Speech final Flashcards
1
Q
How is cleft lip and palate formed?
A
upper lip fuse together by 8 weeks gestation
2
Q
what is the cause of cleft palate
A
no single cause
3
Q
what areas do cleft palate effect?
A
can impact nose/nostril development
4
Q
what sounds do cleft palates effect
A
stops fricatives and affricates
5
Q
what does an incomplete palate mean for cleft lip
A
Incomplete means it doesn’t go all the way to the back of the palette
6
Q
what is a submucous cleft?
A
Abnormality in hard palate development that is hidden by mucosal tissue of the palate
No actual opening in the nasal cavity
7
Q
what are 3 signs a submucous cleft may be present
A
Bifid uvula
Hypernasal voice quality
Bluish tint in midline of soft palate
8
Q
what are 4 slp related issues for slps
A
feeding, hearing, dental, resonance, articulation/phonological, language delays and disorders
9
Q
what are the steps behind cleft lip palate assesment
A
birth - 4 ome and resknance, surgery, asses for velopharyngeal dysfunction
10
Q
what is the treatment for cleft lip
A
same treatment for phonological, voice and language disorders
11
Q
what is fluency described as
A
continuity, smothness, rate and effort in speech prod
12
Q
what are normal symptoms of disfluency
A
hesitations pauses, repeating sounds, use fillers
13
Q
what are overt/characteristics of stutering
A
Audible “Core Behaviors”
Repetitions
Prolongations
“Silent blocks” - respiratory, phonatory, or articulatory
Interjections of sounds, syllables, words (“fillers)
Revisions
○
Visual
Eyes: blinking
Head/Face: tension, furrowing of forehead, jerking
Raising/tensing shoulders
Arms/Hands: swinging arms, jerking, clenching fish, pressing fingers together
Tensing chest muscles
14
Q
what is overt and covert?
A
overt means audible and visible while covert means feelings beliefs and attitudes
15
Q
what is prolongation?
A
Prolongation is the extension of a consonant or vowels
16
Q
whats revision?
A
word switches or change of topics/ kids may not know the answer to a question but change the answer incase they have to say something specific that will trigger them
17
Q
what are covert stuttering symptoms
A
frustration anger anxiety
18
Q
are there any co-occuring disorders with stuttering?
A
yes lots
19
Q
what is cluttering?
A
speech delivery that is abnormaly fast irregular or both
20
Q
what are the characteristics of cluttering?
A
rapid speech
disfluencies
syllable deletion
Ungrammatical syntax
21
Q
who is most likely to have a cluttering issue?
A
post stroke patients
22
Q
are cluttering patients aware?
A
no
23
Q
ideal stutter assemsent
A
parent interview, speech sample, child interview, observations, assesment covert assesment
24
Q
stuttering treatment
A
indirect and direct
24
whats an example of indirect treatment?
caregiver allows lots of time and counselling, turn taking, reduce pressure
25
whats an example of direct treatment?
Counselling
○ Confidence building with therapy tasks
○ Lidcombe Program
○ Fluency modification (once a bit older)
26
According to Gregory, what are the four stages of therapy?
The four stages of therapy are
1 developing insight and attitudes
2 increasing awareness of muscular tension,
3 analyzing and modifying speech
4 building new speech skills
27
What is a cognitive communication disorder
Language problem that occurs secondary to cognitive impairment
28
What are the common causes of a cognitive communication disorder?
TBI, right hemisphere damage, dementia
29
what are some characteristics of a traumatic brain injury with both paediatric and adult patients?
cognition, memory, attention, language reasoning, judgement information processing psychosocial behavior, and they may have motor deficits
30
What does a mild TBI mean?
Concussion
31
What are some common causes of a TBI?
Falls, motor accident, child, accident, child abuse, sport injury, altercations
32
What is the difference between closed and open when referring to a brain injury?
Closed is most common, and it means that the skull will be impacted, but it's not fractured or penetrated, and open means that the skull and brain are penetrated by a severe impact and can cause skull fragments to disperse into brain
33
what are the differences between paediatric and adult brains when discussing traumatic brain injury
Paediatric brains are more susceptible to injury because of soft tissue and children often lack awareness and maybe impulsive children's brains are also not fully developed
34
What are the stages of assessment for a traumatic brain injury?
Acute, rehabilitation hospital, outpatient services, continued outpatient, and private
35
what is the assessment for a traumatic brain injury?
Complete a cognitive test
Receptive and expressive language
Speech production
Swallowing
And hearing
36
what is the treatment for a traumatic brain injury
Cognitive rehabilitation focusses on cognitive skills within the area of communication and the goal is to improve cognitive and psychosocial functioning and foster independence
37
what can neurological impairment impactfor slp
Communication, cognition, speech, and or swallowing
38
where do SOP's and adults go for treatment of a neurological language disorder?
Acute care, hospitals, long-term care and private practice are options
39
what are the variety of etiologies?
Stroke, TBI, tumours toxins and degenerative diseases and disorders.
40
What are the three types of strokes
hemorrhagic, ischemic and transient ischemic attack
41
what is a HEMORRHAGIC stroke
Rupturing of blood vessel, leading to damage in brain tissue can be caused by an aneurism
42
what is an SCHEMIC or occlusive stroke?
Partial or complete blockage of blood flow thrombosis versus embolism blockage
43
what is a transient SCHEMIC attack
Blood flow insufficiency and partial blockage
44
what is the recovery for strokes based on
Age, overall health prior to stroke, site and size of lesion
45
where can strokes happen
In any of the CNS
46
what are tumors?
Abnormal masses of tissue that caused compression and displacement of brain tissue
47
what are the types of tumours
Primary and secondary a primary tumour originates in the brain, and a secondary tumour originates somewhere else, and then travels to the brain due to cells metastasizing through the bloodstream
48
are all tumours cancerous
Some tumours are cancerous malignant and some are not cancerous benign
49
what are some common types of toxins?
Alcohol, recreational drugs, and environmental toxins
50
what is a degenerative disease or disorder
The brain changes due to progressive deterioration of structures and functions
51
what are some examples of degenerative diseases or disorders
Dementia, ALS, Parkinson's, multiple sclerosis, MS
52
what is aphasia
An acquired language impairment due to a neurological damage
53
does aphasia affect us, expressive or receptive
Both
54
is there any other cognitive impairments that coexist with aphasia?
Yes, sensory, motor, intellectual, and or cognitive
55
can you determine the type of aphasia by knowing where the site of the lesion is?
Sometimes you can determine it, but you have to look at the symptoms
56
what is the assessment for language disorders?
History, receptive and expressive abilities, nonverbal, communication, reading, and writing abilities
57
What is the ratio of boys to girls diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 4:1
C) 3:1
58
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Increased interest in social interaction
B) Impaired communication skills
C) Repetitive, stereotyped movements
D) Restricted interests
A) Increased interest in social interaction
59
According to DSM-5, which of the following is an essential characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Hyperactivity and impulsivity
B) Persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction
C) Perfect communication skills
D) High level of empathy
B) Persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior
60
Which factor is NOT associated with the increasing rates of Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Genetics and environment
B) In Utero complications
C) Vaccines
D) Consistent rates across race and ethnicity
C) vaccines
61
Which of the following is NOT a symptom that presents from early childhood and limits or impairs everyday functioning in Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Delayed language skills
B) Lack of interest in social interaction
C) Regression or loss of language skills at any age
D) Reduced or absent eye contact with caregivers
B) Lack of interest in social interaction
61
Which of the following is NOT a symptom that presents from early childhood and limits or impairs everyday functioning in Autism Spectrum Disorder?
A) Delayed language skills
B) Lack of interest in social interaction
C) Regression or loss of language skills at any age
D) Reduced or absent eye contact with caregivers
B) Hyperactivity
61
True or False: Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by decreased interest in social interaction and relationships.
true
61
True or False: Genetics and environment are potential factors contributing to the increasing rates of Autism Spectrum Disorder.
true
62
true or False: Lack of response to own name by 12 months is a symptom associated with delayed language skills in Autism Spectrum Disorder.
true
63
what are the social deficits of autism?
○ Difficulty explaining behaviours
○ Difficulty understanding emotions
○ Difficulty predicting the behaviours or emotional state of
others
64
True or False: Increased rate of otitis media (middle ear infection) is a comorbidity of autism.
A) True
B) False
true
65
True or False: Intellectual disabilities are comorbidities associated with Attention-deficit/hyperactivity Disorder.
A) True
B) False
true
66
What is the definition of developmental delay?
A) Difficulty or delay in any area of development
B) Difficulty only in physical development
C) Difficulty only in cognitive development
D) Difficulty only in emotional development
A Difficulty or delay in any area of development
67
Global Developmental Delay typically manifests before the age of:
A) 1 year
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 7 years
C) 5 years
68
Which of the following conditions can lead to Global Developmental Delay?
A) Autism Spectrum Disorder
B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
69
Intellectual Disability is characterized by:
A) Significant limitations in intellectual functioning only
B) Significant limitations in adaptive behavior only
C) Significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior
D) Mild limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior
C) Significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior
70
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with developmental delays?
A) Cerebral Palsy
B) Down Syndrome
C) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD)
D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
D) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
71
What are some characteristics of fluency disorders?
A) Continuity, volume, smoothness
B) Smoothness, rate, effort
C) Clarity, volume, effort
D) Volume, rate, clarity
Answer: B) Smoothness, rate, effort
72
Which of the following behaviors are commonly observed in individuals experiencing fluency disorders?
A) Rapid speech, clear articulation
B) Hesitations, repetitions, fillers
C) Fluent speech, minimal pauses
D) Consistent pace, no repetitions
Answer: B) Hesitations, repetitions, fillers
73
Which condition involves swelling of the vocal cords, resulting in a hoarse voice?
A) Laryngitis
B) Vocal cord paresis
C) Spasmodic dysphonia
D) Dysarthria
Answer: A) Laryngitis
74
What nerve problem causes spasms in the vocal cords?
A) Laryngitis
B) Vocal cord paresis
C) Spasmodic dysphonia
D) Dysarthria
Answer: C) Spasmodic dysphonia
75
What feelings may individuals with fluency disorders commonly experience?
A) Happiness, satisfaction, pride
B) Frustration, anger, guilt
C) Excitement, confidence, comfort
D) Relaxation, ease, contentment
Answer: B) Frustration, anger, guilt
76
List the characteristics of a voice disorder
Hoarse - used most by professionals
● Breathy
● harsh/strained/strangled
● grating/gravily
● strident/thin/weak
● Monotone, monopitch
77
Vocal nodules are commonly found in which region of the vocal folds?
A) Posterior one-third
B) Middle one-third
C) Anterior one-third
D) Entire length
Answer: C) Anterior one-third and middle one-third
78
What is a common cause of vocal polyps?
A) Excessive coughing
B) Vocal fold cysts
C) Voice misuse
D) Neurological disorders
Answer: C) Voice misuse
79
Laryngitis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Vocal trauma
C) Allergies
D) Excessive whispering
D) Excessive whispering
80
Where do contact ulcers typically develop on the vocal folds?
A) Posterior region
B) Anterior region
C) Medial region
D) Lateral region
Answer: C) Medial region
81
Functional dysphonia is characterized by changes in voice that are:
A) Explained by physical causes
B) Unexplained by physical or neurological causes
C) Primarily due to muscle tension
D) Always accompanied by psychological symptoms
Answer: B) Unexplained by physical or neurological causes
82
Muscle tension dysphonia often results in a voice that is:
A) Smooth and clear
B) Rough, hoarse, or thin
C) Monotone and weak
D) Deep and resonant
Answer: B) Rough, hoarse, or thin
83
What is a characteristic feature of functional aphonia?
A) Whispering during speech
B) Inability to produce any sounds
C) Strong voice during non-speech vocalizations
D) Complete loss of vocal fold movement
Answer: A) Whispering during speech
84
Hypoadduction of vocal folds is commonly associated with which neurological disorder?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Multiple system atrophy
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Alzheimer's disease
Answer: A) Parkinson's disease
85
What is Aphasia?
A) A type of neurological disorder
B) A skin condition
C) A form of physical disability
D) A psychological disorder
Answer: A) A type of neurological disorder
86
Which components of language can be affected by Aphasia?
A) Only expressive language
B) Only receptive language
C) All components of language
D) Only written language
Answer: C) All components of language
87
What may co-exist with Aphasia?
A) Vision impairments
B) Hearing impairments
C) Sensory, motor, intellectual, and/or cognitive impairments
D) Bone fractures
Answer: C) Sensory, motor, intellectual, and/or cognitive impairments
88
How can the type of Aphasia be determined?
A) By the person's age
B) By the person's gender
C) By the site of lesion
D) By the person's nationality
Answer: C) By the site of lesion
89
What skills can be affected by Aphasia?
A) Speech only
B) Hearing only
C) Reading and writing skills
D) Vision only
Answer: C) Reading and writing skills
90
what are the types of aphasia?
Broca's Aphasia
B) Transcortical sensory Aphasia
C) Conduction Aphasia
D) Wernicke's Aphasia
Transcortical motor Aphasia
91
Which type of Aphasia primarily affects speech production?
A) Broca's Aphasia
B) Wernicke's Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Conduction Aphasia
Answer: A) Broca's Aphasia
92
Which type of Aphasia primarily affects comprehension?
A) Broca's Aphasia
B) Wernicke's Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Conduction Aphasia
Answer: B) Wernicke's Aphasia
93
Which type of Aphasia involves both expressive and receptive impairments?
A) Broca's Aphasia
B) Wernicke's Aphasia
C) Global Aphasia
D) Transcortical Motor Aphasia
Answer: C) Global Aphasia
94
What are some early signs and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
Answer: C) Impaired working memory
95
Which stage of Alzheimer's is characterized by increased loss of working memory and diminished vocabulary?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer's
B) Early stage Alzheimer's
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer's
Answer: C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
96
What is a common symptom during the moderate stage of Alzheimer's?
Withdrawal and inappropriate behavior
97
What typically happens during the severe stage of Alzheimer's?
Difficulty recognizing others or oneself
98
Which type of dementia is characterized by impaired working memory, difficulty completing tasks, and disorientation? A) Alzheimer's
B) Huntington's
C) Korsakoff's
D) Down syndrome
Alzheimer's
99
Which stage of Alzheimer's is often characterized by forgetting common names and misplacing items?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer's
B) Early stage Alzheimer's
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer's
Answer: B) Early stage Alzheimer's
100
In which stage of Alzheimer's do the warning signs become more apparent and the person is frequently not thinking clearly?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer's
B) Early stage Alzheimer's
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer's
Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
101
Which stage of Alzheimer's marks the terminal stage where the person no longer thinks, reasons, or communicates?
A) Stage one mild Alzheimer's
B) Early stage Alzheimer's
C) Stage 2: moderate Alzheimer's
D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer's
Answer: D) Stage 3: severe Alzheimer's
102
What are the characteristics of respiratory dysarthria?
A) High volume, long phrases, clear articulation
B) Low volume, short phrases, strained/strangled at end of phrases
C) Breathiness in voice, hypernasality
D) Weakness in lips, tongue, jaw
Low volume, short phrases, strained/strangled at end of phrases
103
Which type of dysarthria may exhibit breathiness in voice and quiet speech?
A) Respiratory
B) Phonatory
C) Resonatory
D) Articulatory
Phonatory
104
What is a characteristic symptom of resonatory dysarthria?
A) Hypernasality
B) Shortness of breath
C) Articulation difficulty
D) Unintelligibility
Answer: A) Hypernasality
105
Which type of dysarthria involves weakness in the muscles of the soft palate?
A) Respiratory
B) Phonatory
C) Resonatory
D) Articulatory
resonatory
106
What neurological conditions are associated with dysarthria?
A) Arthritis and diabetes
B) Tumors and ALS
C) Hypertension and asthma
D) Migraines and epilepsy
Tumors and ALS
107
Dysarthria respitory symptoms?
difficulty coordinating breathing for speech
108
Dysarthria Articulatory symptoms?
weakness in lips, tongue, jaw
○ unintelligibility
109
What is dysarthria
Motor speech disorder due to neurological impairment impacting strength and
coordination of muscles for speech
110
What are some cognitive impairments associated with cognitive-communication disorders?
Attention, memory, reasoning
111
what are the characteristics of right hemisphere disorder?
A) Visual-spatial abilities
B) Emotions
D) Orientation
112
What is a common cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A) Allergies
B) Infections
C) Falls
D) Diabetes
Answer: C) Falls
113
What is the difference between closed and open TBI?
Open TBI involves skull penetration, while closed TBI does not.
114
what is a characteristic of right hemisphere disorder?
emotional instability
115
What is a potential consequence of open TBI?
Dispersal of skull fragments into the brain
116
Which aspect of communication is often affected by cognitive deficits?
Receptive and expressive language
117
What may individuals with cognitive-communication disorders have trouble understanding?
General concepts
118
Why are pediatric brains more susceptible to injury compared to adults?
Answer: B) Due to increased water content
119
What is a common characteristic of children during TBI assessment and management
Answer: C) Lack of awareness and impulsivity
120
Which stage of assessment typically involves immediate medical care?
acute
121
What is the primary goal of treatment for brain injury patients?
Enhancing functional independence
122
What is the focus of cognitive rehabilitation in brain injury patients?
Improving cognitive skills within communication
123
What are the goals of cognitive rehabilitation?
Improve cognitive and psychosocial functioning
124
In which stage of assessment does the patient receive ongoing care outside the hospital?
outpatient
125
How is Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) typically screened?
Eye gaze, orientating to name, use of gestures
126
What type of assessment task involves using a mirror in cleft lip and palate assessment?
Non-instrumental assessment
127
Who might initiate screening for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
Healthcare professionals, teachers, or parents
128
What is the main focus of Speech-Language Pathologists (SLPs) when involved with cleft lip infants at birth?
feeding and pre linguistic skills
129
How often are children with cleft lip and palate screened for development from birth to four years?
yearly
130
what is typically assessed in cleft lip and palate cases?
Velopharyngeal dysfunction
B) Hypernasality
D) Nasal emissions
131
What type of evaluation is often used for assessing resonance and velopharyngeal function in cleft lip and palate cases?
Perceptual evaluation
132
What is a common instrumental assessment used for evaluating resonance and velopharyngeal function?
nasometer
133
What are some descriptors used to describe abnormal voice quality?
breathy and or harsh
134
Which term is commonly used by professionals to describe a voice with roughness?
hoarse
135
What is a potential cause of voice disorders in children?
vocal nodules
136
What is a potential cause of voice disorders in adults?
Vocal Polyps
B) Functional Dysphonia
D) Polypoid degeneration
137
What might be a potential cause of voice disorders in older adults?
Polypoid degeneration
138
What type of voice disorder might be due to career or environmental factors?
Functional dysphonia
139
what is dysphagia
medical term for difficulty swallowing.
140
causes for dysphagia?
Due to a stroke, frailty in older adults, cancer, etc.
141
What does developmental delay refer to?
Difficulty or delay in two or more areas of development
142
At what age does global developmental delay typically manifest?
Before the age of 5 years
143
what are the symptoms of global development delay
delays in physical and behavioral development
144
What is involved in the Oral Preparatory phase of swallowing?
Chewing and manipulation of food in the mouth
145
Which action occurs during the Oral phase of swallowing?
Tongue quickly sweeps back, pulling food to the pharynx
146
What is
the primary function of the soft palate during the Pharyngeal phase of swallowing?
soft palate closes the nasal cavity
147
what is oral prep
Engaged all senses and cognitive awareness of food
● Includes bringing food to your mouth - bite size, sip size
● Chewing - depending on consistency, texture, size, and temperature
● Tongue is responsible to move food around the mouth
○ Allows for chewing
148
what is oral stage
begins once chewing has stopped
149
what is the pharyngeal stage
● Passage of food through the pharynx to the esophagus opening
Soft pallate raises, larynx moves up, vocal folds close then larynx lowers
150
what is the esophageal stage
Food has passed through the upper esophageal valve/sphincter
● Valve closes and peristaltic squeezing actions of the esophageal muscles carries the
bolus to the lower esophageal valve at the bottom
● Usually takes 8 - 20 seconds
● Lower valve briefly opens for bolus to enter the stomach
○ Closes again to prevent gastric/stomach acid from coming up the esophagus
151
what is bolus
food mass in the mouth that can be chewed and prepared to
start the process of swallowing
152
what is aspiration:
solids (food) or liquids entering the lungs (Below vocal
folds)
153
what is silent aspiration
penetration of food/liquid/ saliva past the larynx and
passing below the vocal folds without overt signs (protective cough or
choking)
154
what are the 3 options for dysphagia patients?
NPO (Nothing by Mouth)
■ NG tube: nasogastric tube
and ■ G tube: gastrostomy tube
155
● Physiological processing (chemical and electrical activity) begins in the ...
inner ear
156
outer ear purpose?
Collects and resonates sound
● Assists in localizing direction of sound
● Helps to protect from middle ear damage
○ Cerumen (wax)
157
outer ear parts?
● Pinna: the part of ear you can see
○ Helix (upper rim) and lobule (lower potion)
● Ear canal (1 inch long)
○ Directs sound to tympanic membrane
● Tympanic membrane: outer surface of the eardrum
○ Separates ear canal from middle ear
○ Vibrates into middle ear (sound waves)
158
Middle ear purpose?
Provides the energy transformation
● Allows the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to be amplified before reaching the
cochlea
159
Middle ear parts
Ossicular chain: Three joined bones that connect the tympanic membrane to the
cochlea. Move based on the vibrations (rhythm) of the eardrum movement
○ Malleus: “mallet” or “hammer”
○ Incus
○ Stapes
● Eustachian Tube
○ Keeps an constant middle ear air pressure
○ Connects middle ear to the nasopharynx
○ Valve often closed at nasopharynx except when chewing, swallowing, yawning, sneezing, and
in babies (before 6 months)
○ Barotrauma: feeling of pressure in middle ear that changes with altitude
160
inner ear purpose?
Converts movement of ossicles into signal for auditory nerve to
receive
161
inner ear parts?
cochlea and vestibular system
