FINAL Exam Study Guide (shortened) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Party identification refers to?
    a. the percent of polled people claiming membership to a certain party
    b. formal membership to a party
    c. emotional attachment to a party
    d. a political party’s platform- the stance on issues that define its beliefs
    e. ability of citizens to identify major issue positions of the major political parties
A

C. an emotional attachment to a political party

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2
Q
  1. Currently, the greatest percentage of Americans identify as what party?
A

Independents

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following ideological types favor government activism in the economic realm?
    a. liberals and populists
    b. populists and libertarians
    c. conservatives and liberals
    d. populists and conservatives
    e. liberals and libertarians
A

a. liberals and populists

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4
Q
  1. Libertarians are opposed to governmental intervention
    a. in both the economic and social spheres
    b. in the economic but not the social sphere
    c. in the social sphere, but not the economic sphere
    d. in neither the social nor the economic spheres
    e. only with regard to affirmative action
A

a. in both the economic and social spheres

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5
Q
  1. A person who favors government intervention in both social and economic affairs is a(n)
    a. libertarian
    b. liberal
    c. populist
    d. social conservative
    e. economic conservative
A

c. populist

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following groups in the US shows a higher level of support for collective bargaining?
    a. workers in the service sector
    b. factory workers
    c. small farmers
    d. white-collar workers
    e. workers in the skilled crafts
A

b. factory workers

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7
Q
  1. Harvard’s Robert Putnam argues in his book Bowling Alone that
    a. the increase in frequency of elections in the United States has increased the level of general voter apathy.
    b. community participation among young adults has risen in the past two decades because of new media technologies like Internet activism.
    c. voter apathy is only going to increase as long as we maintain a two-party system.
    d. a proportional representation system in the legislature would increase voter turnout.
    e. America has been undergoing a long-term decline in its social capital
A

e. America has been undergoing a long-term decline in its social capital

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8
Q
  1. The first American political parties emerged from the conflict between
    a. slave states and free states
    b. the older eastern states and the newer western states
    c. small farmers and states’ rights advocates, and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests
    d. business and labor
    e. Protestants and Catholics
A

c. small farmers and states’ rights advocates, and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests

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9
Q
  1. Andrew Jackson’s contribution to the development of political parties was the
    a. forgoing of a coalition of Democrats and Whigs
    b. introduction of primary elections
    c. formation of a new type of grassroots party organization
    d. formation of the Federalist party
    e. formation of the Republican party
A

c. formation of a new type of grassroots party organizations

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10
Q
8. The issue of slavery gave birth to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ party as a major political party. 
A. Federalist
B. Democratic
C. Republican
D. Whig
E. Populist
A

C. Republican

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11
Q
  1. (p. 238) All of the following are characteristic of a party realignment EXCEPT
    A. sharp divisions between the parties.
    B. enduring changes in party coalitions.
    C. major policy initiatives by the winning party.
    D. a very close electoral result.
    E. the disruption of the existing political order.
A

D. a very close electoral result.

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12
Q
11. (p. 240) The MOST obvious sign of the party realignment of recent decades has been the strong tendency of 
A. the South to vote Republican.
B. the Plains states to vote Republican.
C. the West coast to vote Democrat.
D. Colorado to vote Democrat.
E. the Midwest to vote Democrat.
A

A. the South to vote Republican

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13
Q
  1. (p. 243) Party dealignment is
    A. essentially the same as party realignment.
    B. a process that has discouraged the formation of third parties.
    C. a process that has strengthened the major parties.
    D. a process that refers to American political parties in the early 1800s.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

E. None of these answers are correct

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14
Q
  1. (p. 247) Which of the following MOST encourages the two major parties to build broad coalitions?
    A. the need to raise campaign funds
    B. the need to have policy “wiggle-room” once elected into power
    C. the desire to avoid their policy preferences becoming hijacked by extreme elements
    D. fear of demonization by the press
    E. the two-party system and the need to gain a plurality
A

E. the two-party system and the need to gain a plurality

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15
Q
23. (p. 249) Which of the following groups is NOT typically a part of the Democratic coalition? 
A. city dwellers
B. Hispanics
C. union members
D. Jews
E. fundamentalist Christians
A

E. fundamentalist Christians

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16
Q
26. (p. 250) Which of the following is an example of a single-issue party? 
A. Populists
B. Green Party
C. Socialist Workers Party
D. Libertarian Party
E. Greenback Party
A

E. Greenback Party

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17
Q
27. (p. 251) In twentieth-century American history, the most important minor parties were \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ parties. 
A. ideological
B. single-issue
C. factional
D. reform
E. non-aligned
A

C. factional

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18
Q
29. (p. 252) During the twentieth century, American parties lost their complete control over 
A. nominations.
B. financing.
C. platforms.
D. the staffing of government jobs.
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

E. All of these answers are correct

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19
Q
  1. (p. 258) American party organizations
    A. are about to die out.
    B. are more powerful today than at any time in history.
    C. have more power than their Western European counterparts.
    D. are still important, but their role in campaigns is secondary to that of candidates.
    E. are unimportant in the political system today.
A

D. are still important, but their role in campaigns is secondary to that of candidates.

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20
Q
2. (p. 269) Another name for an interest group is 
A. pressure group.
B. cabal.
C. political party.
D. coalition.
E. constituency.
A

A. pressure group

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21
Q
  1. (p. 270) Some groups pursue collective goods. A collective good is one that
    A. cannot be selectively granted or denied to individuals; it must be shared.
    B. is provided by a public service organization.
    C. is secured by the president.
    D. is secured by Congress.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

A. cannot be selectively granted or denied to individuals; it must be shared

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22
Q
7. (p. 273) Roughly how many American workers currently belong to unions? 
A. one in two
B. one in four
C. one in six
D. one in eight
E. one in ten
A

D. one in eight

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23
Q
  1. (p. 274) A purposive incentive is defined as
    A. a goal of direct economic gain.
    B. the opportunity to contribute to a worthy goal or purpose.
    C. a goal benefiting a specific group.
    D. any common purpose that brings groups together.
    E. corporate profit.
A

B. the opportunity to contribute to a worthy goal or purpose

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24
Q
  1. (p. 286) In the dynamics of an iron triangle, what benefit do interest groups provide to friendly bureaucratic agencies?
    A. services for constituents
    B. travel funds
    C. campaign contributions
    D. administration of mutually beneficial policies
    E. lobbying support for agency programs
A

E. lobbying support for agency programs

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25
Q
  1. (p. 289) The second-largest number of PACs are those associated with
    A. single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups.
    B. labor.
    C. business.
    D. agriculture.
    E. foreign governments.
A

A. single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups

26
Q
  1. (p. 289) The largest number of PACs are those associated with
    A. single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups.
    B. labor.
    C. business.
    D. agriculture.
    E. foreign governments.
A

C. business

27
Q
32. (p. 291) In the 2012 presidential election, super PACs spent about \_\_\_ million dollars. 
A. 27
B. 94
C. 150
D. 320
E. 600
A

E. 600

28
Q
  1. (p. 293) A flaw in pluralism theory is the fact that
    A. the interest group system is unrepresentative because some interests are far better organized and more powerful than others.
    B. the public interest is never served by policies that promote special interests.
    C. larger groups always prevail politically over smaller groups.
    D. political parties better represent different interests than do interest groups.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. the interest group system is unrepresentative because some interests are far better organized and more powerful than others.

29
Q
  1. (p. 294) In acknowledging the dilemma inherent in group activity, James Madison
    A. argued that the free-rider problem would hurt some groups more than others.
    B. claimed that government could listen to all groups, but should only enact policies that promote the interests of majority groups.
    C. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.
    D. argued that government must restrict the activities of groups, so that political parties could act as the major instrument of democracy.
    E. All of these answers are correct.
A

C. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest.

30
Q
  1. (p. 294) James Madison argued
    A. against all interest groups.
    B. for the advocacy of self-interest free from all systems of restraint.
    C. for regulation of interests through a governing system of checks and balances.
    D. for the replacement of interest groups by formal political parties.
    E. for a powerful judiciary.
A

C. for regulation of interests through a governing system of checks and balances

31
Q
38. (p. 295) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ wrote that "Liberty is to faction what air is to fire." 
A. James Madison
B. Alexis de Tocqueville
C. Thomas Jefferson
D. Theodore Lowi
E. Theodore Roosevelt
A

A. James Madison

32
Q
6. (p. 304) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has regulatory oversight over which of the following? 
A. radio
B. magazines
C. Internet content
D. newspapers
E. All of these answers are correct.
A

A. radio

33
Q
  1. (p. 310) The news media’s common-carrier role is based on the idea that
    A. the news will be available to all citizens.
    B. various news organizations should interpret the news in nearly the same way.
    C. the press should not charge for public service announcements.
    D. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public.
    E. the press should be patriotic in the reporting of the news.
A

D. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public

34
Q
12. (p. 307) Agenda-setting is an action that falls under which of the major roles played by the press? 
A. common-carrier
B. signaling
C. watchdog
D. partisan advocate
E. news interpreter
A

B. signaling

35
Q
  1. (p. 308) One of the reasons the reporting of national news is relatively uniform among news sources is that
    A. the government dictates much of what is reported.
    B. there are only a few important events each day that merit news coverage.
    C. the network newscasts are brief and the day’s top stories tend to dominate.
    D. reporters are not given much freedom by their editors.
    E. modern journalists have become fairly lazy and use mostly wire reports to create news copy for the network newscasts.
A

C. the network newscasts are brief and the day’s top stories tend to dominate

36
Q
  1. (p. 310) The traditional media have “softened” their news by
    A. infusing it with more partisan talk shows.
    B. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like.
    C. infusing it with more coverage of international affairs.
    D. focusing on editorials instead of nonpartisan facts.
    E. None of these answers is correct.
A

B. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like

37
Q
  1. (p. 322) What development brought about a dramatic reduction in television’s capacity to generate an interest in news?
    A. an increase in newspaper circulation
    B. the loss of objective journalistic standards
    C. the rapid spread of cable
    D. the rise of Internet news consumption
    E. a drop in education levels in the United States
A

C. the rapid spread of cable

38
Q
  1. (p. 322) During what decade did the American television network news audience change from a growing to a shrinking one?
    A. the 1960s
    B. the 1980s
    C. the 1990s
    D. the 1970s
    E. The audience has not yet begun to shrink.
A

B. the 1980s

39
Q

Who wrote “Democracy in America”?

A

Alexis do Tocqueville

40
Q

Who wrote “Common Sense”?

A

Thomas Paine

41
Q

Who wrote “The Social Contract”?

A

Jean Jacques Rousseau

42
Q

Who wrote “The Federalist Papers”?

A

Hamilton, Madison, Jay

43
Q

Who wrote “The Second Treatise on Civil Government?”

A

John Locke

44
Q
  1. The Constitution prevents the government from suspending the writ of habeas corpus, meaning that the government cannot
    A. prosecute persons for acts that were legal at the time they were committed.
    B. establish a state religion based on Christian beliefs.
    C. enact laws that would legalize the practice of indentured servitude.
    D. jail a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment.
    E. silence freedom of the press.
A

D. jail a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of his or her imprisonment

45
Q

What did Marbury v. Madison do?

A

set the precedent for judicial review

46
Q
  1. In Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court ruled that
    A. the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional.
    B. state regulation of labor practices violated firms’ property rights.
    C. the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce.
    D. factory practices could only be regulated by the states.
    E. factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.
A

B. state regulation of labor practices violated firms’ property rights

47
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- McCullough v. Maryland

A

increase federal power and authority

48
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- Gibbons v. Ogden

A

increase federal power and authority

49
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- The Dred Scott Decision

A

restrict power and authority in favor of states rights

50
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- Plessy v. Ferguson

A

restrict power and authority in favor of states rights

51
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- Hammer v. Dagenhart

A

restrict power and authority in favor of states rights

52
Q

Did this supreme court case increase power and authority or restrict power and authority in favor of states rights?
- Brown v. Board of Education

A

increase federal power and authority

53
Q
  1. Justice Holmes’s “clear and present danger” test holds that government can
    A. restrict speech that threatens national security.
    B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature.
    C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures.
    D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue.
    E. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.
A

A. restrict speech that threatens national security

54
Q
85. The Civil Rights Act of 1968 addressed 
A. voting.
B. hiring.
C. education.
D. housing.
E. work conditions.
A

D. housing

55
Q
27. This state typically holds the first presidential caucus: 
A. Kansas.
B. Minnesota.
C. Iowa.
D. Nevada.
E. Nebraska.
A

C. Iowa

56
Q
  1. The minimum number of Justices who must consent for the Supreme Court to hear a case on appeal is
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6
    E. All 9 Justices must agree to hear a case
A

B. 4

57
Q
53. The current Chief Justice of the United States is
A. Clarence Thomas.
B. John Marshall.
C. William Rehnquist.
D. John Roberts.
E. Thurgood Marshall.
A

D. John Roberts

58
Q
59. The Supreme Court issues about \_\_ opinions a year. 
A. 10
B. 30
C. 85
D. 200
E. 450
A

C. 85

59
Q
  1. An amicus curiae (“friend of the court”) brief provides a court with the view held by
    A. an interest that is not a direct party to the case.
    B. the Justice Department.
    C. the House and Senate judiciary committees.
    D. the American Bar Association.
    E. the solicitor general
A

A. an interest that is not a direct party to the case

60
Q
  1. (p. 184) In terms of party identification, about two-thirds of adults call themselves
A

Democrats or republicans