Staphylococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Produces white colonies that tend to turn a buff-golden color with time.

A

S. aureus

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2
Q

Found in the environment and as members of the indigenous skin microbiota.

A

Micrococci

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3
Q

[5] Most important human pathogens

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Staphylococcus epidermis, capitis, hominis
  3. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  4. Staphylococcus lugdunensis
  5. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
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4
Q

a-toxin aka

A

a-hemolysin

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5
Q

It is a protein secreted by almost all strains of S aureus, except coagulase-negative staphylococci.

A

a-toxin

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6
Q

In addition to lysing erythrocytes, can damage platelets and macrophages and cause severe tissue damage.

[toxins]

A

a-hemolysin

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7
Q

It lyses the cytoplasmic membranes by direct insertion into the lipid bilayer to form transmembrane pores.

[toxins]

A

pore-forming cytotoxin

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8
Q

Acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of erythrocytes and is also called the “hotcold” lysin.

[toxins]

A

β-Hemolysin

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9
Q

Enhanced hemolytic activity on incubation at 37° C and subsequent exposure to cold (4° C).

A

“hot cold” feature

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10
Q

CAMP means

A

Christie, Atkins, and Munch-Petersen

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11
Q

Test performed in the laboratory to identify group B streptococci.

A

CAMP

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12
Q

It binds to a specific cell membrane ganglioside found only in the stratum granulosum of the keratinized epidermis of the skin.

A

Exfoliatin

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13
Q

Exfoliative toxin is also known as?

A

Epidermolytic toxin

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14
Q

It causes the epidermal layer of the skin to slough off and is known to cause staphylococcal SSS, sometimes referred to as

A

Ritter disease

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15
Q

This toxin has also been implicated in bullous impetigo.

A

Exfoliatin

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16
Q

It is considered a virulence marker.

A

Enzymes

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17
Q

[3] Capable of destroying tissue capable of destroying tissue.

A
  1. Protease
  2. Lipase
  3. Hyaluronidase
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18
Q

In the cell wall of S. aureus

A

Protein A

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19
Q

Its ability to bind the Fc portion of immunoglobulin G (IgG)

A

Protein A

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20
Q

Stimulates gastrointestinal symptoms (primarily vomiting)

A

S. aureus enterotoxins

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21
Q

Most commonly caused by enterotoxins A, B, and D

[enterotoxins]

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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22
Q

Sometimes G and I are associated with TSS.

[enterotoxins]

A

Enterotoxins B

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23
Q

Has been linked to staphylococcal pseudomembranous enterocolitis.

[enterotoxins]

A

Enterotoxin B

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24
Q

A family of secreted proteins that are able to stimulate systemic effects as a result of absorption from the gastrointestinal tract after ingestion.

A

Superantigens

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25
Q

Menstruating-associated TSS.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin 1

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26
Q

Previously referred to as enterotoxin F.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin 1

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27
Q

A superantigen stimulating T-cell proliferation and the subsequent production of a large amount of cytokines that are responsible for the symptoms.

A

TSST - 1

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28
Q

Superficial skin infection that typically develops in a hair follicle, sebaceous gland, or sweat gland.

A

Furuncle or boil

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29
Q

Often a complication of acne vulgaris.

A

Furunculosis

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30
Q

Occurs most often on the back of the neck but it may involve other skin sites.

A

Carbuncle

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31
Q

Relatively mild inflammation of a hair follicle or oil gland; the infected area is raised and red.

A

Folliculitis

32
Q

Repeated attacks of boils.

A

Chronic Furunculosis

33
Q

Caused by the same strain of S aureus.

A

Chronic Furunculosis

34
Q

It has been long known as a secondary invader in group A streptococcal pustular impetigo.

[staphy]

A

Staphylococcus aureus

35
Q

Strains of S aureus that produce exfoliatin cause a characteristic form called?

A

Bullous impetigo

36
Q

A localized form of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

A

Bulluos impetigo

37
Q

Results from the production of exfoliatin in a staphylococcal lesion.

[skin syndrome]

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

38
Q

A bullous exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy young children.

39
Q

Characterized by a sudden onset of fever, quickly progress to hypotension and shock.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

40
Q

It is most commonly drug induced, but some cases have been linked to infections and vaccines.

A

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)

41
Q

Can be resolved by the administration of steroids early in the initial stages of presentation, whereas steroids aggravate SSS.

A

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)

42
Q

Staphylococci that do not produce coagulase are referred to as?

43
Q

[2] They are occasional isolates and can be significant pathogens.

A

S. haemolyticus
S. lugdunenesis

44
Q

It is associated mainly with urinary tract infections (UTIs), predominately in adolescent girls and young women.

A

S. saprophyticus

45
Q

A CoNS occasionally recovered in wounds, septicemia, UTIs, and native valve infections.

A

S. haemolyticus

46
Q

It has been associated with catheter related bacteremia and endocarditis.

A

S. lugdunensis

47
Q

Infections caused by this are predominantly hospital acquired.

A

S. epidermis

48
Q

It is a common cause of health care-acquired UTIs.

A

S. epidermis

49
Q

UTIs in young women.

A

S. saprophyticus

50
Q

This organism can be more virulent and can clinically mimic S. aureus infections.

A

S. lugdunensis

51
Q

It has been known to contain the gene mecA that encodes oxacillin resistance.

A

S. lugdunensis

52
Q

It appears as gram positive cocci, usually in clusters.

[s&m]

A

Staphylococci

53
Q

It appears as gram positive cocci in tetrads, rather than large clusters.

[s&m]

A

Micrococci

54
Q

Contains salt (7.5%), the sugar mannitol, and phenol red as the pH indicator.

[culture]

A

Mannitol Sal Agar

55
Q

S. aureus that can grow in the presence of salt and ferment mannitol produce colonies surrounded by a?

[culture]

A

yellow halo

56
Q

It is a rapid method to differentiate Staphylococcus from Micrococcus by detection of the enzyme oxidase.

[test]

A

Microdase test

57
Q

This test is used to detect the presence of
cytochrome oxidase enzymes.

[test]

A

Catalase test

58
Q

[2] S. aureus produces two forms of coagulase:

A
  1. Bound
  2. Free
59
Q

[2] They are require susceptibility testing.

A
  1. S. aureus
  2. S. lugdunensis
60
Q

Breaks down the β-lactam ring of many penicillins, most S. aureus isolates are resistant to penicillin.

A

β-lactamases (penicillinases)

61
Q

Does not require routine antimicrobial susceptibility testing because isolates typically are sensitive to agents commonly used to treat UTI.

[staphy]

A

S. saprophyticus

62
Q

Remains the treatment of choice for MRSA.

A

Vancomycin

63
Q

A better inducer of mecA-mediated resistance.

64
Q

Yellow colonies fermenting mannitol as evident by the yellow color of the agar.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

65
Q

White colonies, no mannitol fermenting, as evident by the original pink color of the agar.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

66
Q

Bacitracin resistant and Furazolidone sensitive.

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

67
Q

Bacitracin sensitive and Furazolidone resistant.

A

Micrococcus

68
Q

MRSA means

A

Methicillin - Resistant Staphylococci Aureus

69
Q

CAMRSA means

A

Community Associated Methicillin - Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

70
Q

HACO - MRSA means

A

Health care - Associated Community - Onset Methicillin - Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

71
Q

It is often found only in association with Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL).

[cytolytic toxins]

A

δ-Hemolysin

72
Q

Bacitracin resistant and Furazolidone sensitive

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

73
Q

Bacitracin sensitive and Furazolidone resistant.

A

Micrococcus

74
Q

How much drop of hydrogen peroxide solution is placed on a slide, and a small amount of the bacterial growth is placed in the solution.

75
Q

It is unstable and breaks down easily on exposure to light.

A

Hydrogen peroxide

76
Q

A third type of MRSA is termed

A

HACRO - MRSA or Health care - associated community - onset methicillin resistant Staphylococcus areus

77
Q

To determine the organism’s susceptibility to clindamycin, this test has been used in microbiology laboratories.

A

Modified Kirby Bauer Test