel Alito.

236
Q 
52. (p. 462) Of the following Supreme Court justices, which has been the MOST conservative? 
A. Anthony Kennedy
B. Earl Warren
C. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
D. Clarence Thomas
E. Thurgood Marshall
A

D. Clarence Thomas

237
Q 
53. (p. 462) Of the following Supreme Court justices, which has been the MOST liberal? 
A. Anthony Kennedy
B. Earl Warren
C. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
D. Clarence Thomas
E. Thurgood Marshall
A

E. Thurgood Marshall

238
Q
  1. (p. 463) Studies by political scientists show that Supreme Court justices
    A. are strongly influenced by their political beliefs.
    B. are slightly influenced by their political beliefs.
    C. are not influenced by their political beliefs.
    D. strive to ensure that their political beliefs do not influence their decisions.
    E. all share the same political beliefs.
A

A. are strongly influenced by their political beliefs.

239
Q
  1. (p. 465) With regard to public opinion, the Supreme Court
    A. ignores it in order to make decisions that are based on enduring values rather than the public’s passing whims.
    B. remains uninformed about it because justices stay on the bench for life and never face the public scrutiny of an election.
    C. attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid outright defiance of its decisions.
    D. attempts to follow it very closely in order to create public enthusiasm for its rulings.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

C. attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid outright defiance of its decisions.

240
Q
  1. (p. 465) An amicus curiae (“friend of the court”) brief provides a court with the view held by
    A. an interest that is not a direct party to the case.
    B. the Justice Department.
    C. the House and Senate judiciary committees.
    D. the American Bar Association.
    E. the solicitor general.
A

A. an interest that is not a direct party to the case.

241
Q
  1. (p. 466) The Supreme Court decision in Marbury v. Madison is significant
    A. as the first instance of the court ruling on a state matter.
    B. as the first use of judicial activism.
    C. for the establishment of judicial review.
    D. as the first instance of the Court ruling on a disagreement between states.
    E. as the Court’s first non-majority opinion.
A

C. for the establishment of judicial review.

242
Q
  1. (p. 468) Originalism theory
    A. is a prominent philosophy among conservatives.
    B. bolsters the principles of most liberals.
    C. currently has no adherents on the Supreme Court.
    D. is easy to implement.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. is a prominent philosophy among conservatives.

243
Q
  1. (p. 469) According to living constitution theory
    A. the Supreme Court should rule as the Founding Fathers would have back in 1787.
    B. the Constitution should be adaptable to current conditions and challenges.
    C. the Supreme Court cycles between periods of judicial activism and periods of judicial restraint.
    D. there is one single Constitution rooted in natural law that applies in every country throughout history.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. the Constitution should be adaptable to current conditions and challenges.

244
Q 
60. (p. 470) Which legal doctrine holds that in nearly every instance, policy issues should be decided by elected lawmakers and not by appointed judges? 
A. judicial activism
B. judicial restraint
C. judicial legitimacy
D. appellate jurisdiction
E. judicial executive power
A

B. judicial restraint

245
Q 
61. (p. 470) Opposition to the judiciary's creative policy-making role is a consistent tenet of judicial 
A. activism.
B. liberalism.
C. restraint.
D. conservatism.
E. relativism.
A

C. restraint.

246
Q
  1. (p. 470) According to the doctrine of judicial restraint, the judiciary should
    A. defer to precedent and to decisions made by legislature.
    B. deny most appeals for retrials.
    C. deny individual rights when they conflict with the majority’s desires.
    D. decline to make any decision that requires judges to give added meaning to the words of the Constitution.
    E. conform to the will of the people as measured by public opinion polls.
A

A. defer to precedent and to decisions made by legislature.

247
Q 
63. (p. 470) The long-serving chief justice that established the principle of judicial review was 
A. Charles Evans Hughes.
B. Hugo Black.
C. Clarence Thomas.
D. John Marshall.
E. Benjamin Cardozo.
A

D. John Marshall.

248
Q
  1. (p. 470) The judiciary’s status as an independent branch of national government depends on judicial review, which grants the judiciary the authority to
    A. make political decisions; judges can overturn any congressional or presidential decision they personally dislike.
    B. decide which laws apply to a particular case.
    C. ignore public opinion when making decisions.
    D. invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally.
    E. strike down certain sections of the Constitution.
A

D. invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally.

249
Q 
65. (p. 471) Over the last fifteen or so years, the Supreme Court can BEST be said to be practicing judicial 
A. activism.
B. liberalism.
C. restraint.
D. socialism.
E. relativism.
A

A. activism.

250
Q
  1. (p. 472) The discretionary power of judges is less than that of elected officials because judges
    A. are prohibited from relying on personal judgment when deciding an issue.
    B. must make decisions that can be justified in terms of existing provisions of the law.
    C. are prohibited from addressing issues that have not been previously addressed by elected officials.
    D. are prohibited from taking into account the political consequences of a decision.
    E. must render rulings on all appeals.
A

B. must make decisions that can be justified in terms of existing provisions of the law

POLY SCI 201 (36 decks)

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